Module III: Ethical and Professional Issues in Addiction Counseling

Question 1

True or false: Asynchronous communication is communication where there is no lapse between the time the sender communicates something and the receiver gets the message.

Answer 1

False.

Asynchronous communication is communication that, once sent, can be responded to later.

Synchronous communication is communication where there is no lapse between the time the sender communicates something and the receiver gets the message.

Question 2

__________ refers to the consistency of an instrument measuring what it is intended to measure.

A. Usability

B. Validity

C. Content Validity

D. Reliability

Answer 2

D. Reliability

Question 3

Humanistic ethics emphasizes ________ as the basis for ethical decisions.

A. Culture

B. Free will

C. Ethnicity

D. Human needs

Answer 3

D. Human needs

Question 4

Supporting a clients’ independence, freedom, and self-determination is:

A. Beneficence

B. Code of Ethics

C. Autonomy

D. Engagement

Answer 4

C. Autonomy

Question 5

True or false: Beneficence is the desire for all people to find purpose in life.

Answer 5

False.

Beneficence is the obligation to do good.

Question 6

True or false: Malpractice is utilizing a specific behavioral theory with a client, when a different one would have been more effective.

Answer 6

False. Malpractice is professional wrongdoing that results in injury or damage.

Question 7

Necessary components of an ethical multicultural practice include:

A. A willingness to integrate culturally-appropriate and evidence-based individual and systemic interventions that assist the diverse clientele

B. A willingness to learn and be aware of the cultural values, biases, and assumptions of the diverse group of clients with whom he or she works

C. An awareness of the provider’s personally-held cultural values, biases, and assumptions.

D. All of the above

Answer 7

D. All of the above

Question 8

Implementing the values of the dominant social system as the basis for ethical decisions is:

A. Competence

B. Clinical Pragmatism

C. Ethical Relativism

D. Humanistic Ethics

Answer 8

B. Clinical Pragmatism

Question 9

True or false: Providers have an obligation to “do no harm”.

Answer 9

True

Question 10

True or false: Being educated, trained, and prepared to provide the addiction-related services is called ethical absolutism.

Answer 10

False.

It’s called competence.

Question 11

Persistent, verbal, behavioral, and environmental assaults, insults, and invalidations that are demeaning, subtle, and are difficult to identify.

A. Microaggressions

B. Racism

C. Sexism

D. Maleficence

Answer 11

A. Microaggressions

Question 12

An instrument is the generic term that researchers use for a measurable device (test, survey, questionnaire, etc). Which below describes things to evaluate for an instrument?

A. Usability

B. Content validity

C. Reliability

D. All of the above

Answer 12

D. All of the above

Question 13

Cultural racism is:

A. The belief that all cultures are equal

B. The belief that one group’s history, way of life, religion, values, and traditions are superior to others.

C. The belief that most group’s history, way of life, religion, values, and traditions are superior to a specific culture.

D. All of the above

Answer 13

B. The belief that one group’s history, way of life, religion, values, and traditions are superior to others.

Question 14

__________ refers to the ease with which an instrument can be administered and interpreted.

A. Usability

B. Validity

C. Content Validity

D. Reliability

Answer 14

A. Usability

Question 15

True or false: Scope of practice defines the services that a provider is deemed competent to perform - based on education, training, skills development, and supervised experience.

Answer 15

True

Question 16

Ethical relativism is a viewpoint of ethics where ethical decisions are based on:

A. The context or consequences

B. The dominant culture of the agency

C. Fixed moral principles that exist regardless of whether one believes in them

D. The desire to do good

Answer 16

A. The context or consequences

Question 17

True or false: The duty to report is a legal and ethical obligation a Provider has to report cases of abuse, neglect, and exploitation.

Answer 17

True

Question 18

__________ refers to the extent to which an instrument under consideration measures what it is supposed to measure and performs as it is designed to perform.

A. Usability

B. Validity

C. Content Validity

D. Reliability

Answer 18

B. Validity

Question 19

True or false: Virtue ethics answer the question, “Who am I?”

Answer 19

False.

Virtue ethics answer the question, “Who should I be?”

Question 20

____________ of the supervisor has to do with the supervisor’s actions, and might include dereliction or supervisory responsibilities, such as “not making a reasonable effort to supervise.”

A. Vicarious liability

B. Indirect liability

C. Direct liability

D. Responsive liability

Answer 20

C. Direct liability

Question 21

True or false: Privileged communication is a law that required Providers to hold in confidence anything clients tell them, when when ordered to by a court.

