Module 8 Ch. 16-20 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation, preparation, contemplation, action, maintenance
b. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, continuation
c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
d. Precontemplation, contemplation, action, continuance, maintenance

A

c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

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2
Q
Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program?
Select one:
a. Registered dietician
b. Gym manager
c. Group exercise instructor 
d. Personal trainer
A

a. Registered dietician

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3
Q
Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful?
Select one:
a. Provided uniforms
b. Schedule flexibility 
c. Updated equipment is provided
d. Robust group fitness schedules
A

c. Updated equipment is provided

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4
Q
Louis drives interest in his club through social media channels. Which of the following four Ps of the marketing mix is Louis using?
Select one:
a. Planning
b. Planning
c. Promotion 
d. Place
A

c. Promotion

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5
Q
Which of the four P's of the marketing mix involves communication strategies such as advertising, sales, and social media?
Select one:
a. Placement
b. Promotion 
c. Planning
d. Price
A

b. Promotion

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6
Q

Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer?
Select one:
a. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client. Correct
b. Perform diagnostic testing for a slow metabolism.
c. Massage a client’s sore muscles.
d. Design a nutrition plan for a client.

A

a. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.

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7
Q
Layla is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. What should be avoided when performing SMR with Layla?
Select one:
a. Seated positions
b. Trigger points
c. Standing positions
d. Prone or supine positions
A

d. Prone or supine positions

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8
Q

Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
Select one:
a. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
b. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
c. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
d. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.

A

b. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model

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9
Q

How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?
Select one:
a. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient.
b. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
c. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships.
d. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.

A

b. Express ideas well through verbal communication.

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10
Q

Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
Select one:
a. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise.
b. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.
c. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements.
d. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances.

A

b. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.

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11
Q

Mark has a client who is switching to a vegan diet and would like some advice on meal planning. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario?
Select one:
a. Design a meal plan for the client.
b. Send the client to Mark’s vegan friend for guidance.
c. Enroll the client in a group-oriented nutrition program.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.

A

d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.

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12
Q
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Davies test
b. Single-leg squat 
c. Bench press
d. Shark skill test
A

b. Single-leg squat

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13
Q
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client's thoughts and attitudes?
Select one:
a. Self-monitoring
b. Cognitive strategies
c. Goal setting
d. Behavioral strategies
A

b. Cognitive strategies

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14
Q

Which of the following classifies a product as a supplement?
Select one:
a. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form
b. Regulated by the FDA
c. Includes drugs and biologics
d. Represented as a conventional food

A

a. Non-drug substance in a pill or powder form

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15
Q

Which of the following is true about clients who exercise in a group exercise setting?
Select one:
a. They are seeking exclusivity.
b. They enjoy the social environment when working out.
c. They like working out alone.
d. They are willing to spend large amounts of money.

A

b. They enjoy the social environment when working out.

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16
Q
Polysaccharides are often called complex carbohydrates and they primarily include which of the following?
Select one:
a. Starch and fiber 
b. Cane sugar and milk sugar
c. Brown sugar and fruit sugar
d. Kestose and trehalose
A

a. Starch and fiber

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17
Q

Which of the following is a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. “Now that I have a gym membership, I will lose 10 pounds by exercising every day.”
b. “I will reduce my body weight by exercising as much as I can five days per week and eating a reduced-calorie diet.”
c. “I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”
d. “I will lose 20 pounds by reducing my calories to 1,200 per day and hiring a personal trainer.”

A

c. “I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”

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18
Q
What type of support is expressed through encouragement, caring, empathy, and concern?
Select one:
a. Emotional support
b. Informational support
c. Companionship support
d. Instrumental support
A

a. Emotional support

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19
Q

What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?
Select one:
a. They may be able to control their own schedule.
b. They are exempt from purchasing liability insurance.
c. They have a schedule set by a gym.
d. They receive employment benefits.

