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Psychology > Modules 6-11a - Conditioning, Memory, Emotions > Flashcards

Modules 6-11a - Conditioning, Memory, Emotions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a Split-brain? (involves corpus callosum)

A

Surgery - severs large band of axons that connects the right and left hemispheres, corpus callosum.

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2
Q

Purpose of the split-brain surgery

A

Reduce freq. and severity of seizures from epilepsy

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3
Q

Negative side effects of the split-brain surgery

A

Portions of brain can no longer communicate with each other. Results, left hand may put down a book that the reader is actually reading with interest

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4
Q

Define Hemispheric Specialization

A

Refers to the idea that the left and right brain have different functions

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5
Q

What happens in split-brain patients with contralateral processing?

A

Message from left field never reach the “language” portion of brain (cannot name the image).

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6
Q

Where does information from the left visual field go?

A

To the right occipital lobe

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7
Q

What is the left hemisphere dominant over?

A

Verbal processing

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8
Q

Right Hemisphere actions when split-brain occurs

A

Cannot share info with left. Can draw an image

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9
Q

Conscious Content meaning

A

Subjective experiences of internal and external world. Ex. Plans, dreams

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10
Q

Define passive attention

A

Bottom-up info from external environment require a response

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11
Q

Action of Active Attention

A

Searching for something specific. Goals and Top-down processing.

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12
Q

What is Stimulus Salience?

A

Refers to idea that some stimuli in the environment capture attention because of their physical properties

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13
Q

Define Attentional Capture

A

Having more knowledge in a certain area makes us allocate our attention to the more important features of the scene and ignore the less relevant info

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14
Q

Explain the Dichotic Listening Task

A

One stream of info is going to one ear, while a different message is played in the other ear. The participant is to attend to only one message.

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15
Q

Define Automaticity

A

fast, effortless processing of info without conscious thought. Ex. Typing on a keyboard without looking, walking down the street

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16
Q

What is inattentional blindness? (Hint: distracted)

A

tendency to miss changes to some kinds of info when your attention is engaged elsewhere.

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17
Q

Describe the Flicker Task (HINT: inattentional blindness)

A

Participants are shown two variations of the same picture, usually with one difference between the images. First image presented briefly followed by a white screen, then they are shown second version of image followed by another white screen.

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18
Q

Define intentional change detection

A

attention task that requires participant to actively search for a change made to the stimulus.

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19
Q

What is inhibition with information?

A

Process of actively reducing processing of some info while the brain attends to a specific task

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20
Q

What is a Subliminal Stimulus?

A

Sensory stimulus that is processed, but does not reach the threshold for conscious perception

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21
Q

Subliminal Process, what is it?

A

Info we don’t consciously detect.
Subvisual/Subaudible messages - messages presented too quickly for brain to perceive in conscious awareness.
Not salient enough to receive extra attention or processing

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22
Q

What happens to patients who suffer from damage to the right inferior parietal lobe of the cortex?

A

They experience unilateral neglect. Ex. Only apply makeup to half their face, only draw right side of an image

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23
Q

What is the main cause of ADHD and where is the location of the damage?

A

Genetics influence the disorder, and the damage is found in the prefrontal cortex.

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24
Q

What is Fatal Familial Insomnia?

A

Genetic disorder affecting thalamus (contains all info from bodies’ senses) causing people to die from lack of sleep.
Deaths usually occur 12-18 months after symptoms start

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25
Q

What do EEGs do?

A

Measure activity across the surface of the brain

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26
Q

Electrooculograms

A

Measures movements of the eyes as you sleep

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27
Q

Electromyograms

A

Measures tension in muscles of jaw

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28
Q

3 Main Features of Interest in stages of sleep (FAR)

A

Freq. of waves (HZ) - up + down cycles of wave/sec
Amp. - differ between stages of sleep
Regularity of wave - difference in pattern of activity. Consistency

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29
Q

What are two patterns that are observed when you are awake? (BA)

A

Beta Waves - Person is alert and active. waves on EEG when a person is alert and actively processing info. Freq. 13-30 Hz
Alpha Activity - awake but relaxed. 8-12 Hz. Alpha waves go into theta waves (falling asleep)

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30
Q

What does desynchrony in Beta Waves tell you?

A

Different neuronal circuits in the brain are actively processing info

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31
Q

What helps with the transition from Stage 1 into Stage 2? (SK)

A

Sleep Spindles - bursts of activity, 2-5x/min during Non-REM sleep. More spindles = higher IQ
K-Complexes - pattern of neural excitation followed by neural inhibition occurring during stage 2 sleep. Prepares the brain to enter delta wave activity

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32
Q

What is slow-wave sleep?

A

Sleep stages 3-4, delta waves (slow, regular, high amp. waves) (1.5-4 Hz)

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33
Q

What happens in REM stage of sleep?

A

Dreaming, EEG recordings become highly irregular

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34
Q

What is REM sleep antonia?