Answer 21

True

Question 22

A legal and ethical obligation a Provider has to warn another individual of impending danger.

A. Duty to warn

B. Duty to report

C. Duty to inform

D. Duty to alert

Answer 22

A. Duty to warn

Question 23

A type of principle and virtue ethics where the provider is acting in compliance with minimal standards.

A. Aspirational ethics

B. Principle ethics

C. Values ethics

D. Mandatory ethics

Answer 23

D. Mandatory ethics

Question 24

__________ refers to the appropriateness of the content of the instrument.

A. Usability

B. Validity

C. Content Validity

D. Reliability

Answer 24

C. Content validity

Question 25

A program that is designed to help employees manage substance use and emotional disturbances without losing their job.

A. Peer support program

B. Employee support program

C. Employee assistance program

D. Employee engagement program

Answer 25

C. Employee assistance program

Question 26

True or false: NAADAC’s nine principles of ethics are: The counseling relationship; confidentiality and privileged communication; professional responsibilities and workplace standards; working in a culturally-diverse world; assessment, evaluation, and interpretation; e-therapy, e-supervision and social media; supervision and consultation; resolving ethical concerns; and publication and communications.

Answer 26

True

Question 27

____________ is when a supervisor can be held liable for damages incurred as a result of negligence in the supervision process, including providing inappropriate advice to the supervisee about a client, failing to listen carefully to the supervisee’s comments and concerns about a client, and assigning clinical tasks to inadequately-trained counselors.

A. Vicarious liability

B. Indirect liability

C. Direct liability

D. Responsive liability

Answer 27

A. Vicarious liability

Question 28

_________ is a collaborative problem-solving process where the clinician engages a subject-matter expert for the purposes of advancing appropriate, ethical and legal care to a specific client.

A. Clinical supervision

B. Peer feedback

C. Administrative supervision

D. Consultation

Answer 28

D. Consultation

Question 29

True or false: Ethical absolutism is a viewpoint where ethical decisions are based on the context or consequences

Answer 29

False.

Ethical absolutism is the viewpoint of ethics where ethical decisions are based on fixed moral rules that exist regardless of whether one believes in them.

Ethical relativism is a viewpoint where ethical decisions are based on the context or consequences

Question 30

True or false: Religious ethics is using religious believes, such as the belief in divine love or the will of God, as the basis of ethical decisions.

Answer 30

True

Question 31

True or false: No one method for developing a Code of Ethics or making an ethical decision is better than another; each method is valid and unique.

Answer 31

True

Question 32

_________ ethics is acknowledging the uniqueness of a situation and the need to apply ethical principles accordingly.

A. Oppositional

B. Conditional

C. Experimental

D. Situational

Answer 32

D. Situational

Question 33

A _________ is a legal document which invokes the power of the court to force someone to testify in court or to give certain documents to the court.

A. Will

B. Subpoena

C. Summons

Answer 33

B. Subpoena

Question 34

The process of ethical decision-making involved three key attributes:

A. Consistency, Competency, and Review

B. Consciousness, Compassion, and Reliability

C. Commitment, Competency, and Consciousness

D. Reliability, Review, Consciousness

Answer 34

C. Commitment, Competency, and Consciousness

Question 35

While in your office, a client learns of the passing of a family member and starts crying hysterically before leaving the office. Without an ROI, what actions can be taken?

A. Call a family member to check on them.

B. Call the police to do a welfare check.

C. Call the client’s psychiatrist to try and get them in to be seen.

D. None of the above.

Answer 35

D. None of the above.

Question 36

True or false: Synchronous communication is communication where there is no lapse between the time the sender communicates something and the receiver gets the message.

Answer 36

True

Question 37

There are 12 rules of what NOT to do when a provider hears from a compaint/grievance/malpractice/ethics board. This includes all listed EXCEPT:

A. Do NOT respond to a letter or notification without consulting with an attorney.

B. Do NOT meet with the board of investigators with your legal representation present.

C. Do NOT ignore a board investigation.

D. Do NOT assume that lack of harm to client will end the board inquiry.

Answer 37

B. Do NOT meet with the board of investigators with your legal representation.

You should always have your legal representation present when meeting with the board of investigators.

