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Security+ > Módulo 07 - Vulnerability Management > Flashcards

Módulo 07 - Vulnerability Management Flashcards

1
Q

Define: Vulnerability Management

A

A: The process of
1. identifying,
2. evaluating,
3. treating
4. reporting
vulnerabilities to prevent exploitation

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2
Q

Define: End-of-Life (EOL) Systems

A

A: Products or systems that are no longer supported by the manufacturer or vendor, receiving no updates or security patches, making them vulnerable to new threats.

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3
Q

Define: Legacy Systems

A

A: Outdated computer systems or applications that are still in use despite their limitations, often due to the high cost or risk associated with replacing them.

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4
Q

Define: Firmware Vulnerabilities

A

A: Security flaws within the foundational software that controls hardware, which can be exploited to gain unauthorized access or persist on a system undetected.

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5
Q

Define: Meltdown and Spectre

A

A: Critical vulnerabilities discovered in 2018 affecting nearly all CPUs, allowing malicious programs to steal data being processed on the computer.

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6
Q

Define: LoJax

A

A: A malware discovered in 2018 that infects the UEFI firmware, allowing attackers to maintain persistence even after hard drive replacements or OS reinstallations.

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7
Q

Define: Vulnerability Scanning

A

A: The use of specialized tools to automatically identify potential security weaknesses in an organization’s digital assets.

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8
Q

Define: Shellshock

A

A: A significant vulnerability in the Bash shell affecting Unix-based systems, including macOS, allowing attackers to execute arbitrary commands.

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9
Q

Define: Heartbleed

A

A: A serious vulnerability in the OpenSSL cryptographic library that allowed attackers to read protected memory on affected servers.

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10
Q

Q: Acronym: UEFI

A

A: Unified Extensible Firmware Interface.

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11
Q

Q: Acronym: SMB

A

A: Server Message Block.

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12
Q

Q: Acronym: MMS

A

A: Multimedia Messaging Service.

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13
Q

Q: Acronym: OpenSSL

A

A: Open Secure Sockets Layer.

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14
Q

True or False:
The Stagefright vulnerability affected iOS devices.

A

A: False:

Stagefright affected Android devices by allowing code execution via specially crafted MMS messages.

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15
Q

True or False:
Heartbleed was a vulnerability in the OpenSSL library that compromised secret keys.

A

A: True:

Heartbleed allowed attackers to read sensitive memory contents, exposing secret keys.

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16
Q

True or False:
Firmware updates are unnecessary as firmware cannot be exploited.

A

A: False:

Firmware can contain vulnerabilities; updating it is crucial for security.

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17
Q

True or False:
macOS is completely safe from vulnerabilities due to its Unix-based architecture.

A

A: False:

macOS can have vulnerabilities, such as those exploited by the Shellshock bug.

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18
Q

Define: WannaCry Ransomware

A

A: A 2017 global ransomware attack that exploited the EternalBlue vulnerability to encrypt data and demand ransom payments.

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19
Q

Define: Stagefright Vulnerability

A

A: A critical flaw in the Android media playback engine that allowed remote code execution via MMS messages.

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20
Q

Define: Watering Hole Attack

A

A: A strategy where attackers compromise a website likely to be visited by their targets to distribute malware.

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21
Q

Define: Conficker Worm

A

A: A worm exploiting the MS08-067 vulnerability in Windows, leading to one of the largest infections in history.

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22
Q

Define: EternalBlue

A

A: An exploit developed by the NSA and leaked by the Shadow Brokers group, targeting vulnerabilities in Microsoft’s SMB protocol, notably used in the WannaCry attack.

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23
Q

Acronym:
Bash

A

A: Bourne Again Shell.

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24
Q

Define: Vulnerability Scanning

A

A: The process of automatically identifying vulnerabilities systems, such as
1. open ports
2. insecure configurations
3. missing patches.

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25
Q

Define: Threat Feed

A

A: A continuously updated source of information about potential cyber threats and vulnerabilities, providing actionable intelligence for vulnerability management.

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26
Q

Define: Penetration Testing

A

A: A proactive method where ethical hackers simulate real-world attacks to exploit vulnerabilities and evaluate an organization’s security posture.