A

Becoming paralyzed during REM

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35
Q

Which two parts of the cortex receive the most amount of oxygenated blood?

A

Visual association cortex and prefrontal cortex (thought to be reason for hallucinations)

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36
Q

Do we spend more time in slow-wave sleep or REM?

A

REM sleep

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37
Q

What is a hypnogram and what is its purpose?

A

Shows how much time we spend in each stage of sleep throughout the night.

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38
Q

How many stages of sleep are there and what are their main components?

A

Stage 1 - Theta Activity
Stage 2 - Sleep spindles and K complexes
Stage 3 - Slow wave sleep
Stage 4 - REM Sleep

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39
Q

Stage 1 Sleep - Theta Activity

A

Alpha (8-12 Hz) to theta waves (5-8 Hz)
Light sleep
Causes body jerks when woken, may not even know you fell asleep

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40
Q

Stage 2 - Sleep Spindles and K-Complexes

A

Some theta activity
Bursts of activity 2-5x/min (sleep spindles)
Excitation followed by neural inhibition about once per min in preparation for deeper sleep (K-complexes)

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41
Q

Stage 3 -Slow-wave sleep

A

Occurs 15-20 min after stage 2
Transition to delta activity (slow (less than 4 Hz), regular, high-amp. waves)
One neural inhibition and period of excitation each wave
Will feel groggy if woken

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42
Q

Stage 4 - REM

A

Desynchronized theta waves appear - easier to wake up
Dreams, sleep paralysis
After completion with 1 cycle you go back to stage 1
More time is spent in REM than deep sleep as night progresses (4-5x/night)

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43
Q

Regions that have the highest activity during waking hours show what?

A

Reduction in metabolic activity and most delta activity during slow-wave sleep (suggesting this part of the brain is resting)

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44
Q

When the brain is deprived of REM for days at a time what happens?

A

The brain tries to enter into REM more quicky and spend more time there.

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45
Q

Who was among the first scientists to investigate dreaming?

A

Sigmund Freud

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46
Q

What did Sigmund Freud believe?

A

Unconscious processes are a great contributor to our behavior

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47
Q

What stage do nightmares usually occur in?

A

Stage 3 -Slow-Wave sleep (able to relay the dream usually)

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48
Q

What is the Active-synthesis Hypothesis?

A

hypothesis about dreaming that suggests that dreams do not serve a purpose, but rather are the consequence of other processes that occur during sleep.

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49
Q

What is the Evolutionary Hypothesis of Dreams?

A

suggests that dreams have biological significance

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50
Q

What is Predation?

A

example of an ancestral threat, which dreams may have evolved to help us model how to solve

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51
Q

Define Dyssomnias

A

Problems with quality of sleep

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52
Q

Define Parasomnias

A

Disturbances that occur during sleep

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53
Q

Conditioned insomnia

A

insomnia that occurs with cues that associated with falling asleep, like your bed, instead cause feelings of anxiety surrounding inability to fall asleep

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54
Q

Idiopathic Insomnia

A

child onset insomnia.

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55
Q

Hypersomnia (opp. of insomnia)

A

excessive need for sleep

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56
Q

What is sleep apnea? And how is it treated?

A

Patient stops breathing in the night.
Treatment: CPAP - pressurized air mask

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57
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Sudden and extreme need to sleep.
Can experience cataplexy - muscle weakness or paralysis during waking hours
Possible hallucinations (hypnagogic and hypnopompic)

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58
Q

Hypnagogic vs. Hypnopompic hallucinations

A

Vivid sensory, and occur before onset of sleep
VS
Occur right before waking

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59
Q

REM sleep behavior disorder

A

neurodegenerative disorder that results in inability of the brain to effectively paralyze the body during sleep (“sleepwalkers”)

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60
Q

Night terrors (not the same as nightmares)

A

Frantic, panicked screaming
Caused by disorder of Slow-wave sleep

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61
Q

What is Somnambulism?

A

people are not acting out a dream, but rather while deeply asleep they are able to conduct behaviors as if they were awake.
Occurs during SWS

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62
Q

What are Zeitgebers?

A

Cues from environment that set bio clocks

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63
Q

Circadian Rhythms

A

Tells body when to sleep and wake

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64
Q

Suprachiasmatic Nucleus (SCN)

A

structure in brain, next to optic chiasm, sets circadian clock for body

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65
Q

What happens in the SCN to set the circadian clock for the body?

A

sends signals to several regions of the brain, among them the pineal gland. In response to the light/dark cycle, the pineal gland secretes melatonin. Melatonin levels are highest right before bed and seem to signal to the brain that light is absent

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66
Q

Which of these is relevant to sleep deprivation: “springing forward” an hour, or “falling backward” an hour?

A

There is a noticeable increase in traffic accidents immediately following the spring shift.

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67
Q

What does alcohol do?

