Module 9 - Maternal Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Obstetric Haemorrhage accounts for what percentage of maternal deaths?

A

10%

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2
Q

What are the levels for anaemia in pregnancy in the 1st trimester, 2nd trimester and post-partum?

A

The BCSH define anaemia in pregnancy as:
First trimester haemoglobin (Hb) < 110 g/l
Second/third trimester Hb < 105 g/l
Postpartum Hb < 100 g/l

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3
Q

How do you screen for anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Booking and at 28 weeks (group and screen also performed)
In multiple pregnancies additional FBC at 20-24 weeks

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4
Q

How do you screen for anaemia in multiple pregnancy?

A

Booking and at 28 weeks (group and screen also performed)
In multiple pregnancies additional FBC at 20-24 weeks

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5
Q

How long should you keep CTG traces for?

A

CTG traces should be kept for 25 years in uncomplicated delivery or indefinitely if there are concerns about future developmental delay

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6
Q

What is the live birth rate in women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) without taking medication?

A

10%

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7
Q

In women with antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) taking medication the combined use of aspirin and heparin reduces miscarriage rate by how much?

A

The combination of aspirin and heparin treatment reduces miscarriage rate by 54%

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8
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in women aged 30-34?

A

15%

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9
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in women aged 35-39?

A

25%

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10
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in women aged 40-44?

A

51%

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11
Q

What is the risk of miscarriage in women aged 45 and above?

A

93%

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12
Q

What is the treatment for APS causing recurrent miscarriage?

A

Pregnant women with antiphospholipid syndrome should be considered for treatment with low-dose aspirin plus heparin to prevent further miscarriage

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13
Q

What is the most important treatable cause of recurrent miscarriage?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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14
Q

How is APS diagnosed?

A

It is diagnosed by two positive tests (taken at least 12 weeks apart) for Lupus anticoagulant, anti-cardiolipin antibodies and anti B2 Glycoprotein I antibodies

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15
Q

What is the management of a single second trimester miscarriage?

A

1) Screen for inherited thrombophilias including factor V Leiden, factor II (prothrombin) gene mutation and protein S deficiency
2) Antiphospholipid antibodies
3) Pelvic ultrasound

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16
Q

What percentage of women are affected by recurrent miscarriage?

A

2%

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17
Q

What percentage of women with recurrent miscarriage have antiphospholipid antibodies?

A

15%

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18
Q

What are the antibodies tested for antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

1) Anticardiolipin
2) Anti-Beta-2 glycoprotein I (2GPI)
3) Lupus anticoagulant

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19
Q

What is the management of women with recurrent 1st trimester miscarriage?

A

1) Antiphospholipid antibody screen
2) Karyotype on products of conception
3) Pelvic ultrasound to exclude uterine abnormality

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20
Q

What is the risk of further miscarriage after three consecutive miscarriages?

A

40%

Risk of subsequent miscarriage increases after each miscarriage and reaches 40% after 3 consecutive pregnancy losses.

Note maternal age is another independent risk factor with worsening prognosis with advancing maternal age

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21
Q

Does having epilepsy make your pregnancy high risk?

A

Women with a history of epilepsy who are not considered to have a high risk of unprovoked seizures can be managed as low-risk women in pregnancy

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22
Q

What are the long-term neurodevelopmental outcomes of exposure to AEDs and maternal seizure in infants born to WWE (Women With Epilepsy)?

A

WWE and their partners need to be informed about the possible adverse impact on long-term neurodevelopment of the newborn following in-utero exposure to sodium valproate

There is very little evidence for levetiracetam and phenytoin

Based on limited evidence, in-utero exposure to carbamazepine and lamotrigine does not appear to adversely affect neurodevelopment of the offspring

Parents should be informed that evidence on long-term outcomes is based on small numbers of children.

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23
Q

How can you minimise congenital abnormalities in WWE?

A

1) Folic acid 5mg OD prior to conception and at least until the end of the 1st trimester to reduce the risk of congenital malformations and cognitive impairment

2) Lowest effective dose of the most appropriate AED

3) Switching from sodium valproate and avoiding AED polypharmacy. Change the medication prior to conception as recommended by an epilepsy specialist after evaluating potential risks and benefits

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24
Q

What is the effect of pregnancy on seizures in WWE?

A

1) 2/3 of WWE will not have seizure deterioration in pregnancy

2) WWE who have had a seizure in the year prior to conception need to be monitored closely

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25
Q

What is the risk of teratogenicity in women with epilepsy who are medicated?

A

6-8%

Epilepsy increases risk of teratogenicity (4% not on medication, 6-8% on treatment)

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26
Q

What is the risk of teratogenicity in women with epilepsy who are not medicated?

A

4%

Epilepsy increases risk of teratogenicity (4% not on medication, 6-8% on treatment)

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27
Q

What happens if a WWE unexpectedly falls pregnant?

A

She should be able to access an epilepsy specialist ASAP

It is never recommended to stop or switch AEDs abruptly without consultation with an epilepsy specialist

All pregnant WWE should be provided with information about the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Register and invited to register

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28
Q

What is the optimum method and timing of screening for detection of fetal abnormalities?

A

The fetal anomaly scan at 18+0–20+6 weeks of gestation can identify major cardiac defects in addition to neural tube defects

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29
Q

Should AED levels be monitored during pregnancy?

A

Based on current evidence, routine monitoring of serum AED levels in pregnancy is not recommended although individual circumstances may be taken into account

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30
Q

What are the adverse effects of AEDs in pregnancy on the mother and how can they be minimised?

A

Healthcare professionals should be alert to signs of depression, anxiety and any neuropsychiatric symptoms in mothers exposed to AEDs.

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31
Q

How should WWE be monitored in pregnancy?

A

Antenatally WWEs should be routinely asked about: risk factors for seizures (i.e. sleep deprivation and stress), their adherence to AEDs and seizure type and frequency

If they require admission antenatally and have a reasonable risk of seizure they should be provided with close observation by carer, partner or nursing staff

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32
Q

How should the fetus be monitored in pregnancy for WWE on AEDs?

A

Serial growth scans - 28, 32, 36/40 to detect SGA babies and to manage them appropriately

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33
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in preventing haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and maternal haemorrhage in WWE taking AEDs?

A

1) All babies born to WWE taking enzyme-inducing AEDs should be offered 1 mg of intramuscular vitamin K to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn

2) There is insufficient evidence to recommend routine maternal use of oral vitamin K to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn in WWE taking enzyme-inducing AEDs

3) There is insufficient evidence to recommend giving vitamin K to WWE to prevent postpartum haemorrhage

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34
Q

What is the optimal timing and mode of delivery for WWE based on seizure control?

A

WWE should be reassured that most will have an uncomplicated labour and delivery

The diagnosis of epilepsy per se is not an indication for planned caesarean section or IOL

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35
Q

How should women with non-epileptic attack disorder be counselled in pregnancy and how should their non-epileptic seizures be managed?

A

When there is a firm diagnosis of non-epileptic attack disorder these women should not be inappropriately started on AEDs or have iatrogenic early delivery

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36
Q

How are WWE managed during labour?

A

The risk of seizure in labour is low

WWE in labour should have risk factors for seizure minimised, i.e. insomnia, pain and dehydration - adequate analgesia and appropriate care is needed

AED intake should be continued during labour. If this cannot be tolerated orally, a parenteral alternative should be administered

Long-acting benzodiazepines, i.e. clobazam can be considered if there is a very high risk of seizures in the peripartum period

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37
Q

What is the risk of a tonic-clonic seizure during the labour and the 24 hours after birth?

A

1-4%

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38
Q

How are seizures managed in labour?

A

1) Every obstetric unit should have written guidelines on the management of seizures in labour

2) Stopping seizures ASAP is the priority to minimise the risk of maternal and/or fetal hypoxia and fetal acidosis. Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice

3) Continuous CTG is required for women at high risk of seizure during labour and if they have just had a seizure in labour

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39
Q

What are the recommended methods of analgesia in labour for WWE?