A

a. They may be able to control their own schedule.

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20
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of fitness professionals as independent contractors?
Select one:
a. They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.
b. They do not dictate marketing and business practices.
c. They do not have control over their schedule.
d. They are responsible for overhead costs for building or ordinances.

A

a. They are not employed by the club and therefore receive no benefits.

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21
Q
What kind of business relies on members as its base revenue generator?
Select one:
a. Outdoor trainers
b. Independent contractors
c. Commercial facilities
d. In-home personal trainers
A

c. Commercial facilities

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22
Q

Sam has joined a gym and has set himself a goal of losing 60 pounds in one year. After three months he has only lost three pounds. Which of the following actions should Sam take?
Select one:
a. Take a break for six months and then resume the program.
b. Adjust his goal to be more realistic.
c. Change his long-term goal from 60 pounds to 70 pounds.
d. Enroll in an additional program with a different trainer.

A

b. Adjust his goal to be more realistic

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23
Q

After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Obtaining training for marketing services
b. A way to create value for potential clients
c. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
d. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices

A

d. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices

24
Q
A client is taking prescription beta blockers for hypertension. Which of the following exercises is safe for him to perform?
Select one:
a. Standing cobra
b. Knee-up
c. Reverse crunch
d. Floor bridge
A

a. Standing cobra

25
Q
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols?
Select one:
a. Nucleic acids
b. Minerals
c. Polysaccharides
d. Lipids
A

d. Lipids

26
Q
The fitness professional asks the client, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
Select one:
a. Open-ended
b. Dichotomous
c. Directive
d. Contingency
A

a. Open-ended

27
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?
Select one:
a. “Did you play sports in high school?”
b. “Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?”
c. “If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?”
d. “What are your top three fitness goals?”

A

d. “What are your top three fitness goals?”

28
Q
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
Select one:
a. Action stage
b. Remodeling
c. Diffusion
d. Behavioral reactants
A

d. Behavioral reactants

29
Q

Which of the following questions is open-ended?
Select one:
a. “Do you enjoy group classes?”
b. “What is your fitness goal?”
c. “Are you currently exercising?”
d. “Have you ever worked with a personal trainer?”

A

b. “What is your fitness goal?”

30
Q
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
Select one:
a. Strength
b. Muscle hypertrophy
c. Postural control
d. Speed
A

c. Postural control

31
Q
A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
Select one:
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Contemplation
A

d. Contemplation

32
Q

Casey is opening up his own personal training facility. What is one of the advantages he has?
Select one:
a. He does not have to worry about local ordinances.
b. He is not responsible for the overhead costs.
c. He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.
d. Management of staff is not one of his necessary responsibilities.

A

c. He has the opportunity to appeal to a personalized clientele.

33
Q

Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of change model?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, continuation
b. Precontemplation, contemplation, action, continuance, maintenance
c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
d. Precontemplation, preparation, contemplation, action, maintenance

A

c. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

34
Q

According to a recommendation by the International Health, Racquet and Sportsclub Association (IHRSA), certifying agencies should receive accreditation from which of the following organizations?
Select one:
a. National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB)
b. National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT)
c. National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA)
d. National Association for Sports Medicine (NASM)

A

c. National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA)

35
Q
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?
Select one:
a. In the evening
b. In the morning
c. Spaced throughout the day
d. With your first meal
A

c. Spaced throughout the day

36
Q

What is the purpose of asking an open-ended question during a client’s initial session?
Select one:
a. Get an idea of a client’s muscular imbalances.
b. Identify a client’s resting heart rate and VO2 max.
c. Build a collaborative relationship with a client.
d. Get a clear “yes” or “no” answer.

A

c. Build a collaborative relationship with a client.