A

inhibits neurotransmitter glutamate - creates excitatory effects in the nervous system
Increases GABA and Dopamine

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68
Q

2 Treatments for anxiety, OCD, and epilepsy

A

Barbiturates - cause sedation and induce sleep
Benzodiapezine - fast-acting and highly addictive

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69
Q

What are 3 popular stimulants for the nervous system? (CNC)

A

Caffeine - inhibits neurotransmitter adenosine
Nicotine - release of acetylcholine in the brain - an excitatory neurotransmitter
Cocaine - binds to and deactivates the proteins that aid in the reuptake of dopamine, prolonging its effects

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70
Q

What is Synesthesia? (psychedelic experience)

A

Experience where sense seem to merge

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71
Q

Which hallucinogenic drug acts on seratonin levels in the thalamus?

A

LSD

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72
Q

What drug enhances colour perception, repeating patterns appear in visual field, and people often feel “out of body” - most common is Cannabis

A

Drug Mescaline

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73
Q

2 popular depressants (ABB)

A

Alcohol and Barbiturates/Benzodiazepine

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74
Q

4 popular stimulants (NACC)

A

Caffeine, Nicotine, Cocaine, Amphetamines

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75
Q

2 Hallucinogen (psychedelic) drugs

A

LSD, Cannabis

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76
Q

Define Social (vicarious) Learning

A

Learning something by watching others

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77
Q

Term for something you are born knowing how to do i.e. Babies crying when they are hungry

A

Innate Skills

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78
Q

What decade did Ivan Pavlov conduct the dog salivation experiment?

A

In the early 1900s

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79
Q

Define Pavlovian Conditioning

A

Seemingly insignificant event signals an important event.

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80
Q

What is the main role that a conditional stimulus plays?

A

Provides information about the presence or absence of an unconditional stimulus

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81
Q

What is a conditional response (or reflex)?

A

Learned response that occurs to the conditional stimulus in preparation for the US

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82
Q

Stimulus is anything in the environment we can (3):

A

Detect
Is measurable
Can evoke a response or behavior

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83
Q

Why can we start with an US with almost every behavior?

A

Biologically important EVENT requires no conditioning to affect our behavior

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84
Q

What is an UR (Innate Reflex)?

A

Biologically important RESPONSE occurs because of US

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85
Q

In Pavlov’s experiment what were the different factors? Name the CS, CR, US, UR

A

CS - Lab Coat (went from neutral to CS)
CR - dog salivation
US - Food
UR - dog salivation

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86
Q

What is a main purpose of Pavlovian Conditioning?

A

To change a neutral stimulus into something that elicits a response

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87
Q

When does the CR occur?

A

Occurs in preparation for and prior to the US

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88
Q

Define Excitatory Conditioning

A

CS indicates that a US will occur.

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89
Q

3 ways a CS is presented before the US (look at notes for examples)

A

Short-delayed - occurs within secs
Long-Delayed - been there for a while
Trace Conditioning - min. or hours after CS has stopped

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90
Q

What category of conditioning do Simultaneous and Backward Conditioning fall into?

A

Inhibitory Conditioning - CS indicates that no US will occur

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91
Q

Simultaneous conditioning

A

CS and US occur at the same time, overlapping completely

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92
Q

Backwards Conditioning

A

US occurs before CS

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93
Q

Garcia and Koelling (1996) and what did they study?

A

Flavour conditioning with rats (taste aversion)

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94
Q

Explain Pavlovian Extinction

A

CS is presented without a US, so the CS loses its ability to signal an event. Ex. Wearing the lab coat for 7 days without the food

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95
Q

Explain Spontaneous Recovery

A

After extinction the signal may randomly appear alone, and CR response may reappear. Ex. After the extinction example if for 7 days after the lab coat was not worn at all it would only take one instance of wearing it again for the dogs to start salivating again.

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96
Q

Attainment by an individual of new behavior, info, or skills

A

Acquisition

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97
Q

Two categories that US can be

A

Appetitive - something you like and will work for Ex. baked cookies
Aversive (also called noxious) - something you don’t like and will not work for Ex. Spoiled food

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98
Q

Effect in which an animal notices similarities between objects and responds to the objects as if they were the same. Ex. Fearing all spiders instead of just one type

A

Stimulus Generalization

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99
Q

Effect in which an animal notices differences between objects and responds to the objects as though they were different

A

Stimulus Discrimination

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100
Q

What is Higher-Order Conditioning

A

Conditioning procedure in which an already-conditioned signal is paired with a neutral stimulus or currently meaningless event.

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101
Q

John B. Watson’s Perspective

A

Environment is important to behaviorism. Psychology could be measured by constructs like behavior, without considering subconscious thoughts or feelings.

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102
Q

Who developed a therapeutic treatment for phobias called, “Systematic Desensitization”?

A

Joseph Wolpe (1958)

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103
Q

What is Operant Conditioning (instrumental)?