A

Pain management should be prioritised in WWE in labour. TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation), Entonox and Epidural are options

Avoid Pethidine if possible and use Diamorphine instead

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40
Q

What is the most suitable place of delivery for WWE?

A

1) For WWE at risk of seizure they should be on labour ward with 1-1 midwifery care with access to maternal and fetal resuscitation

2) If the woman is not taking AEDs and has been seizure-free for a significant period of time she may have a Water Birth if deemed appropriate by an epilepsy specialist

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41
Q

What is the risk of seizure deterioration postpartum and how can this be minimised?

A

Despite the risk of seizures during and immediately after delivery are low, the risk is relatively higher than during pregnancy

WWEs need to continue to take their AEDs postnatally

WWEs need to be supported by their partners, carers, HCPs to reduce triggers and thus decrease risk of seizure, i.e. prevent sleep deprivation, pain, dehydration, stress

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42
Q

Is there a need to modify the dose of AED after delivery for WWE?

A

If the dose of AED was increased during pregnancy then this needs to be reviewed within 10 days, to prevent postpartum toxicity

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43
Q

What are the effects of AED exposure on the newborn from breast milk?

A

WWE on AEDs should be encouraged to breastfeed

WWE on AEDs should be informed that from current evidence there is no increased risk of cognitive impairment of babies exposed to breast milk with AEDs

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44
Q

What contraception can be safely offered to women taking AEDs?

A

WWE should be offered effective contraception to avoid unplanned pregnancies

Copper IUD, Mirena IUS and Depot injection are all safe and reliable options for WWE taking enzyme-inducing AEDs (Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, Phenobarbitol, Topiramate)

Hormonal contraceptives, i.e. COCP, POP, Transdermal patch, vaginal ring, Implanon may be affected by enzyme-inducing AEDs

WWE taking non-enzyme-inducing AEDs, i.e. sodium valproate (epilim), gabapentin, pregabalin, levetiracetam (keppra), clobazam, clonazepam, lamotrigine can take ALL forms of contraception

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45
Q

A WWE taking Carbamazepine had unprotected vaginal intercourse 3 days ago. She says her LMP was roughly two weeks ago. What form of emergency contraception do you offer her?

A

Copper Coil

WWE taking enzyme-inducing AEDs should be informed that a copper IUD is the preferred choice for emergency contraception

Emergency contraception pills with levonorgestrel and ulipristal acetate (EllaOne) are affected by enzyme-inducing AEDs

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46
Q

A WWE taking Sodium Valproate had unprotected vaginal intercourse 3 days ago. She says her LMP was roughly two weeks ago. What form of emergency contraception do you offer her?

A

Any form of emergency contraception - Copper IUD, Levonorgestrel, Ulipristal acetate

Emergency contraception pills with levonorgestrel and ulipristal acetate (EllaOne) are affected by enzyme-inducing AEDs. Sodium valproate is a non-enzyme-inducing AED

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47
Q

A WWE taking Lamotrigine presents to the Community Sexual Health Clinic enquiring about contraception. She previously had a Mirena coil and found insertion painful. Which one should she be prescribed?

A

Implanon or Depot injection

Women taking lamotrigine monotherapy and oestrogen-containing contraceptives should be informed of the potential increase in seizures due to a fall in the levels of lamotrigine

Lamotrigine may also have an effect on POP

Lamotrigine (antiepileptic) and griseofulvin (antifungal) are not thought to be enzyme-inducing drugs; however, contraceptive efficacy may be reduced by concurrent use. The clinical significance of this effect is unknown

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48
Q

What is the prevalence of epilepsy in pregnancy?

A

0.5-1%

Epilepsy is one of the most common neurological conditions in pregnancy, with a prevalence of 0.5–1%

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49
Q

What is the comparative risk of death for pregnant WWE vs non-pregnant WWE?

A

10x increase in risk of death

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50
Q

When are women considered not to have epilepsy anymore?

A

1) If they have gone 10 years seizure-free (with the last 5 years being off AEDs)

2) If they had childhood epilepsy syndrome and have reached adulthood seizure-free or without AEDs

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51
Q

Which AEDs have the lowest risk of congenital malformation to the offspring?

A

Lamotrigine (non-enzyme-inducing)
Carbamazepine (enzyme-inducing)

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52
Q

What are the most common major congenital malformations associated with AEDs?

A

Neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly)
Congenital heart defects
Urinary tract abnormalities
Skeletal abnormalities
Cleft palate

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53
Q

What is the risk of recurrence of major congenital malformation in WWE who have previously had one?

A

16.8%

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54
Q

What are the definitions of Thalassaemia major, Thalassaemia intermedia and Thalassaemia carriers?

A

Thal major - >7 blood transfusions/year

Thal intermedia - ≤7 blood transfusions/year

Thal carrier - do not require transfusions

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55
Q

Beta-thalassaemia is encoded for by which chromosome?

A

The β-globin chains are encoded by a single gene on chromosome 11

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56
Q

Alpha-thalassaemia is encoded for by which chromosome?

A

α-globin chains are encoded by two closely linked genes on chromosome 16

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57
Q

What is the pathophysiology of thalassaemia syndromes?

A

The basic defect in thalassaemia syndromes is reduced globin chain synthesis (Hb normally made up of 2 alpha and 2 beta globin chains), the resultant RBCs have reduced Hb

Pathophysiology - ineffective erythropoiesis causes damaged RBCs and erythroid precursors which undergo extravascular haemolysis once released into the peripheral circulation

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58
Q

In Thalassaemia how long should pregnancy be avoided for until iron overload is controlled?

A

12 months

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59
Q

How does Thalassaemia major (homozygous beta thalassaemia) occur and what manifestations arise?

A

Individual inherits a defective beta globin gene from each parent. This causes a severe transfusion-dependent anaemia

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60
Q

How does Thalassaemia minor/trait occur and what manifestations arise?

A

Individual inherits one faulty thalassaemia gene. It only causes a mild-moderate microcytic anaemia with no significant detrimental effect on overall health

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61
Q

What are the adverse complications of multiple transfusions?

A

Multiple transfusions can cause iron overload, causing:

Hepatic, cardiac and endocrine dysfunction

The anterior pituitary is very sensitive to iron overload and evidence of dysfunction is common

Most of these women are subfertile due to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism and therefore require ovulation induction therapy with gonadrotrophins to achieve pregnancy

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62
Q

What is the primary cause of death in 50% of cases of iron overload caused by multiple transfusions?

A

Cardiac failure

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63
Q

What are the cornerstones of modern treatment in beta thalassaemia?

A

Blood transfusion

Iron chelation therapy

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64
Q

Antenatally if women with thalassaemia major receive little or no chelation what can happen to them?

A

They can develop cardiomyopathy and endocrinopathies, i.e.:

  • Diabetes
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypoparathyroidism

Due to the increasing iron burden

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65
Q

What interventions can be done prenatally to reduce the risk of morbidity for patients with thalassaemia major?

A

Aggressive iron chelation therapy can reduce and optimise body iron burden and reduce end-organ damage. Studies show these women are less likely to suffer with cardiomyopathies and endocrinopathies

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66
Q

Can iron chelation therapy be given in pregnancy?

A

All chelation should be regarded as teratogenic in the 1st trimester

Desferrioxamine is the only chelation agent with a body of evidence for use in the 2nd and 3rd trimester

The optimisation of iron burden is therefore critical prior to pregnancy, as iron accumulates with each blood transfusion. With the absence of chelation it may expose women to a high risk of new complications

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67
Q

Which endocrine condition is most common in thalassaemia: diabetes, hypothyrodisim or hypoparathyrodisim?

A

Diabetes

Women with diabetes should be referred to a diabetes specialist. Good glycaemic control is essential prenatally

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68
Q

What level of glycaemic control should diabetic women with thalassaemia have prior to conception?