37
Q

Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
Select one:
a. “Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.”
b. I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.”
c. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.”
d. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”

A

d. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”

38
Q

A personal trainer is working with a client who reports not having enough time to exercise. Which of the following is the most effective technique to help the client prioritize his time, improving exercise adherence?
Select one:
a. Have the client produce internal experiences to support or enhance exercise participation.
b. Have the client keep a daily exercise log for six months.
c. Have the client create a list of positive thoughts, such as, “I can do it.”
d. Have the client keep a journal that keeps track of daily activities for three days.

A

d. Have the client keep a journal that keeps track of daily activities for three days.

39
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
Select one:
a. Shark skill test
b. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
c. Davies test
d. Pushing test

A

d. Pushing test

40
Q
What are influences that involves cohesion in an exercise setting?
Select one:
a. Family
b. Exercise leader
c. Parental
d. Exercise group
A

d. Exercise group

41
Q
Which of the following are held together by peptide bonds to make up protein?
Select one:
a. Triglycerides
b. Glycogen molecules
c. Simple carbs
d. Amino acids
A

d. Amino acids

42
Q
How many essential amino acids are there?
Select one:
a. 6
b. 10
c. 8
d. 5
A

c. 8

43
Q
Approximately how many amino acids does the body use to build its many protein structures?
Select one:
a. 20
b. 8
c. 15
d. 30
A

a. 20

44
Q

Protein strands are denatured and cleaved into peptide chains in which of the following?

a. The mouth
b. The large intestine
c. The liver
d. The stomach

A

d. The stomach

45
Q
Carbohydrates can be classified as simple (sugars), complex (starches) and which of the following?
Select one:
a. phospholipid
b. fiber 
c. amino acids 
d. saturdated
A

b. Fiber

46
Q
Which term describes simple single sugar unit? 
Select one:
a. Nutrosaccharide
b. Disaccharide
c. Monosaccharide
d. Polysaccharide
A

c. Monosaccharide

47
Q
Which term refers to a part of a plant that cannot be digested by gut enzymes?
Select one:
a. Phytochemicals
b. Grains
c. Starch
d. Fiber
A

d. Fiber

48
Q
Foods lower on the glycemic index tend to be good sources of which of the following?
Select one:
a.  Protein
b. Complex Carbs
c. Simple Carbs
d. Fat
A

b. Complex Carbs

49
Q
Which are a group of compounds that include triglycerides, phospholipids and sterols?
Select one:
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Fiber
d. Carbs
A

a. Lipids

50
Q
Which term refers to the type of fatty acid that is present when all bonds on the chain are occupied by hydrogen atoms? 
Select one:
a. saturated
b. complete
c. polyunsaturated
d. unsaturated
A

a. saturated

51
Q

Why are lipids highly important?
Select one:
a. Provide cellular membrane structure and function
b. Protein synthesis of muscular tissue
c. Transport water-soluble vitamins and minerals
d. Cleave ATP molecules into ADP

A

a. Provide cellular membrane structure and function

52
Q
Olive oil, Canola oil, Avocado and almonds are good sources of what?
Select one:
a. Polyunsaturated fats
b. Monounsaturated fats
c. Saturated fats 
d. Trans fats
A

b. Monounsaturated fats

53
Q
What is the AMDR (acceptable macronutrient distribution range) for lipids (fats)?  
Select one:
a. 10-20%
b. 15-25%
c. 50-60%
d. 20-35%
A

d. 20-35%

54
Q
What is the AMDR (acceptable macronutrient distribution range) for protein?  
Select one:
a. 10-35%
b. 15-25%
c. 50-60%
d. 45-65%
A

a. 10-35%

55
Q
What is the AMDR (acceptable macronutrient distribution range) for Carbohydrates?  
Select one:
a. 10-20%
b. 15-25%
c. 50-60%
d. 45-65%
A

d. 45-65%

56
Q
On what should exercise for obese clients primarily focus on? 
Select one:
a. Maximum strength 
b. Hypertrophy
c. Power development
d. Energy Expenditure
A

d. Energy expenditure