A

Consequences from behavior. Choosing how to react based on previous experiences as well

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104
Q

Who “paved” the way for the study of behaviorism? (Cat escaping the box with trial and error)

A

Thorndike

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105
Q

What is meant by the term “Instrumental”, when it comes to Operant conditioning?

A

Trying new response options that could effect the environment and/or your problem. Ex. Finding break box in dark house

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106
Q

What law did Thorndike develop?

A

The law of effect - how we learn about situations and behaviors leading to something we like

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107
Q

Satisfaction (stamping in)

A

Learning behaviors that lead to something we like; learn to repeat that behavior

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108
Q

Discomfort (stamping out)

A

not associating our behaviors with situations that lead to something we don’t like. Learn not to repeat them

How well did you know this?
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109
Q

Who found radical behaviorism - philosophy saying to treat thinking and feeling like any other behavior

A

B. F. Skinner

110
Q

What changes did B.F. Skinner make to Thorndike’s idea of Operant conditioning?

A

Changed “operant” to “instrumental”.
And included CONSEQUENCES as part of what we learn about behavior

111
Q

Anything in physical environment that we can detect and tells us something about what the consequences of our actions will be

A

Antecedents

112
Q

Stimuli that can increase or decrease the probability of future behavior

A

Consequences

113
Q

Differential VS Nondifferential Consequences

A

SPECIFIC consequence given for picking certain item
VS.
NO difference in consequence even though different actions or items are being used

114
Q

What is the “Dead Man Test”, and who created it?

A

A term used to help determine whether something is behavior or not: If a dead man can do it, it is not behavior. Ogden Lindsley created it.

115
Q

If-then rule, if you do this then this will happen is called what?

A

Contingency - occurs before a behavior

116
Q

What is it called when a consequence INCREASES the probability of that behavior occurring again?

A

Reinforcement

117
Q

Consequences DECREASE the probability of that behavior happening again term?

A

Punishment

118
Q

List the 4 Contingency procedures (look at examples and explanations from notes)

A

Positive Reinforcement
Positive Punishment
Negative Reinforcement
Negative Punishment

119
Q

What is main purpose of contingency and the 4 procedures?

A

To determine if the consequence will be produced or removed in the future

120
Q

Negative Reinforcement occurs in 2 forms, what are they?

A

Escape - responding in a way to stop something from happening. Ex. Turning off alarm clock to stop the sound
Avoidance - responding to prevent something you don’t want from happening. Ex. Umbrella for rain so we don’t get wet

121
Q

What operant process did Skinner believe had the greatest influence on behavior?

A

Positive Reinforcement

122
Q

Explain Operant Extinction

A

Behavior previously reinforced now produces no consequence and goes away; the response is not reinforced and decreases

123
Q

3 Behavioral Effects of Extinction

A

Extinction burst - temp. increase in responding
Emotional and Aggressive responding
Responding eventually stops

124
Q

What is Blindsight and how do these people who are affected by this walk around?

A

Legally blind.
Light can bounce off a stool and hit the retina of the eye so they can walk around it

125
Q

What hormone does the Pineal gland produce?

A

Melatonin - sleep-inducing

126
Q

What is Adenosine and what does it do?

A

When the body runs out of fuel this chemical inhibits neural activity and causes drowsiness

127
Q

Benefit of exposure to sunlight right in the morning

A

Decreases melatonin production

128
Q

Production of melatonin cannot be triggered in what individuals?

A

Blind individuals

129
Q

Two ways to ‘reset our clock’ if we have jet lag

A
  1. Exposure to light (decrease melatonin production)
  2. Take melatonin pill - helps us fall asleep to get back on schedule
130
Q

Does caffeine act as an agonist or antagonist to adenosine and why?

A

Antagonist - it blocks the adenosine receptors so that it cannot be produced. Stops the drowsiness

131
Q

Why do older people not sleep as much?

A

They no longer have the GH released from the pituitary gland

132
Q

What are the 4 types of learning?

A

Habituation
Classical Conditioning
Operant Conditioning
Observational Learning

133
Q

What happens in Habituation?

A

Respond less once stimulus is familiar. Not surprised by it anymore
Demonstrates memory
Ex. Can’t feel shoes on your feet

134
Q

In regards to Habituation, what happens as time goes on?

A

Partial recovery
THEN
Full recovery

135
Q

Are Pavlovian and Classical Conditioning the same?

A

Yes. They are an association between a neutral stimulus and a meaningful stimulus

136
Q

What is a taste aversion?