A

Serum fructosamine levels <300 nmol/l at least 3 months before conception
This is equivalent to HbA1c <43 mmol/mol - this is associated with a reduced risk of congenital abnormalities

HbA1c is not a reliable marker of glycaemic control as it is diluted by transfused blood and can cause underestimation - so serum fructosamine is preferred for monitoring

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69
Q

Does thyroid function need to be checked prior to conception in thalassaemia women?

A

Thyroid function should be determined. The woman should be euthyroid prepregnancy

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70
Q

What cardiac tests should be performed prior to pregnancy in thalassaemia women?

A

All women should be assessed by a cardiologist with expertise in thalassaemia and/or iron overload prior to embarking on a pregnancy

They need to have had an:
1) Echo
2) ECG
3) T2 Cardiac MRI

It is important to determine how well the cardiac status of the woman will support a pregnancy as well as the severity of any iron-related cardiomyopathy. Cardiac arrhythmias are more likely in older patients who have previously had severe myocardial iron overload and are now clear of cardiac iron

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71
Q

What levels on T2 Cardiac MRI do you aim for in prenatal women with thalassaemia?

A

The aim is for no cardiac iron, but this can take years to achieve so care should be individualised to the woman

T2 Cardiac MRI >20ms is considered normal. Aim for this as it reflects minimum iron in the heart

However, pregnancies with successful maternal and fetal outcomes have occurred with lower cardiac T2 values

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72
Q

What T2 Cardiac MRI level is associated with an increased risk of cardiac failure with women with thalassamia?

A

T2 < 10 ms

A reduced ejection fraction is a relative contraindication to pregnancy and the management should be the subject of multidisciplinary discussions involving a cardiologist with experience of cardiac pathology in pregnancy, a maternal medicine specialist, a haematologist and an obstetric anaesthetist

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73
Q

How do you assess liver iron concentration in thalassaemia and what levels do you want pre-pregnancy?

A

Women should be assessed for liver iron concentration using a FerriScan® or liver T2*. Ideally the liver iron should be < 7 mg/g (dry weight) (dw)

If liver iron exceeds the target range, a period of intensive preconception chelation is required to optimise liver iron burden

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74
Q

For women with thalassaemia, at what level of iron at Ferriscan/T2 Liver is it advised to undergo chelation and when is it advised?

A

If liver iron exceeds 15 mg/g (dw) prior to conception, the risk of myocardial iron loading increases, so iron chelation with low-dose desferrioxamine should be commenced between 20 and 28 weeks under guidance from the haemoglobinopathy team

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75
Q

Name two common conditions caused by haemolytic anaemia in thalassaemia?

A

Cholelithiasis
Cholecystitis

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76
Q

How do you investigate for osteoporosis in thalassaemia?

A

All women should be offered a bone density scan to document pre-existing osteoporosis

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77
Q

What causes osteoporosis in thalassaemia?

A

Osteoporosis is a common finding in adults with thalassaemia. The pathology
is complex, but thought to be due to a variety of factors:

1) Calcium chelation by iron chelation therapy
2) Thalassaemic bone disease
3) Hypogonadism
4) Vitamin D deficiency

Most women with thalassaemia syndromes are vitamin D deficient and often osteoporotic as well. All women should have vitamin D levels optimised before pregnancy and thereafter maintained in the normal range

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78
Q

What is the incidence of alloimmunity in individuals with thalassaemia?

A

Alloimmunity occurs in 16.5% of individuals with thalassaemia.
ABO and full blood group genotype and antibody titres should be measured.

Red cell antibodies may indicate a risk of haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn. If antibodies are present there may be challenges in obtaining suitable blood for transfusion, therefore these women should be cross-matched during labour

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79
Q

What medications should be reviewed preconceptually in women with thalassaemia?

A

Iron chelators should be reviewed and deferasirox and deferiprone ideally discontinued 3 months before conception

All bisphosphonates are contraindicated in pregnancy and should ideally be discontinued 3 months prior to conception in accordance with the product safety information sheet

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80
Q

What is the importance of genetic screening and what procedure(s) are involved for women with thalassaemia?

A

IVF and ICSI with PGD (Pre-implantation Diagnosis) should be performed in couples with thalassaemias to avoid homozygous or heterozygous pregnancy.

Preconception counselling for women with thalassaemia includes partner screening and genetic counselling as well as the methods and risks of prenatal diagnosis and termination of pregnancy.

In high-risk couples PGD is an option. If the partner is unavailable, an offer of prenatal testing is appropriate. Due to the risk of a haemoglobinopathy, potential egg and sperm donors are screened for haemoglobinopathies

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81
Q

Which transfusion-related infections are common in thalassaemia patients?

A

Hep B - Hep B vaccine should be given to all HBsAg negative women who are transfused or who may be transfused

Check Hep C status. Any woman who tests positive for Hep C needs RNA titres and to be referred to a hepatologist

Give HiB (Haemophillus influenza B) and Meningococcoal C vaccine to all women who have not had as part of their childhood vaccinations

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82
Q

What is the management of thalassaemia patients post-splenectomy?

A

Daily Penicillin prophylaxis - if allergic use erythromycin

Pneumoccoccal (Pneumovax II) vaccine every 5 years

Women who have undergone splenectomy are at risk of infection from encapsulated bacteria such as Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae type b

Women should be given Haemophilus influenzae type b and the conjugated meningococcal C vaccine as a single dose if they have not received it as part of primary vaccination

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83
Q

What vitamin supplements are recommended in women with thalassaemia prenatally?

A

Folic acid (5 mg) is recommended preconceptually to all women to prevent neural tube defects

Women with thalassaemia have a much higher demand for folic acid so high-dose supplementation is needed. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception

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84
Q

How often should women with thalassaemia be reviewed?

A

4 weekly until 28/40, then 2 weekly

Women with thalassaemia should be reviewed monthly until 28 weeks of gestation and fortnightly thereafter. The multidisciplinary team should provide routine as well as specialist antenatal care

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85
Q

How often should women with thalassaemia and diabetes be monitored and seen antenatally?

A

They should have monthly serum fructosamine levels review in the specialist diabetic pregnancy clinic

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86
Q

When should women with thalassaemia major undergo cardiac assessment antenatally?

A

28 weeks

All women with thalassaemia major should undergo specialist cardiac assessment at 28 weeks of gestation and thereafter as appropriate.

Cardiac assessment is important to determine cardiac function and possible further iron chelation as well as planning for labour

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87
Q

When should thyroid function be measured in pregnant women with thalassaemia?

A

Prior to conception women should be euthyroid. Thyroid function should be monitored throughout pregnancy. If hypothyroid then the dosage of thyroxine needs to be adjusted

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88
Q

What is the recommended schedule of ultrasound scanning during pregnancy?

A

1) Early scan - 7-9/40

2) Dating scan - 11-14/40

3) Detailed anomaly scan - 18-20+6/40

4) Serial growth scans - 24, 28, 32, 36 weeks

Women with both thalassaemia and diabetes are at an increased risk of early miscarriage.

Women with thalassaemia often require IVF with ovulation induction, therefore the early stage is to determine viability of the foetus and to detect potential multiple pregnancy.

Severe maternal anaemia caused by thalassaemia can affect maternal transfer of nutrients to the fetus, and thus cause IUGR

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89
Q

How should the transfusion regimen be managed during pregnancy in women with thalassaemia major?

A

All women with thalassaemia major should be receiving blood transfusions on a regular basis aiming for a pre-transfusion haemoglobin of 100 g/l. Monitor Hb every 2-3 weeks and transfuse if Hb <100 g/l.

Give 2-3 units, and additional units a week later to cause Hb of 120 g/l.

Women with thalassaemia minor aim for the same pre-transfusion Hb of 100 g/l.

Women with thalassaemia major will already be established on transfusion regimens which generally remain stable during pregnancy.

If there is worsening maternal anaemia or evidence of IUGR, regular transfusions should be considered.

Each woman’s haemoglobin falls at different rates after transfusion so close surveillance of pretransfusion haemoglobin concentrations is required.

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90
Q

What Hb level is safe for delivery in women with thalassaemia?