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27
Q

Define: Bug Bounty Programs

A

A: Initiatives that incentivize external security researchers to discover and responsibly report vulnerabilities in exchange for rewards.

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28
Q

Define: Responsible Disclosure Programs

A

A: Guidelines established by organizations to encourage individuals to report vulnerabilities responsibly, allowing for fixes before exploitation.

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29
Q

Define: Security Audits

A

A: Comprehensive reviews of an organization’s security controls and practices, often aligned with standards like ISO 27001 or NIST.

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30
Q

Define: Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI)

A

A: Data about threats and attackers gathered from various sources, used to improve an organization’s cybersecurity posture.

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31
Q

Acronym:
GDPR

A

A: General Data Protection Regulation.

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32
Q

Define: Deep Web

A

A: Parts of the internet not indexed by search engines, such as unlinked pages or those requiring registration.

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33
Q

Define: Dark Web

A

A: Hidden parts of the deep web accessible only through specific software like TOR, often associated with illicit activities but also used for privacy and research.

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34
Q

Bug Bounty vs. Penetration Testing

A

A: Bug bounty has external researchers testing for vulnerabilities,

penetration is performed by internal or hired team.

35
Q

Define: Behavioral Threat Research

A

A: Analysis of TTP tactics and procedures used by attackers, gathered through direct observation and research.

36
Q

Acronym:
TTP

A

A: Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures.

37
Q

Acronym:
SIEM

A

A: Security Information and Event Management.

38
Q

List:
Types of Vulnerability Identification Methods

A
  1. Vulnerability scanning
  2. Penetration testing
  3. Bug bounty programs
  4. Auditing
38
Q

List:
Threat Feed Type

A
  1. Third-party threat feeds
  2. Open-source intelligence (OSINT)
  3. Closed/proprietary threat feeds
  4. Information-sharing organizations
39
Q

List:
Common OSINT Tools

A
  1. Shodan
  2. Maltego
  3. Recon-ng
  4. theHarvester
40
Q

List:
Types of Cybersecurity Audits

A
  1. Compliance audits
  2. Risk-based audits
  3. Technical audit
41
Q

What’s audited in a Security Audit?

A
  1. Policies
  2. Procedures
  3. System configuration
  4. Supply chain evaluation
  5. Monitoring and support practices
42
Q

Acronym: NVD

A

A: National Vulnerability Database

43
Q

Define:
Package Monitoring

A

The process of tracking and assessing the security of third-party software packages, libraries, and dependencies to ensure they are up-to-date and free from known vulnerabilities.

44
Q

True or False:
A credentialed vulnerability scan requires administrative access to hosts for deeper analysis.

A

A: True.

Credentialed scans provide more in-depth analysis by accessing internal configurations and settings with user account privileges.

45
Q

True or False:
Non-credentialed scans can validate vulnerabilities by attempting exploitation.

A

A: False.

Non-credentialed scans cannot exploit vulnerabilities; they only assess what is exposed to unprivileged users.

46
Q

List:
Types of vulnerability scan [Types to perform]

A
  1. Intrusive [Tries to exploit]
  2. Non-intrusive [List potential vulnerabilities]
  3. Credentialed
  4. Non-credentialed
47
Q

List:
Methods in application vulnerability scanning

A
  1. Static analysis
  2. Dynamic analysis
48
Q

List:
Components monitored in package monitoring.

A
  1. Third-party software packages
  2. Libraries
  3. Dependencies
49
Q

What type of vulnerability scan would you perform to simulate an external attacker without internal access to the system?

A

Non-credentialed scan.

50
Q

What does automated software composition analysis (SCA) track in package monitoring?

A

It tracks software packages, libraries, and dependencies for outdated versions or known vulnerabilities.

51
Q

Acronym:
SCA

A

A: Software Composition Analysis

52
Q

Define:
Network Monitors

A

Tools that collect data about network infrastructure appliances.

like CPU/memory usage, disk capacity, and link utilization.

53
Q

Define:
NetFlow

A

Reports metadata and statistics about network traffic,

Analyzes traffic patterns and detection of anomalies.

54
Q

Define:
System Logs

A

Logs that provide audit trails of actions on a system, used to diagnose availability issues, monitor authorized and unauthorized access, and proactively identify threats and vulnerabilities.