A

Getting sick from a certain type of food and from then on associating the food with that bad experience

137
Q

Define Compensatory Response (HINT: Drugs)

A

Taking away info that prepares for a drug like heroine. Your body knows you are going to take it because of a certain environment. But if you are in a different spot your heart rate may not up t compensate like it usually does (overdosing)

138
Q

Difference between Classical and Operant Conditioning

A

Classical - forms association between 2 stimuli
Operant - forms association between a behavior and consequence

139
Q

Primary VS Secondary Reinforcers

A

Primary - unlearned, rooted in biology
Secondary - learned through association with a primary reinforcer

140
Q

What are the 4 types of intermittent reinforcement? (FVFV)

A

Fixed Ratio (FR)
Variable Ratio (VR)
Fixed Interval (FI)
Variable Interval (VI)

141
Q

Fixed Ratio VS Fixed Interval

A

Reinforces after given number of correct responses Ex. Free coffee after buying 9
VS
Reinforces for first correct response after set time period Ex. Mail arrives at a certain time everyday

142
Q

Variable Ratio VS. Variable Interval

A

Reinforces after an unpredictable number of correct responses Ex. Win at a slot machine
VS
Reinforces for first correct response after an unpredictable time period Ex. Updates on the news

143
Q

What is Intermittent (partial) reinforcement?

A

Reinforced sometimes when behavior occurs

144
Q

Which reinforcement schedule would work best for acquisition?

A

Continuous - in learning the skill they can associate a behavior with a response

145
Q

Describe Humphrey’s paradox

A

Another name for the partial reinforcement effect, or the seemingly paradoxical finding that a response that is only intermittently reinforced is more resistant to extinction than a response that is reinforced every time it occurs.

146
Q

Describe latent learning

A

Not being consciously aware that you are or are learning a skill, or gaining new information just by observing. Ex. Child watching parents drive a car, they are then able to determine maybe where the pedals are located

147
Q

What is the best reference image to compare your mind to?

A

The mind is like a computer.
Encoding (typing)
Storage (save)
Retrieval (search and open)

148
Q

What was the early version of the Modal Model of the Mind?

A

Sensory input -> Sensory Stores -> STM -> LTM

149
Q

Who developed the early Modal Model of the Mind theory?

A

Atkinson and Shiffron 1968

150
Q

In the early model of the mind where was the input said to be analyzed?

A

Analyzed at the STM. Also, that is where rehearsal, coding, and retrieval were said to be found

151
Q

Problems with A&S Multi-Store Model

A

Probability of memories going into LTM increases with the time it is held in STM.
NOT TRUE
Memories held in STM don’t always end up in LTM

152
Q

What two people modified the Memory model?

A

Baddeley and Hitch (1974)

153
Q

What did the modification of the memory model consist of?

A

STM was seen as WM because it does more than just hold the material, it works on it

154
Q

What is the Updated Modal Memory Model?

A

Sensory input -> Sensory memory - > WM (maintenance rehearsal) -> Encoding from WM leads to LTM
GOES BACK TO WM WHEN INITIATING RETRIEVAL

155
Q

What is Iconic Memory and who created the idea?

A

Sperling (1960)
Relation to visual sensory input, like memorizing letters. First ones are easiest to remember usually

156
Q

LTM - Declarative (explicit)

A

Facts, Events

157
Q

LTM - Non-declarative

A

Skills and habits, Priming, Classical Conditioning

158
Q

What did Baddeley add, in the year 2000, to the WM

A

Episodic Buffer - Linking info across domains to integrate sensory info in chronological order. Ex. Memory of movie scene or story

159
Q

What is a phonological loop?

A

Repeating info over and over in your head to keep it in your mind

160
Q

What is meant by “parallel processing of different modes”?

A

Processing in different ways with different senses at the same time

161
Q

How many phonological items can be held in the mind and for how long in the WM without rehearsal?

A

7-9 items (George Miller 1956), for 15-30 sec

162
Q

What is a visuo-spatial sketchpad?

A

A map in your mind, or images

163
Q

You can do two things at once as long as they don’t use the same component of what?

A

WM

164
Q

4 Main organization tactics for memory

A

Mnemonics (compass example), Visualization, Chunking, Hierarchies (breaking down a list)

165
Q

Depth of Processing list from shallow to deep

A

Orthographic (memorizing definitions), Phonetic (rhyme relationships), Semantic (meaning relationships)

166
Q

What is the search metaphor and who created that idea?

A

It describes processes involved in memory using terms and phrases that relate them to looking around in physical or virtual space. Ex. Mental purse(Roediger 1980)

167
Q

Instead of the search metaphor what is a better metaphor for memory and why?

A

Reconstruction (Neisser 1967) - specifically search for info to create a useful response given the situation at hand and what you’ve stored

168
Q

What does encoding problem and storage problem refer to?

A

Problem the brain must solve to transform an experience into memory and maintain the info over time (physical representation)

169
Q

How long will sensory memory hold onto information?

A

Long enough for us to stitch one moment of our experience to the next.

170
Q

Iconic memory VS Echoic memory

A

Fleeting afterimages VS lingering neuronal activity called an echo

171
Q

Other names for Immediate memory

A

STM OR WM

172
Q

Immediate memory and the three main properties

A

Representation, duration, and capacity

173
Q

Baddeley and Hitch (1974) proposed the mechanism called the central executive, what is it?