A

Generally, in non-transfused patients if the Hb is >80 g/l at 36/40 then you do not need to transfuse. Transfuse after delivery

If Hb <80 g/l then transfuse 2 units at 37-38/40

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91
Q

What antenatal thromboprophylaxis is recommended in thalassaemia?

A

1) If splenectomy OR Plt >600 - Aspirin 75 mg OD

2) If splenectomy AND Plt >600 - LMWH + Aspirin 75mg OD

3) If not on LMWH then give LMWH when admitted to hospital

Women with thalassaemia major or intermedia have a prothrombotic tendency due to the presence of abnormal red cell fragments, especially if they have undergone splenectomy.

These red cell fragments combined with a high platelet count significantly increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.

This risk is highest in splenectomised women with thalassaemia intermedia who are not receiving transfusions since a good transfusion regimen suppresses endogenous erythropoiesis

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92
Q

What level is significant for myocardial decompensation in pregnant women with thalassaemia? How might they present?

A

T2 Cardiac mri <10 ms

Signs/symptoms:
1) Dyspnoea
2) Paroxysmal noctural dyspnoea
3) Orthopnoea
4) Syncope
5) Palpitations
6) Peripheral oedema

Presentation in the 1st trimester is associated with adverse clinical outcome

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93
Q

What is the management of pregnant thalassaemia women at highest risk of cardiac decompensation? What treatment should they start?

A

Desferrioxamine s.c. 20mg/kg/day for a minimum of 4-5 days a week from 20-24 weeks gestation

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94
Q

What is the management of pregnant thalassaemia women with liver decompensation? What treatment should they start?

A

Start low dose desferrioxamine from 20 weeks gestation if T2 Liver >15mg/g dw.

Aim for <15mg/g dw to reduce the risk of myocardial iron overload

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95
Q

What is the best intrapartum management for women with thalassaemia major or intermedia?

A

1) Alert haematologist, anaesthetist, obstetrician as soon as patient arrives to labour ward
2) If red cell antibodies present - X-match 2 units blood. If no atypical antibodies then G+S suffices
3) If Hb <100g/l - X-match 2 units blood
4) Women with thalassaemia major give i.v. desferroxiamine 2g over 24 hours
5) Continuous CTG whilst in labour - increased risk of operative delivery due to higher risk of fetal hypoxia
6) Active management of 3rd stage of labour

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96
Q

What is the postpartum VTE prophylaxis for women with thalassaemia?

A

There is a high risk of venous thromboembolism due to the presence of abnormal red cells in the circulation.

LWMH throughout admission

NVD - 7 days LMWH

CS - 6 weeks LMWH

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97
Q

Can women with thalassaemia major breastfeed whilst on desferroxiamine?

A

Yes.

Once initial desferrioxamine infusion 2g/24 hours is given then re-commence it s.c. It is secreted in breastmilk but not absorbed orally so there are no safety concerns with the baby

In women who do not want to breastfeed whilst on desferrioxamine then continue infusion or s.c. injections until discharge or until resumption of her usual iron chelation therapy under hematology, whichever is sooner

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98
Q

What is the proportion of twins of all live births?

A

3%

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99
Q

Regarding Toxoplasmosis infection, what is the risk of fetal transmission if maternal infection occurs <4 weeks gestation?

A

<1%

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100
Q

Regarding Toxoplasmosis infection, what is the risk of fetal transmission if maternal infection occurs 36 weeks gestation?

A

> 60%

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101
Q

Regarding Toxoplasmosis infection, what is the risk of fetal transmission if maternal infection occurs 13 weeks gestation?

A

10%

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102
Q

What is the rate of spontaneous abortion amongst pregnant woman infected with Rubella in the first trimester?

A

20%

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103
Q

If Rubella is contracted <11/40 what percentage of babies will have congenital rubella syndrome?

A

90%

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104
Q

If Rubella is contracted 11-16/40 what percentage of babies will have congenital rubella syndrome?

A

20%

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105
Q

Rubella causes spontaneous abortion in the first trimester in what proportion of pregnant women?

A

20%

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106
Q

What proportion of pregnancies will have congenital rubella syndrome after 20 weeks gestation?

A

There have been no published case reports of CRS after 20 weeks’ gestation

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107
Q

A patient who is 23 weeks pregnant comes to see you as there has been a recent local outbreak of Rubella and a child at a recent party had a rash. How long are patients with rubella considered infectious for?

A

Individuals with rubella are usually infectious from 1 week before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash

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108
Q

What is the incubation period for Rubella?

A

14 days (same as chickenpox)

Incubation period range 12-23 days (average 14 days)

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109
Q

What is the treatment for pregnancies affected by Rubella?

A

No specific treatment. Key is prevention through vaccination programme

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110
Q

What is the risk of PET in this pregnancy if the previous pregnancy had severe PET, HELLP or eclampsia and delivery <34/40?

A

25%

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111
Q

What is the risk of PET in this pregnancy if the previous pregnancy had eclampsia and delivery <28/40?

A

55%

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112
Q

What is the risk of PET in this pregnancy if the previous pregnancy had PET?

A

Up to 16%

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113
Q

What is the risk of congenital CMV infection with primary CMV infection during pregnancy?

A

Risk of congenital infection is 30-40% with primary infection during pregnancy

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114
Q

What is the risk of congenital CMV infection with recurrent CMV infection in pregnancy?

A

Risk of congenital infection is 1-2% with recurrent CMV infection in pregnancy

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115
Q

What percentage of neonates with congenital CMV infection will appear asymptomatic at birth?

A

87%

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116
Q

What percentage of neonates with congenital CMV infection who are asymptomatic at birth will later develop hearing loss?

A

15%

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117
Q

When should amniocentesis be delayed for in CMV infection?

A

Amniocentesis should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation

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118
Q

What is the incubation period for CMV?

A

3-12 weeks

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119
Q

If amniocentesis confirms CMV infection then what investigation(s) are recommended?

A

Cerebral MRI is indicated at 28-32 weeks of gestation

Serial ultrasound examination of the fetus should also be performed every 2-3 weeks until deliver

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120
Q

What is the management of pregnant women who contract Genital herpes HSV in the 1st or 2nd trimester?

A

Aciclovir 400mg TDS for 5 days

THEN

Aciclovir 400mg TDS from 36/40 until term to reduce the need for CS

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121
Q

What is the management of pregnant women who contract Genital herpes HSV in the 3rd trimester?

A

Aciclovir 400mg TDS from 28/40 until delivery

Will need a CS if this is the first episode

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122
Q

What is the incidence of neonatal HSV infection?

A

3 in 100,000

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123
Q

When is the risk of neonatal HSV infection transmission the highest?

A

Within 6 weeks of delivery

Highest risk with primary herpes infection within 6 weeks of delivery. Viral shedding can continue after lesions have healed

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124
Q

What percentage of infants with neonatal herpes have disseminated and/or central nervous system (CNS) infection?

A

70%

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125
Q

What are the types of neonatal HSV infection?

A

1) Skin/superifical - least severe form

2) CNS involvement - 70% neurological sequelae, 6% mortality with anti-viral treatment

3) Disseminated disease - 17% neurological sequelae, 30% mortality with anti-viral treatment

70% have disseminated and/or CNS involvement

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126
Q

PET leads to AKI in what proportion of cases?

A

1.5-2%

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127
Q

What level of urea in pregnancy is an indication for renal replacement therapy?

A

urea >17

A serum urea > 17 mmol/l despite medical management is a pregnancy-specific indicator for renal replacement therapy

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128
Q

AKI complicates what proportion of HELLP?

A

3-15%

AKI complicates 3-15% of cases of HELLP

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129
Q

How are women with bipolar disorder taking lithium managed?

A

Advise switch to Quietiapine (or other anti-psychotic)
Lithium is associated with fetal cardiac malformations and Ebstein anomaly (right ventricular outflow obstruction)
If stopping stop over 4 weeks

If continuing then measure plasma lithium levels every 4 weeks and then weekly from 36/40

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130
Q

What levels of Anti-D, Anti-c, Anti-E and Anti-K suggest moderate risk of HDFN and should trigger FMU referral?

