Module 8: Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

3 Major Safety Initiatives Addressed in Anesthesia

A

LAST

Greater used of neuraxial for cesareans

Protocols and devices to improve general anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

communication failures/reasons for malpractice claims

A

Lack of informed consent
Poor patient rapport
Language barriers
Inadequate discharge instructions (PDPH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

patients have the right to be told…

A

what to expect and to determine what will be done with their bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Patient can make an informed consent only after (3)

A

Discussion about diagnosis and indications for procedure
Risks, benefits and alternatives
Opportunity to ask questions/answers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

special considerations for decision making in OB anesthesia (5)

A

Patient who is in pain
Patient who has received sedatives
Patient with a birth plan
Emergency procedures
Cultural considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 most common injuries in obstetric anesthesia claims in ASA Closed-Claims database

A

Maternal nerve injury (19%) and neonatal brain damage (16%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3rd and 4th most common injuries in OB anesthesia claims

A

maternal death (15%) and headaches (11%)

1) Maternal nerve injury (19%)
2) neonatal brain damage (16%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

More maternal nerve damage claims with ____________ (29%) than ____________ delivery (13%)

A

More maternal nerve damage claims with vaginal (29%) than cesarean delivery (13%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neonatal brain damage is higher in ____________ delivery

A

cesarean 21% vs vaginal 13%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Block-related events in Obstetric Claims (4)

A

High spinal/epidural (6%)
Dural puncture headache (6%)
Inadequate analgesia (5%)
Retained catheter (4%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

more than 1/2 of maternal hemorrhage is associated with

A

abnormal placentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the primary cause of sentinel events?

A

Poor communication among health care workers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

risk factors for pulmonary aspiration (7)

A

Full stomach
pregnancy
bowel obstruction
GERD
Obesity
GI disorders
Neurologic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

difficult or failed intubation in pregnancy

A

up to x11 greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most cases of pulmonary aspiration occur

A

during elective procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what promotes aspiration? (3)

A
  • Increased gastric pressure
  • decreased LES tone
  • blunted protective airway reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Functions as an anti-reflux barrier

A

lower esophageal sphincter

18
Q

LES pressure

A

20 cm H20

19
Q

what is prevented by the LES

A

Passive reflux and regurgitation of gastric contents is prevented by LES

20
Q

ASA and ACOG NPO recommendations allow for

A

clear liquids in uncomplicated labor but avoidance of solid food

21
Q

Morbidity and mortality of aspiration depends on (3)

A

Chemical nature of the aspirate
Physical nature of the aspirate
Volume of the aspirate

22
Q

Aspirates with a pH < 2.5 cause

A

a granulocytic reaction that continues beyond the acute phase

23
Q

aspiration pneumonitis or Mendelson’s syndrome

A

acidity of gastric contents results in chemical burn to tracheobronchial tree and alveoli

24
Q

chemical pneumonitis usually occurs when (2)

A

pH <2.5 and volume greater than 25 ml (0.4 ml/kg)

25
Q

most common site of aspiration

A

R. Lower Lobe

26
Q

Large particle aspiration causes

A

atelectasis from obstructed large airways

27
Q

chemical pneumonitis is a parenchymal reaction with injury to

A

alveolar epithelium, edema

28
Q

Aspiration of nonparticulate, neutral liquid leads to

A

minimal damage

29
Q

chemical pneumonitis onset

A

Acute onset or abrupt development of symptoms within minutes (bronchospasm, decreases in PaO2 with increased shunting)

30
Q

potential signs and symptoms of pneumonitis

A

will breath hold then have tachypnea, tachycardia, slight respiratory acidosis

31
Q

significant aspiration S&S

A

hypoxia caused by greater shunting and usually bronchospasm

32
Q

general pneumonitis S&S

A
  • Bronchial obstruction
  • pulmonary edema
  • reduced compliance
  • shunting → hypoxemia
  • VQ mismatch
33
Q

bronchospasm algorithm in intubated patient

A
34
Q

Abnormal chest xray can be seen when with pneumonitis?

A

12-24 hrs after clinical signs

35
Q

Berlin definition of ARDS (4)

A

Clinical: within 1 week of known clinical insult

Chest imaging: bilateral opacities not explained by effusions

Biochemical: PaO2/FIO2 ratio less than 300 with CPAP or PEEP > 5 cm H2O

Origin of pulmonary edema: not explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload

36
Q

initial management of aspiration pneumonitis

A
  1. T-berg
  2. Suction
  3. ETT
  4. soft suction primary bronchi
  5. Fiberoptic bronch (eval extent & prescence of solids)
  6. remove liquid contents
  7. Rigid bronch if large particles are causing obstruction

LACK of evidence: corticosteroids, routine prophylactic abx, lung lavage w/ saline & bicarb

37
Q

treatment of hypoxia associated with aspiration

A

CPAP
PEEP
Mechanical ventilation
Conservative fluid strategy

38
Q

CPAP in treatment of hypoxia

A

used in patients breathing spontaneously

39
Q

function of PEEP (with mechanical ventilation in patients with hypoxia)

A
  • restores FRC
  • reduces pulmonary shunting
  • helps reverse hypoxemia
40
Q

mechanical ventilation in patients with hypoxia

A

restores FRC, reduces pulmonary shunting, and helps reverse hypoxemia

41
Q

Mechanical Ventilation
(key points in managing ARDS)

A
  • Limit plateau pressure to 30 cm H20
  • Use lowest effective Vt (6 ml/kg)
  • PEEP (titrated) in moderate to severe ARDS
  • higher PEEP in moderate-severe ARDS