A

Within WM, it’s job is to direct flow of info to and from phonological loop and visuospatial sketchpad, but also to and from long-term memory

174
Q

What are semantic memories?

A

Contents relate to specific facts and pieces of meaningful info not based on personal experience

175
Q

Deep VS Shallow Processing

A

Encoding new info through meaningful connections to existing knowledge
VS
Encoding info based only on its surface characteristics

176
Q

4 Types of Elaboration

A

Imagery
Organization- organize things into groups or lists
Distinctiveness - very precise encoding
Self-Reference - relating info to yourself

177
Q

Massed Practice and Spacing Effect both relate to what?

A

Studying - cramming vs studying over time

178
Q

Adaptive memory (Nairne and Pandeirada 2008)

A

Investigates how the brain is designed to learn and remember given evolutionary considerations

179
Q

Were inanimate or animate objects easier to remember for humans?

A

Animate - more salient. Brains have evolved to pay attention to it

180
Q

Free recall VS Cued recall

A

Remembering previously learned info without any other context to aid in remembering
VS
Remembering previously learned info with aid of clue to provide context

181
Q

What is the encoding specificity principle? (Tulving and Thompson 1973

A

Idea that retrieval cues are only useful as long as they match the original context of how-to-be-remembered info was originally learned

182
Q

Transfer Appropriate Processing (Lockhart 2002)

A

Observation that engaging in similar processes at both encoding and retrieval tends to enhance recall on final test

183
Q

Explicit VS Implicit Memory

A

Remembering occurring consciously - trying to recall info
VS
Remembering that occurs without conscious realization

184
Q

Who created the errors of omission and commission?

A

Daniel Schacter (2002)

185
Q

Errors of Omission VS Commission

A

Memory errors where info cannot be brought to mind
VS
Memory errors where wrong or unwanted info is brought to mind

186
Q

Name the three errors of omission

A

Transience, absent-mindedness, and blocking

187
Q

What is Transience?

A

We may be unable to retrieve info - forgotten due to interference of info being processed currently

188
Q

Retroactive interference VS Proactive interference

A

Inability to retrieve older info due to influence of newer, similar info
VS
Inability to retrieve new info due to older, similar info

189
Q

Absent-mindedness

A

Description of how memories sometimes are simply unavailable because of a failure to encode them

190
Q

Blocking

A

In some cases, not enough distinctive cues are available to help us recover a specific memory

191
Q

4 Errors or Commission

A

Misattribution - incorrectly recall the source of info (deja vu)
Suggestibility - requires info that is misremembered to have been suggested by an outside source
Bias -
Persistence -

192
Q

Misinformation Effect

A

misleading info alters subsequent memory, typically an eyewitness account

193
Q

Schema (part of sin of Bias)

A

Highly organized Knowledge structure that contains many pieces of specific info. May lead to over-generalization

194
Q

Persistence

A

Description of how memories are sometimes retrieved when they are not wanted

195
Q

What is Hyperthymesia?

A

Medical condition leading to near perfect autobiographical recall

196
Q

Retrograde VS Anterograde Amnesia

A

Loss of memories prior to specific trauma event (maybe a blow to the head)
VS
Inability to encode new info into LTM (can’t form new memories)

197
Q

Why did Henry Molaison have his hippocampus removed?

A

To stop his severe epileptic seizures. Had both types of amnesia

198
Q

Data regarding H. M. provided evidence for the distinction between:

A

Immediate and LTM (could rehearse info with IM but couldn’t form LTM)
&
Procedural and Semantic memory (performed tasks with procedural mem. but couldn’t learn new facts with semantic mem.

199
Q

What one-word response is NOT responsible for the sin of transience?

A

Decay - because time is not responsible for memory decay its the info that occurs in the time that elapses is

200
Q

What is Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Alcoholism can trigger this syndrome which can result in anterograde amnesia

201
Q

Slow emotional route (‘high road’) process order in the body

A

Sensory organ -> thalamus - > cortex-> amygdala

202
Q

Fast emotional route (‘low road’) process order in the body

A

Sensory organ -> thalamus -> amygdala

203
Q

Which emotions (basic or complex) are more likely to take the ‘low road’ and why?

A

Basic emotions (fear, likes) are more likely because they do not require cognitive appraisals of the situation like complex ones do

204
Q

Mood vs. Emotion

A

Long-lasting, less-intense states, not affected by specific object or event.
VS
Short-lived feelings we have towards a specific object or situational event (elicited by rewards and punishers)

205
Q

What is the role of antecedent stimuli?

A

signals whether you’ll get a reinforcer or a punisher for responding

206
Q

4 things that emotions generally have temporary changes in:

A

Hormones or physiology
Behavior, including thinking or feeling
Facial expression
Sense perception

207
Q

Why is it best that each emotion is a different adaptation?