A

Anti-D >4.0 (>15 confers severe risk of HDFN)

Anti-c >7.5 (>20 confers severe risk of HDFN)

Anti-E - if Anti-C is present

Anti-K - any level, as higher risk of HDFN

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131
Q

How often should MCA PSV be measured in women referred to FMU due to raised titres of antibodies?

A

Weekly

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132
Q

What level of MCA PSV should trigger invasive testing?

A

> 1.5x median

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133
Q

What is the incidence of Gestational Diabetes Insipidus?

A

2-4 in 100,000

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134
Q

What is the incidence of polyhydramnios?

A

1-1.5%

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135
Q

In regards to appendicitis in pregnancy, what is the rate of fetal loss with simple appendicitis?

A

1.5%

Fetal loss in simple appendicitis is 1.5%

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136
Q

In regards to appendicitis in pregnancy, what is the rate of fetal loss with appendicitis with peritonitis?

A

6%

Fetal loss in appendicitis with peritonitis 6%

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137
Q

In regards to appendicitis in pregnancy, what is the rate of fetal loss with a perforated appendix?

A

Fetal loss with perforated appendix 36%

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138
Q

Inherited Thrombophilia is present in what proportion of women with pregnancy associated VTE?

A

40%

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139
Q

Regarding thyroid function in pregnancy. At what gestational age do placental changes prevent significant passage of maternal thyroxine across the placenta?

A

12 weeks

Prior to 12 weeks gestation maternal thyroxine (fT4 not fT3) crosses the placenta. From 12 weeks placental changes prevent significant passage of maternal thyroxine and fetal thyroid function becomes independently controlled from the mother.

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140
Q

What is the incidence of hyperthyrodism in pregnancy in the UK?

A

Hyperthyroidism in pregnancy occurs in 2 in 1,000 pregnancies in the UK

141
Q

What is the incidence of hypothyrodism in pregnancy in the UK?

A

1%

142
Q

A 27 year old patient who is 34 weeks pregnant is admitted with vomiting and right upper quadrant pain. A diagnosis of acute fatty liver of pregnancy is subsequently made. What is the most common complication of acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

Renal impairment

AKI is a common complication. 14% of patients in the UK develop renal impairment

3.5% require renal replacement

143
Q

What is the incidence of acute fatty liver disease in pregnancy?

A

5 in 100,000

144
Q

What is the period of infectivity for parvovirus B19?

A

7-10 days before to 1 day after onset of the rash

145
Q

What is the risk of vertical transmission of Parvovirus B19 from mother to baby <15 weeks gestation?

A

15%

146
Q

What is the risk of vertical transmission of Parvovirus B19 from mother to baby 15-20 weeks gestation?

A

25%

147
Q

What is the risk of vertical transmission of Parvovirus B19 from mother to baby at term?

A

70%

148
Q

You are counselling a patient regarding investigations following a stillbirth. You advise that you will be carrying out karyotyping. What percentage of stillborn babies will have a chromosomal abnormality?

A

6%

6% of stillborn babies will have a chromosomal abnormality

149
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for active TB in pregnancy?

A

IREP
Isoniazid
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide

150
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for latent TB?

A

IR
Isoniazid
Rifampicin

151
Q

Which TB medication has the highest risk of peripheral neuropathy?

A

Isoniazid

Isoniazid can cause neuropathy - vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) supplementation should be offered to avoid this

152
Q

What proportion of individuals in the UK aged over 15 are seropositive for VZV IgG antibody?

A

> 90%

153
Q

What is the incubation period for chickenpox?

A

14 days (same as Rubella)

154
Q

What is the increased risk of spontaneous abortion/miscarriage in women who contract chickenpox in the 1st trimester?

A

No increased risk

155
Q

What is the infectious period for women who develop chickenpox?

A

48 hours before the onset of the rash to the lesions have crusted over (usually 5 days after the onset of the rash)

156
Q

Which type of virus is chickenpox caused by?

A

Chickenpox and shingles are caused by the double stranded DNA virus Varicella zoster

157
Q

Women who are <28 weeks gestation who are infected with chickenpox have what likelihood of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS)?

A

<1%

158
Q

If a woman has contact with chickenpox but does not receive VZIG when is she considered infectious from?

A

8 days - 21 days after contact

159
Q

You are reviewing a 33 year old patient who is at 34 weeks gestation. She noticed a lump in her breast in early pregnancy and investigations confirmed breast cancer for which she has started chemotherapy. She wants advice from you regarding breastfeeding and chemotherapy. How long after chemo should she wait to breastfeed?

A

14 days

Patients should wait at least 14 days from last chemotherapy dose before breastfeeding

160
Q

What is the incidence of breast cancer in pregnancy?

A

1 in 3,000 pregnancies

161
Q

What age group does breast cancer in pregnancy normally affect?

A

32-38

162
Q

What proportion of breast cancer women <45 years old are pregnant?

A

15%

163
Q

What is the risk of PIH/PET in women with untreated anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

30-50%

164
Q

What is the risk of PIH/PET in women with treated anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

10%

(30-50% if untreated)

165
Q

What are the indications for starting ART (anti-retroviral treatment) in HIV positive patients in the 1st trimester?

A
  • Presenting with opportunisitc infection
  • Viral load >100,000 copies/ml
  • CD4 count <200
166
Q

What is the rate of vertical transmission of HIV if viral load is <50 copies/ml at delivery and on cART?

A

<0.5%

167
Q

What is the overall incidence of Obstetric cholestasis?

A

0.7%

168
Q

What is the incidence of Obstetric cholestasis in South East Asian populations?

A

1.2-1.5%

169
Q

What is the maternal mortality rate in the UK?

A

8 in 100,00 pregnancies

170
Q

How should lithium levels be monitored during pregnancy?

A

Every 4 weeks until 36/40
Then weekly until delivery
Measure within 24 hours of birth - adjust dose so that levels are just within lower limit of therapeutic range

171
Q

What is the incidence of gestational thrombocytopaenia?

A

1 in every 20 pregnancies

172
Q

What is the mortality rate of severe sepsis in pregnancy?

A

20-40%

173
Q

What is the mortality rate of septic shock in pregnancy?

A

60%

174
Q

A pregnant woman attends the maternal medicine clinic. She suffers CF.

What is the level of FEV1 below which there will be increased mortality during pregnancy?

A

FEV1 <60%

175
Q

A healthy caucasian woman who father is known to have Haemophilia A is married to a healthy caucasian man with unknown status. She She attends the preconception clinic asking about possibility of having an affected son.

What will be the chance of having an affected son?

A

1/8

176
Q

A 27 year old pregnant woman has a history of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus since the age of 14. Her partner is normal.

What is the chance for her baby to be born with congenital heart disease?

A

5%

177
Q

A 32 year old pregnant woman attends MAU complaining of pruritis of her body and scalp. All her blood tests are normal.

What is the incidence of this condition in pregnancy?

A

18%

Pruritis gravidarum

178
Q

A 43 year old pregnant lady is admitted with acute myocardial infarction at 35 weeks.

After how long can it be safe for timed delivery?

A

2-3 weeks

179
Q

Insertion of emergency cervical cerclage may delay delivery by how many days on average?

A

34 days

180
Q

Insertion of an emergency cervical cerclage may reduce the chances of pre-term birth <34/40 by how much?

A

2x reduction

181
Q

At what gestation are history-indicated cervical cerclages inserted?

A

11 - 14 weeks

182
Q

Which women should be offered a history-indicated cervical cerclage?

A

Only women who should be offered history-indicated cervical cerclage are:
- Hx of 3 or more pre-term births or 2nd trimester miscarriages

Done electively at 11 - 14 weeks

183
Q

Which women should be offered a US-indicated cervical cerclage?