55
Q

Define:
Cloud Monitors

A

Tools that monitor the performance and health of cloud services, assessing bandwidth, virtual machine status, application health, and error or alert conditions.

56
Q

Define:
Endpoint Protection Platforms (EPPs)

A

Modern antivirus solutions that detect malware using signatures and AI-based behavior analytics, often integrated with user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA).

57
Q

True or False:
NetFlow tracks every individual packet transmitted over the network.

A

False.

NetFlow records metadata and statistics about network traffic, not individual packets.

58
Q

Acronym:
SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

59
Q

Acronym:
UEBA

A

User and Entity Behavior Analytics

60
Q

Acronym:
DLP

A

Data Loss Prevention

61
Q

List:
How do data loss prevention (DLP) tools do what they do?

A
  1. Mediating data transfers
  2. Restricting copying to authorized media
  3. Monitoring DLP policy violations
  4. Highlighting trends over time
62
Q

List:
Features of NetFlow analysis tools.

A
  1. Based on traffic trends and patterns
  2. Identifies rogue user behavior or malware in transit
  3. Detects C&C traffic
63
Q

List:
Three main types of SIEM data collection methods.

A
  1. Agent-based: Installed on hosts to process data locally.
  2. Listener/collector: Hosts push logs directly to the SIEM server.
  3. Sensor: Collects packet captures and traffic flow data from network sniffers.
64
Q

Acronym:
SOAR

A

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Reporting

65
Q

Define:
Log Aggregation

A

The process of normalizing data from various sources to ensure consistency and searchability within a SIEM system.

66
Q

Define:
Alert Fatigue

A

A condition where analysts become overwhelmed by low-priority alerts, potentially missing critical incidents due to high false-positive rates.

67
Q

Define:
Security Orchestration and Automation Reporting

A

Automation responses to incidents and integrating workflows across tools

68
Q

What is a policy server [DLP]?

A

Configures:
1. Classification
2. Confidentiality
3. Privacy rules

Also:
1. Logs incidents
2. Compiles reports

69
Q

What is a tombstone mechanism in DLP?

A

A remediation mechanism that replaces the quarantined file with one explaining the policy violation and instructions on how to regain access.

70
Q

Compare:
Alert-only remediation vs. Block remediation in DLP.

A

Alert-only: Allows copying but logs the incident and may notify an administrator.

Block: Prevents the user from copying the file, with or without notifying the user.

71
Q

List:
Components of a DLP solution.

A
  1. Policy server: Configures rules and logs incidents
  2. Endpoint agents: Enforces policies on client devices.
  3. Network agents: Scans communications and enforces policies at network borders.
72
Q

List:
Common remediation mechanisms in DLP.

A
  1. Alert only.
  2. Block.
  3. Quarantine.
  4. Tombstone.
73
Q

List:
The five phases of the penetration testing life cycle.

A
  1. Perform reconnaissance
  2. Scan/enumerate
  3. Gain access
  4. Maintain access
  5. Report
74
Q

What does SOW stand for in penetration testing?

A

Scope of Work.

75
Q

What does ROE stand for in penetration testing documentation?

A

Rules of Engagement.

76
Q

What is a Rules of Engagement document?

A

A document detailing how the penetration test will be carried out, including data handling, test type, and notification processes.

77
Q

Compare:
Red team vs. Purple team in security operations

A

Red team: Focuses solely on offensive tactics (ethical hacking).

Purple team: Combines offensive and defensive roles, bridging red and blue teams.

78
Q

Black box vs. White box penetration testing

A

Black box: No prior knowledge of the network, simulating external attacks.

White box: Full knowledge of the network, enabling comprehensive testing.

79
Q

Define:
Penetration test (pen test)

A

A method using authorized hacking techniques to discover vulnerabilities in an organization’s security systems.

80
Q

Define:
Physical penetration testing

A

A test simulating real-world scenarios to evaluate physical security systems like access controls and surveillance.

81
Q

What does CI/CD mean in continuous penetration testing?

A

Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment.

82
Q

List:
The steps of a penetration test.

A
  1. Verify a threat exists.
  2. Bypass security controls.
  3. Actively test security controls.
  4. Exploit vulnerabilities.

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