Question 38

A Peer Recovery Support Specialist (PRSS) should be able to demonstrate the following core competencies EXCEPT:

A. Effective interpersonal skills

B. Ethical and confidential practice

C. Trauma-informed practice

D. Ability to sponsor a client in AA or NA

Answer 38

D. Ability to sponsor a client in AA or NA

Question 39

True or false: Informed consent is the process of explaining how sessions will be billed before providing services to a client.

Answer 39

False.

Informed consent is the process of disclosing the nature of treatment and recovery support services, so the client can make a voluntary and informed decision as to whether he or she would like to participate in this professional relationship.

Question 40

According to 42 CFR Part 2, there are four reasons disclosures of client information might occur without client consent. These include all EXCEPT:

A. For audit and evaluation activities

B. For medical emergencies

C. To consult with other agencies about ethical issues

D. For research activities

Answer 40

C. To consult with other agencies about ethical issues.

Question 41

True or false: 42 CFR Part 2 pertains to the confidentiality of all medical treatment providers’ patient’s records and is applicable to all Providers working in federally-funded or federally-assisted programs.

Answer 41

False.

42 CFR Part 2 pertains to the confidentiality of SUD treatment patient’s records and is applicable to all Providers working in federally-funded or federally-assisted programs.

Question 42

Examples of times where providers are ethically obligated to disclose information without formal written consent include all EXCEPT:

A. When a client files an ethical complaint/grievance against a Provider, the client forfeits his or her right to confidentiality, so the Provider can defend themselves sufficiency in the matter.

B. When personal information about a client needs to be released in connection to a crime that occurred on the premises of the treatment agency/office or against a staff member.

C. When the Provider consults with a physician or seek assistance for clients for chronic but not life threatening health issues.

D. In the event of suspected child or elder abuse and/or neglect.

Answer 42

C. When the Provider consults with a physician or seek assistance for clients for chronic but not life threatening health issues.

In this instance, a provider is ethically obligated to release information without formal written consent when they consult with a physician or seek assistance for clients during a boni fide medical emergency - the client being incapacitated to the point that he or she cannot volunteer the information or give consent - then they may only disclose personal information necessary for identification.

Question 43

When a client is experiencing suicidal or self-harm thoughts, appropriate questions to ask include:

A. Do you have a plan?

B. Do you have the means to carry out the plan?

C. What are the details of the plan?

D. A, B, and C.

E. You should not directly ask about suicidality/self-harm thoughts, it can increase these thoughts in clients.

Answer 43

D. A, B, and C

Question 44

Discrimination is also known as:

A. Bias

B. Intolerance

C. Inequity

D. All of the above

Answer 44

D. All of the above

Question 45

True or false: In order for a client to engage in a research study, the provider need only to have a verbal conversation with the client and obtain verbal permission from the client.

Answer 45

False.

The client must also sign a written research participation consent form that outlines the following:
- The reason the subject has been selected
- Who is responsible for the research
- The specific amount of time and effort involved in participation
- A general outline of the kinds of information to be collected
- A statement about the risks and benefits of participation
- Any incentives offered to subjects for participation
- The right of subjects to withdraw from the study at any time
- To whom complaints should be made about the misconduct of research
- The consequences, if any, for refusing to participate in the study

Question 46

True or false: Core competencies specifically define a professional member’s strengths and capabilities, based on standards of practice within the profession.

Answer 46

False.

Core competencies BROADLY define a professional member’s strengths and capabilities, based on standards of practice within the profession.

Question 47

In order for a multidisciplinary care team to have value competence, providers should have all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Place the needs of the team above the needs and interests of the client.

B. Engage with clients in a manner that is culturally sensitive.

C. Act responsibly with team members and clients.

D. Maintain competences in one’s own profession and appropriate scope of practice.

Answer 47

A. Place the needs of the team above the needs and interests of the client.

The team needs to place the needs and interests of the client at the center of team-based care.

Question 48

Which is NOT an example of a duel relationship:

A. The counselor and client being cousins

B. The counselor and client seeing each other at an AA meeting

C. The counselor and client starting a small business together.

D. The counselor and client attending the same church and starting a small group together

Answer 48

B. The counselor and client seeing each other at an AA meeting

Question 49

True or false: Counselors and clients are equal in the relationship.

Answer 49

False.

No matter how well counselors respect the autonomy of clients, there is an element of dependence in the relationship.

Question 50

True or false: A handshake in greeting is generally considered appropriate touch between a counselor and client.

Answer 50

True.