A

1) Women with a hx of 1 or more 2nd trimester miscarriage
OR
2) Women with a hx of 1 or more pre-term birth <34/40
AND
cervical length <25mm on TVS from 14-24 weeks

184
Q

Which women should have serial transvaginal ultrasound surveillance for cervical length? When is this performed?

A

High-risk:

1) Hx of 1 or more pre-term birth or 2nd trimester miscarriage (16-34 weeks)
2) Hx of PPROM <34 weeks
3) Known uterine variant
4) Previous cervical cerclage
5) Hx of trachelectomy

Seen in pre-term birth clinic at 12 weeks. Offered serial TVS scans every 2-4 weeks from 16-24 weeks

185
Q

Which women are deemed as intermediate risk for pre-term birth and what TVS ultrasound surveillance for cervical length are they offered?

A

1) Previous LLETZ/cone biopsy
2) Previous CS at full dilatation

They are offered at least one TVS US at 18-22 weeks as a minimum

186
Q

What is the most common site for bladder injury during surgery?

A

0.8%

187
Q

What is the risk of the baby having congenital heart disease if the mother has it?

A

6%

188
Q

What is the risk of the baby having congenital heart disease if the father has it?

A

2%

189
Q

What is the risk of the baby having congenital heart disease if there is a history of congenital heart disease with 1x previous baby?

A

2-5%

190
Q

What is the risk of the baby having congenital heart disease if there is a history of congenital heart disease with 2x previous babies?

A

10-15%

191
Q

Which specific lesion/site in congenital heart disease in pregnancy confers the highest risk for baby developing it?

A

Congenital aortic stenosis
1-20% risk

192
Q

What is the mortality rate of pregnant women with Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

25-40%

193
Q

What is the recurrence risk with obstetric cholestasis?

A

45 - 90%

194
Q

What is the most common dermatoses of pregnancy? What is its incidence?

A

Atopic eruption in pregnancy
1 in 300

195
Q

How should obstetric cholestasis be monitored?

A

Once OC has been diagnosed you should measure LFTs weekly until delivery

Measure LFTs at least 10 days after delivery

196
Q

What is the increased risk of pre-eclampsia in women who experience migraines?

A

2x increase

197
Q

What is the increased risk of acute myocardial infarction in women who experience migraines?

A

4x increase

198
Q

What is the increased risk of stroke in women who experience migraines?

A

17x increase

199
Q

What is the most common karyotype anomaly associated with truncus arteriosus?

A

DiGeorge syndrome (22q11.2 deletion syndrome)

200
Q

At what gestational age does feticide need to be undertaken prior to a termination of pregnancy?

A

> 21+6 weeks gestation to ensure that there is not a live birth

201
Q

Up to which gestation can an emergency cervical cerclage be considered?

A

27+6 weeks gestation

202
Q

What is the definition/calculation for maternal mortality rate?

A

No. of maternal deaths/No. of live births x 100,000

203
Q

What is the definition/calculation for perinatal mortality rate?

A

No. of stillbirths >28/40 + early neonatal deaths (<7 days) / No. of total births x 1,000

204
Q

When is vitamin K recommended for cases of Obstetric cholestasis?

A

If the Prothrombin time is prolonged
Can give Vitamin K 5-10mg OD

205
Q

What is the recurrence rate of acute fatty liver disease in pregnancy?

A

25%

206
Q

What is the overall risk of pre-eclampsia if you had it previously?

A

1 in 6
16%

207
Q

What is the risk of pre-eclampsia if you had it previously at 28-34 weeks gestation?

A

1 in 3
33%

208
Q

What is the risk of pre-eclampsia if you had it previously 34 - 37 weeks?

A

1 in 4
23%

209
Q

What is the difference in maternal mortality rates for black mothers compared to white mothers?

A

4x higher

210
Q

What is the difference in maternal mortality rates for mixed race mothers compared to white mothers?

A

3x higher

211
Q

What is the difference in maternal mortality rates for Asian mothers compared to white mothers?

A

2x higher

212
Q

What is the difference in maternal mortality rates for women aged 40 or above compared to women in their early 20s?

A

4x higher

213
Q

What is the difference in maternal mortality rates for women aged 35-39 years compared to women in their early 20s?

A

2x higher

214
Q

Which condition(s) is associated with cystic hygroma?

A

Turners syndrome
Downs syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Fetal hydrops

215
Q

A woman is 34 weeks gestation presents with blurred vision and headaches. Her BP is 165/102mmHg. She is given Labetalol 200mg stat to control it. What is a common side effect of this drug?

A

Neonatal hypoglycaemia

216
Q

What is the accepted background cumulative dose of ionising radiation during pregnancy?

A

5 rad (50 mGy)

217
Q

What is the natural background radiation during an entire pregnancy?

A

0.5 - 1.6mGy

Natural background radiation during an entire pregnancy is approximately 0.5 - 1.6 mGy

218
Q

What are the most common teratogenic effects of ionising radiation to the pregnancy? When are these risks most dangerous?

A

CNS changes, causing microcephaly and severe mental retardation

Risk is highest during weeks 10-17

219
Q

At what gestation is the risk of fetal growth restriction the highest from ionising radiation?

A

3-10 weeks

220
Q

A dose of 250mGy radiation confers what risk of fetal malformation?

A

0.1%

221
Q

What was the perinatal mortality rate in 2019?

A

4 per 1,000

222
Q

Thrombocytopaenia occurs in what proportion of pregnancies?

A

8-10%

223
Q

What is the definition of mild thrombocytopaenia?

A

> 100

224
Q

What is the definition of moderate thrombocytopaenia?

A

50-100

225
Q

What is the definition of severe thrombocytopaenia?

A

<50

226
Q

Gestational thrombocytopaenia accounts for what proportion of thrombocytopaenia in pregnancy?

A

75%

227
Q

PET accounts for what proportion of thrombocytopaenia in pregnancy?

A

15-20%

228
Q

ITP (Imumme thrombocytopaenia of pregnancy) counts for what proportion of thrombocytopaenia in pregnancy?

A

3-4%

229
Q

What is the incidence of gestational thrombocytopaenia in pregnancy?

A

8%

Platelet counts are typically 70 and usually 100

230
Q

If maternal platelet counts are <80 what is the management for the baby?

A

Take cord sample and repeat bloods on day 1 and day 4 to check for neonatal thrombocytopaenia

231
Q

What is the incidence of ITP (immune thrombocytopaenia in pregnancy) in pregnancies?

A

0.1-1 in 1,000 pregnancies

232
Q

What is the incidence of TTP (thrombocytic thrombocytopaenic purpura) in pregnancy?

A

1 in 25,000 pregnancies

233
Q

How many times more likely are pregnant women to die from trauma than their non-pregnant counterparts?

A

1.6x

234
Q

What compared to age-matched controls who are non-pregnant, what is the increased risk of VTE with pregnancy?

A

5x higher

235
Q

What is the additional risk of miscarriage when amniocentesis is performed by an adequately trained operator?

A

<0.5%

236
Q

the addi

A
237
Q

Worldwide what is the most common congenital infection?

A

Syphilis

238
Q

What is the increased risk of preterm birth in women with symptomatic COVID-19 infection in pregnancy?

A

2-3x increase

239
Q

If CVS is done <10+0 weeks what is the risk to the baby?

A

Oromandibular and limb defects

240
Q

Which is the most prevalent HDFN causing red cell alloantibody?

A

Anti-E

241
Q

When do the symptoms of peripartum cardiomyopathy usually present themselves?

A

4 months postpartum in 78% of cases

242
Q

Which viral infection is the most common cause of viral-related fetal anaemia in the UK?

A

Parvovirus B19

243
Q

What is the increased risk of stroke in pregnant vs non-pregnant women?

A

3x more likely

244
Q

25 years old primigravida presented with severe preeclampsia, on investigation found HB 100g/l, platelets 130,000/L PT 1 sec higher than control, APTT 2 seconds higher than control, fibrinogen 1.2. which of the following of these is most predictive of severity of DIC?

A

PT (Prothrombin Time)

245
Q

What is the most common side effect of ursodeoxycholic acid?