A

Serves a different evolutionary purpose

208
Q

What are the three principles of emotion?

A

Serviceable habits
Antithesis
Direct action

209
Q

What is the first principle of serviceable habits emphasizing?

A

The way emotions are expressed serves a purpose in non-human animals but not people.

210
Q

Explain the second principle of antithesis

A

Opposite emotions have opposite bodily expressions.

211
Q

Explain the third principle of direct action of the excited nervous system on the body

A

Emotions result in perceivable changes in the nervous system.

212
Q

What is the basic emotion theory?

A

Distinct emotions and their associated cognitive, physiological, and motor responses unfold over time in a very predictable pattern without attention or intention.

213
Q

Explain the James-Lange theory of emotions

A

People perceive a stimulus, express the emotion the stimulus evokes, and then identify their emotion.

214
Q

Why do we understand that we’re experiencing different emotions?

A

Because of their associated physiological effects.

215
Q

Describe the Cannon-Bard thalamic theory of emotions

A

People perceive a stimulus and then simultaneously express the emotion and identify their emotion.

216
Q

Name the three observations of evidence for the importance of the thalamus in governing emotions

A

a) rage is evoked by surgically removing the cerebrum in front of the thalamus but disappears when the thalamus is removed.
b) tumors on different sides of the thalamus produce different emotions
c)anesthesia or impairment produces unregulated crying or laughing

217
Q

Difference between the James-Lange and Cannon-Bard theories of emotion

A

Events surrounding the expression of emotion occur sequentially within the James-Lange theory but simultaneously and with the help of the thalamus for Cannon-Bard

218
Q

Paul Ekman and the 4 universal emotions

A

2016 - happy, anxious, surprise, disgust

219
Q

Describe the term action unit

A

Each emotion has a facial expression that we can detect involving movement of the eyebrows, nose, mouth, cheeks, and eyes

220
Q

What is emotional contagion?

A

When one person observes and then experiences the same emotion as another person

221
Q

Conditioned Emotional Response Procedure

A

The process of linking an emotional response, through classical conditioning, to a neutral stimulus

222
Q

Activity in the amygdala and the prefrontal cortex accompany the emotional response to what?

A

Stress

223
Q

How do animals usually respond to stress?

A

By emitting distress vocalizations

224
Q

What are frustrative events and who recognized it?

A

Situations in which rewards are not as quickly available as they once were or are omitted entirely, thereby leading to frustration. Abram Amsel (1992)

225
Q

Pavlovian Conditioning helps prepare us for what two needs?

A

Fornication and Eating in the presence of specific eliciting stimuli

226
Q

Orsosensory stimuli

A

Flavour and texture sensations in the mouth

227
Q

How long does it take for you to digest food after you taste it?

A

4-6 HOURS

228
Q

According to Al-Shawaf (2016), what does hunger do to people?

A

Regulates their systems and makes them turn away from engaging in any other activity or prior engagements

229
Q

Occasion Setters

A

An internal or external stimulus that signals the relationship between a response and an outcome -an event telling the organism that something is about to occur

230
Q

Interoceptive Stimuli

A

A type of stimuli that come from within our bodies to indicate a change from one state to another. We experience a private sensation that others cannot see, feel, touch, etc. and respond to it.

231
Q

Stimulus Substitution

A

Type of conditioning in which an animal responds to the conditional stimulus as if it were interchangeable with the unconditional stimulus

232
Q

Energy budget

A

An animal needs to consume a specific amount of calories in a day to survive

233
Q

Exteroceptive Stimuli

A

Type of stimuli that come from outside our bodies to indicate a change from one state to another. We perceive a stimulus that others can also see, hear, feel, touch, etc

234
Q

Signal Substitution

A

Conditioning in which an animal responds to an artificial conditional stimulus as if it were interchangeable with an unconditional stimulus

235
Q

What does signal substitutions usually have to have in order to evoke a response?

A

Supernormal Stimuli

236
Q

Supernormal Stimuli

A

Any stimulus that elicits a response more strongly than the stimulus for which it evolved

237
Q

Why do we salivate before we start eating?

A

It helps with digestion - dilutes acids. Usually obese people salivate more than healthy weight people

238
Q

Belongingness

A

Type of learning in which some cues are easier to condition to specific signals than others for enhanced survival. The cue, behavior, and consequence “belong” together.

239
Q

What attribute did women and men think that they wanted in long-term partners and what trait did they most consistently choose in long-term partners?

A

Faithfulness; sense of humor

240
Q

What type of men do women usually prefer when they are ovulating?

A

Masculine and aggressive men

241
Q

Hermaphrodites

A

Animal that can either be male (with sperm), or female (with eggs), in a sexual encounter

242
Q

Gender Ratio Hypothesis

A

Describes how the animals decide whether to contribute sperm and when to receive it.
More advantageous to fulfill the female role for first part of reproductive period

243
Q

Pheromones

A

type of chemical signal to indicate the reproductive status of a potential partner

244
Q

Which species can use pheromones to recognize a potential mate and to facilitate attraction?