A

GI upset

246
Q

What is the most significant complication for women with very advanced maternal age?

A

Caesarean section

247
Q

What is the recurrence rate of obstetric cholestasis?

A

45-90%

248
Q

What happens to stroke volume during pregnancy?

A

It increases by 25-30%

249
Q

What happens to systemic vascular resistance during pregnancy?

A

It decreases by 20-30%

250
Q

What happens to cardiac output during pregnancy?

A

It increases by 30-50%

251
Q

What happens to blood volume during pregnancy?

A

It increases by 40-50%

252
Q

What happens to diastolic BP during pregnancy?

A

It decreases from 12-26 weeks, but rises again to pre-pregnancy levels by 36 weeks

253
Q

When are cardiac issues likely to occur in pregnancy?

A

Early in pregnancy - 1st trimester

As most of the cardiovascular changes occur in the first 12 weeks of gestation cardiac problems are likely to present in early pregnancy

254
Q

What is the incidence of hypertension disorders in pregnancy?

A

8-10%

255
Q

What level of creatinine would prompt admission for a PIH/PET lady?

A

> 90

256
Q

What level of ALT would prompt admission for a PIH/PET lady?

A

> 70

257
Q

What is your risk of pre-eclamsia if you previously had Pre-eclampsia complicated by severe pre-eclampsia, HELLP syndrome or eclampsia and led to birth before 34 weeks?

A

25%

258
Q

What is your risk of pre-eclamsia if you previously had Eclampsia and led to birth before 28 weeks?

A

55%
(Nicole)

259
Q

What is the maternal death rate in the UK?

A

8 per 100,000

260
Q

What is the risk of breast cancer during pregnancy?

A

Breast cancer during pregnancy is rare. Research shows that breast cancer is reported in 1 in every 3,000 pregnancies

261
Q

What is the most common autosomal recessive condition in the UK?

A

Sickle cell anaemia
1 in 2,000 incidence

262
Q

What is the most common autosomal recessive condition in the world?

A

Beta Thalassaemia

263
Q

What proportion of women have pruritis in pregnancy?

A

25%

264
Q

When does ICP normally occur in pregnancy?

A

3rd trimester
But can be earlier in pregnancy

265
Q

What is the prevalence of ICP in Indian and Pakistani women?

A

1.2-1.5%

266
Q

What is the prevalence of ICP?

A

0.7%

267
Q

What is the definition of Gestational pruritis?

A

Itching + peak bile acid concentrations <19

268
Q

What is the definition of mild ICP (Intrahepatic cholestasis?)

A

Itching + elevated peak bile acid concentrations 19-39

269
Q

What is the definition of moderate ICP (Intrahepatic cholestasis?)

A

Itching + elevated peak bile acid concetrations 40-99

270
Q

What is the definition of severe ICP (Intrahepatic cholestasis?)

A

Itching and elevated peak bile acid concentrations >100

271
Q

What is the upper limit of normal bile acid concentrations in pregnancy?

A

18

272
Q

How long after an initial diagnosis of gestational pruritus can women develop intrahepatic cholestatsis of pregnancy?

A

Up to 15 weeks after diagnosis

273
Q

When do you test for Hepatitis C after a diagnosis of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy has been made?

A

1) Very high transaminases (ALT/AST)
2) Rapidly progressive biochemical picture
3) ?acute infection
4) Features of liver failure
5) Early onset ICP in the 1st/2nd trimester
6) Resolution of itching or raised bile acids doesn’t occur within 4 weeks of delivery

274
Q

When should specialist hepatology advice be sought?

A

When pregnant women have severe ICP, very early onset of ICP in the first/2nd trimester or atypical presentation of ICP

275
Q

When does ICP normally resolve postnatally?

A

In the majority of women itching will resolve very soon (within hours or days after birth)

Test LFTs and bile acids at 4 weeks to check for resolution. If persistent then re-consider the diagnosis and perform other investigations

276
Q

What is the risk of stillbirth with ICP?

A

Women with a singleton pregnancy and ICP the risk of stillbirth increases above population once bile acids >100

277
Q

When should women with ICP be delivered?

A

1) Mild ICP - Peak bile acids 19-39. The risk of stillbirth is the same as the general population. The risk increases >40/40. Advise IOL at 40/40

2) Moderate ICP - Peak bile acids 40-99.The risk of stillbirth is the same as the general population until 38-39/40. Advise IOL at 38-39/40

3) Severe ICP - Peak bile acids >100. The risk of stillbirth is higher than the general population. Advise IOL at 35-36/40

278
Q

What factors increase the risk of stillbirth in women with ICP? (3 points)

A

1) GDM
2) PET
3) Multiple pregnancy

279
Q

What advice should be given to women with moderate or severe ICP?

A

1) Baby is more likely to have meconium-stained liquor
2) Baby is more likely to receive Neonatal care/support
3) Baby is more likely to be born pre-term (spontaneous or iatrogenic)

280
Q

How should women with ICP be monitored?

A

After an initial raised bile acids repeat in 1 week to confirm the diagnosis, then monitor according to gestation and bile acid level - can perform weekly

281
Q

When should vitamin K be prescribed in ICP?

A

If the woman has steatorrhoea (due to malabsorption of fat) then perform a Coagulation screen. If Prothrombin time (PT) is raised then likely vitamin K deficient

Prescribe a water soluble form - 10mg OD

282
Q

Which women with ICP should have continuous CTG in labour?

A

For certain:
1) Severe ICP - bile acids >100

Optional:
2) Concomitant PET, GDM, multiple pregnancy
3) Meconium-stained liquor

283
Q

At what gestation is the highest risk for fetal growth restriction from radiation exposure?

A

3-10 weeks

284
Q

What proportion of the population are carriers of the CF gene mutation?

A

1 in 25

285
Q

What proportion of SGA babies are constitutionally small?

A

50-70%

286
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome accounts for what proportion of recurrent miscarriages?

A

15%

287
Q

If a woman had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy, what is the risk of PIH in this pregnancy?

A

6-12%

288
Q

If a woman had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy, what is the risk of pre-eclampsia in this pregnancy?

A

Overall 16%

289
Q

If a woman had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy and delivered between 28-34 weeks, what is the risk of PIH in this pregnancy?

A

33%

290
Q

If a woman had pre-eclampsia in a previous pregnancy and delivered between 34-37 weeks, what is the risk of PIH in this pregnancy?

A

23%

291
Q

What is the lifetime risk of rupture of hepatic adenomas?

A

17%

Risk of haemorrhage and rupture appears to be highest with larger lesions and in the third trimester of pregnancy

292
Q

What is the lifetime risk of haemorrhage of hepatic adenomas?

A

27%

Risk of haemorrhage and rupture appears to be highest with larger lesions and in the third trimester of pregnancy

293
Q

What is the lifetime risk of malignant transformation with hepatic adenomas?

A

5%

294
Q

What is the prevalence of TPOAb (Thyroid peroxidase Antibody) in women of reproductive age?

A

5-20%

Higher in women with subfertility (10-31%) and recurrent pregnancy loss (17-33%)

295
Q

How do you manage women known to have TPOAb?

A

1) Test TFTs 6 months pre-conception - ensure normal
2) TFTs at 7-9 weeks
3) TFTs every trimester

There is a risk of progression to Subclinical hypothyroidism and Overt hypothyrodism

If TSH is high to give levothyroxine

296
Q

How do you manage women known to have TPOAb?

A

1) Test TFTs 6 months pre-conception - ensure normal
2) TFTs at 7-9 weeks
3) TFTs every trimester

There is a risk of progression to Subclinical hypothyroidism and Overt hypothyrodism

If TSH is high to give levothyroxine

297
Q

What is the incidence of Cerebral Venous Thrombosis (CVT) in pregnancy?

A

1 in 5,000

298
Q

When is the greatest risk of CVT in pregnancy?

A

3rd trimester to 4 weeks postpartum

299
Q

What is the incidence of placental abruption in the UK?

A

1 in 200 pregnancies

300
Q

At what gestation does placental abruption usually occur?