A

Male rats

245
Q

Coolidge Effect

A

An animal has multiple mate-pairings with the same partner, loses interest in that partner, and experiences renewed sexual interest in a new partner

246
Q

Rivalry Sensitivity Hypothesis

A

Women focus on rivals in their partner’s immediate vicinity while men focus on their partner if a rival in nearby

247
Q

Drive-Reduction Theory

A

Need is determined by a combination of learning and a person’s physiology, and need intensity will be reflected in the intensity of responding

248
Q

What is the pop-out phenomenon, in regards to salience?

A

An image or object that stands out more than the rest of the picture

249
Q

What is the purpose of a dichotic listening task?

A

To determine how much unattended information is being processed

250
Q

What structures in the brain does the circadian rhythm (internal clock) influence?

A

The SCN (suprachiasmatic nucleus) sends signals to several regions of the brain, among them the pineal gland. In response to the light/dark cycle, the pineal gland secretes melatonin. Melatonin levels are highest right before bed and seem to signal to the brain that light is absent.

251
Q

Inactivity theory of Sleep

A

based on the concept of evolutionary pressure where creatures inactive at night were less likely to die from the predation of injury in the dark, thus creating an evolutionary and reproductive benefit to being inactive at night

252
Q

Energy Conservation theory of sleep

A

reduce a person’s energy demand during part of the day and night when it is least efficient to hunt for food

253
Q

Restorative Theory

A

sleep allows for the body to repair and replete cellular components necessary for biological functions that become depleted throughout an awake day

254
Q

Brain Plasticity Theory of sleep

A

ability of the nervous system to change its activity in response to intrinsic or extrinsic stimuli by reorganizing its structure, functions, or connections.

255
Q

Dishabituation

A

when attention is redirected to the stimulus after there has been a change in the nature of the stimulus

256
Q

Second-order Conditioning

A

phenomenon whereby a conditioned stimulus (CS) acquires the ability to elicit a conditioned response (CR) without ever being directly paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US

257
Q

Classical Conditioning and aiding in substance abuse

A

Familiar cues associated with the drug

258
Q

What is shaping and when is it necessary?

A

involves selecting and reinforcing more complex responses that look like the response you want while extinguishing simpler forms of the target response.
Necessary when prior forms of action to get to a certain target weren’t working

259
Q

Primary vs Secondary Reinforcer

A

primary reinforcer is biological stimulus causing involuntary reflex while secondary reinforcer is conditioned stimulus causing learned behavior

260
Q

What factors increase the chance observational learning will occur? Who came up with this idea?

A

Reward makes the action more desirable
Bandura (1965)

261
Q

How systematic desensitization involves classical conditioning?

A

Systematic desensitization is a type of exposure therapy based on the principle of classical conditioning. It was developed by Wolpe during the 1950s. This therapy aims to remove the fear response of a phobia, and substitute a relaxation response to the conditional stimulus gradually using counter-conditioning.

262
Q

What is the stroop effect and how does it demonstrate that memory can be automatic?

A

Colours and words. List had colours matching the words and a list had colours not matching the words. Seeing what you read first

263
Q

Clive Wearing’s case and what we learned about memory

A

Retrograde and anterograde amnesia - could only remember 30 sec
He contracted herpes simplex encephalitis, a disease that caused swelling of brain tissue resulting in damage to his hippocampus.
It taught us hippocampal dependent formation of long term memory

264
Q

What is flashbulb memory?

A

Vivid, long-lasting memories for events that are both surprising and particularly significant. Ex. Assassination of the President displayed on the news

265
Q

How do moods affect memory?

A

You remember happy events when you are happy and the same goes for sad mood.

266
Q

Overcoming TOT state

A

Don’t dwell on it. Stress less. Clench fist

267
Q

Two-Factor Theory of Emotion

A

Schachter and Singer’s (1962) Two-Factor Theory of Emotion suggests that physiological arousal determines the strength of the emotion, while cognitive appraisal identifies the emotion label. So, in this theory, the “two-factor” represents physiological change and cognitive appraisal change

268
Q

Does emotion and cognition interact?

A

Strong emotions affect the way our mental state can be. And it affects behavior

269
Q

What role does the amygdala play in emotion?

A

The amygdala is responsible for the perception of emotions such as anger, fear, and sadness, as well as the controlling of aggression. The amygdala helps to store memories of events and emotions so that an individual may be able to recognize similar events in the future

270
Q

Different schedules of reinforcement, and who created them?

A

Continuous - responses reinforced every time they occur
Intermittent responses reinforced occasionally
Extinction - response no longer reinforced - decreasing probability of the behavior
Jenkins (1962)

Psychology (4 decks)

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