A

25/40
2nd trimester onwards

301
Q

If you had a previous placental abruption what is your risk of having it in this pregnancy?

A

4.4%

302
Q

If you have had 2x previous placental abruptions what is your risk of having it in this pregnancy?

A

19-25%

303
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption? (14 points)

A

1) Previous placental abruption
2) Multiparity
3) Polyhydramnios
4) PROM
5) Chorioamnionitis
6) Non-vertex presentation
7) Low BMI
8) Smoker
9) Drug use (cocaine & amphetamines)
10) IVF pregnancy
11) Advanced maternal age
12) Abdominal trauma
13) PET
14) IUGR

304
Q

If you have a live vaccine how long should you avoid pregnancy for?

A

1 month

305
Q

In diabetic women, what level of HbA1c should they avoid pregnancy?

A

7% or 53 mmol/mol

306
Q

What level of HbA1c can you diagnose GDM?

A

6.5% or 48 mmol/mol

307
Q

What is the risk of recurrent Down’s Syndrome?

A

1%

308
Q

What infection co-exists with Malaria?

A

Hepatitis C

Check Hep C Ab in malaria in pregnancy

309
Q

In Thalassaemia how long should pregnancy be avoided for until iron overload is controlled?

A

12 months

310
Q

You are called to see a patient in A&E who has complained of chest pain. She is currently 19 weeks pregnant and has a history of pneumothorax. She wants to know more about the risks of a chest X-ray to her unborn child. You explain that one chest X-ray is approximately equivalent to the radiation exposure one would experience from natural background radiation in how many days?

A

10 days

311
Q

What is the increased risk of developing essential HTN in a woman who had PET in a pregnancy?

A

3x increase

312
Q

What is the increased risk of developing essential HTN in a woman who had recurrent PET in pregnancy?

A

6x increase

313
Q

According to the MBRRACE Report 2022 what are the leading direct causes of maternal death?

A

1) VTE
2) Suicide
3) Sepsis
4) Haemorrhage

314
Q

According to the MBRRACE Report 2022 what are the leading indirect causes of maternal death?

A

1) Cardiac
2) COVID-19
3) Neurological

315
Q

According to the MBRRACE Report 2022 what are the leading causes of maternal death from 6 weeks - 1 year postnatal?

A

1) Drug & Alcohol - 20%
2) Suicide - 18%
3) Coincidental malignancies - 18%

Psychiatric problems - 38%

316
Q

What are the overall highest causes of maternal death in the UK, based on the MBRRACE Report 2022?

A

1) Cardiac
2) COVID
3) VTE

317
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal cardiac arrest?

A

Anaesthetic - 25%

318
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal collapse?

A

Haemorrhage

319
Q

What is the risk of congenital heart disease if mother has SLE with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies?

A

2-3%

320
Q

What is the risk of congenital heart disease if mother has SLE with anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies and her previous baby had it?

A

16%

321
Q

When should women with SLE and anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies have fetal echos?

A

Foetal echo at 18-20/40
AND
28/40

322
Q

What is the treatment of SLE in pregnancy?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

323
Q

Which are the safest AEDs in pregnancy?

A

1) Lamotrigine - safest
2) Carbamazepine
3) Levetiracetam (Keppra)

324
Q

What effect does lamotrigine have on the fetus?

A

SGA

325
Q

What effects does lamotrigine have on the fetus?

A

SGA
Cardiac defects

326
Q

How do you manage a Hyponatraemia with a Na+ of 125-130?

A

Fluid restrict to 80ml/hr
Repeat U&Es in 4 hours

327
Q

How do you manage a Hyponatraemia with a Na+ of <125?

A

Fluid restrict to 30ml/hr
Repeat U&Es in 2 hours

328
Q

What size would you expect the fetal kidney to be at >20/40?

A

<7mm

If larger than this then give antibiotics at birth and perform a US

329
Q

What size would you expect the fetal kidney to be at >28/40?

A

<10mm

If larger than this then give antibiotics at birth and perform a US

330
Q

What dose of adrenaline do you give in CPR?

A

Adrenaline 1 in 10,000 i.v.
50 micrograms
0.5ml

331
Q

What dose of adrenaline do you give in anaphylaxis?

A

Adrenaline 1 in 1,000 IM
500 micrograms
0.5ml

332
Q

Which cART drug in pregnancy needs to be used with caution?

A

Dolutegravir
Stop <8/40 as it can cause neural tube defects
Continue >8/40 with high dose folic acid 5mg OD

333
Q

What effect does NSAIDs have on the fetus?

A

1) Oligohydramnios
2) Premature closure of the ductus arteriosus

Give Indomethacin to close a patent ductus arteriosus

334
Q

According to the MBRRACE 2022 report, what is the increased risk of stillbirth for black women?

A

2x higher

335
Q

According to the MBRRACE 2022 report, what is the increased mortality rate for black women?

A

3.7x higher

336
Q

According to the MBRRACE 2022 report, what is the increased mortality rate for women who live in deprived areas?

A

2.5x higher

337
Q

According to the MBRRACE 2022 report, what is the increased mortality rate for asian women?

A

1.8x higher

338
Q

According to the MBRRACE 2022 report, what is the increased mortality rate for mixed women?

A

1.3x higher

339
Q

What are the features of Dengue fever?

A

Haemorrhagic fever - nosebleeds

Breakbone fever - bad myalgia

340
Q

What is the increased risk of V/Q to the fetus?

A

Increased risk of childhood cancers
10x increased radiation risk to fetus

341
Q

What is the risk of CTPA compared to V/Q scan for women with suspected PE?

A

13% increased risk of breast cancer vs V/Q
20-100x increased radiation to mother
CTPA is more sensitive and specific

342
Q

What is the effect of SSRIs on the baby?

A

Persistent pulmonary HTN
Particularly Fluoxetine

343
Q

What is the treatment of measles in pregnancy?

A

Measles causes a barking cough

Give HNIG (Human Immunoglobulin) to mother within 6 days of measles exposure
Can repeat it 3/52 after if a repeat exposure occurs

Give HNIG to babies born to mothers 6 days before or 6 days after the development of a measles rash
Can give up to 8 months
>8 months - give MMR vaccine

344
Q

What is the treatment of COVID in pregnancy?

A

Hospital treatment:

1) Remdesivir - anti-viral. If at home or in hospital
2) Steroids - prednisolone 40mg OD or methylprednisolone 32mg OD or i.v. hydrocortisone 80mg BD for 10 days or until discharge
3) Clexane - 10 days
4) Tocilizumab - if hypoxic. If: SpO2 <92%, CRP >75 or requiring oxygen

COVID vaccine gives some immunity to baby

345
Q

What is the most common gynaecological malignancy diagnosed during pregnancy?

A

Cervical cancer

346
Q

What is the incidence of cervical cancer in pregnancy?

A

0.1-12 in 10,000 pregnancies

347
Q

What is the recommended steroid course for an acute exacerbation of asthma in pregnancy?

A

Prednisolone 40-50mg OD for 5 days

348
Q

When do you need to cover with steroids during labour?

A

Any woman who has had Prednisolone 5-20mg OD for ≥3 weeks (or equivalent)

They require in labour:

i.v. Hydrocortisone 50-100mg TDS for 24 hours

349
Q

What are the sick day rules for pregnant women with adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • Always wear a medical alert bracelet/necklase
  • Double doses of HC + FC during fever or illness requiring bed rest
  • Have I.M. HC to give in cases of gastroenteritis or fasting

1) Delivery day - i.v. or p.o. Hydrocortisone 200mg
Stop Fludrocortisone

2) D1 PN - i.v. or p.o. Hydrocortisone 100mg

3) D2 PN - i.v. or p.o. Hydrocortisone 50mg

4) Day of discharge - p.o. Hydrocortisone 30-35mg
Re-start Fludrocortisone

5) FU in endocrine clinic - Decrease Hydrocortisone down to pre-pregnancy levels
Encourage breastfeeding