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Phlebotomy Lecture Finals > MODULE 8 > Flashcards

MODULE 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Determines Blood Type and Rh factor

A

Blood Bank: Blood Type and Screen

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2
Q

Checks the compatibility between the donor’s and the recipient’s blood

A

Blood Bank: Cross-Match Test

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3
Q

Determines the presence of infection, identifies the type or organism involved, and measures the extent of infection

A

Blood culture

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4
Q

Evaluates the blood clotting function

A

Coagulation Test

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5
Q

Screens for diabetes and other metabolic disorders

A

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

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6
Q

Diagnoses problems in carbohydrate metabolism and checks the ability to metabolize glucose through the tolerance level

A

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

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7
Q

Determines the lack of mucosal lactase which is responsible for conversion of lactose into glucose

A

Lactose Tolerance Test

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8
Q

Verifies the probability that the patient fathered a particular child

A

Paternity/Parentage Testing

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9
Q

Tests the drug levels at specific intervals to establish proper drug dosage and avoid toxicity

A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

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10
Q

Treats polycythemia and hemochromatosis

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

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11
Q

Checks the presence of toxins in the blood, hair, urine, and other substances

A

Toxicology Test

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12
Q

Checks the presence of aluminum, arsenic, copper, lead, iron, and zinc

A

Trace Elements

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13
Q

Highest priority where specimens must be collected immediately and delivered to the laboratory immediately

A

STAT Sample

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14
Q

Average time for STAT Sample to complete

A

45 minutes to 1 hour

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15
Q

Tests that exhibit a diurnal effect, where values in the patient vary throughout the day, are serum iron, corticosteroids, and other hormones.

A

Timed Sample

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16
Q

Second or third priority

A

ASAP sample

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17
Q

Average time for ASAP Sample to be collected

A

2 to 4 hours

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18
Q

Collected in a reasonable time after being ordered but there is no urgency in getting the samples collected

A

Routine Sample

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19
Q

Blood Bank specimen is collected in what type of tube?

A

Lavender or Pink top

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20
Q

If there is no available lavender or pink EDTA for blood bank, what is the alternative tube to be used?

A

Red topped

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21
Q

What are the rejected specimen/s for blood bank?

A
  • not labeled
    -grossly hemolyzed
    -contain IV fluid
  • collected longer than 72 hours before testing
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22
Q

test performed using the patient’s type and screen results to help select a donor unit of blood.

A

Cross match

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23
Q

due to agglutination (clumping) and lysis (rupturing) of RBCs within a patient’s circulatory system.

A

Incompatibility

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24
Q

True or false:

Donor Red Cells and Patient Plasma have no reaction is called compatible

A

True

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25
Q

True or false:
Donor red cells and patients plasma have antigen-antibody reaction is compatible

A

False

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26
Q

True or False
Donor red cells and patient plasma have antigen-antibody reaction is incompatible

A

True

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27
Q

What type: Agglutination in Anti-A

A

Type A

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28
Q

What type: Agglutination in Anti-B

A

Type B

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29
Q

What type: Agglutination in Anti-A and Anti-B

A

Type AB

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30
Q

What type: Agglutination in Anti-D

A

Positive

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31
Q

What type: No Agglutination in Anti-D

A

Negative

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32
Q

What type: No Agglutination

A

Type O

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33
Q

Blood group reagent for Anti-A

A

Blue

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34
Q

Blood group reagent Anti-B

A

Yellow

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35
Q

Blood group reagent for Anti-D

A

White

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36
Q

Does Blood Group O have Antigen?

A

No

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37
Q

On what vein donor units are normally collected?

A

Large antecubital vein

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38
Q

What additives are used for blood bags of blood donations?

A

Anticoagulant and CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose)or CPDA1(CPD plus Adenine)

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39
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Must be between 17-66 years old according to Philippine Red Cross

A

False. Must be 17-65 years old

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40
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Between ages 17-66years old

A
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41
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Have not donated for the past 8 weeks

A

True

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42
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Have not donated for the past 6 weeks

A

False

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43
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Hemoglobin for females 12.5g/dL

A

True

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44
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Hemoglobin for Males- 13g/dL

A

False

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45
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
No less then 37% hematocrit

A

False

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46
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
No less than 38% for hematocrit

A

True

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47
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Physical exam and medical history is not needed

A

False

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48
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Weight for at least 50kg or 100lb

A

False

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49
Q

True or false:
Blood donor eligibility
Weight for at least 110lb or 50kg

50
Q

Hemoglobin of Females to be eligible for blood donation

51
Q

Hemoglobin of Males to be eligible for blood donation

52
Q

The tracing and testing of blood donors and recipients when a blood product has been determined to be potentially contaminated with a bloodborne pathogen.

A

Lookback Program

53
Q

This can only occur when the blood service is made aware of the possibility of a transfusion-related infection.

A

Lookback Program

54
Q

Process by which a person donates blood for his or her own use. This is done preoperatively for elective surgeries when it is anticipated that a transfusion may be needed.

A

Autologous Donation

55
Q

True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
Hemoglobin of at least 11 g/dL or Hematocrit equal to or greater than 33%

56
Q

True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
Minimum time between donation and surgery must be more than 48hours

A

False. Must be 72 hours

57
Q

True or false:
Eligibility of autologous donation
If blood is not used during surgery, it must be stored back for the next use

A

False. Must be discarded because rules for autologous donation is less strict and does not meet safety standards

58
Q

Medical procedure designed to recover blood lost during surgery to reinfuse it back into the patient

A

Cell Salvaging

59
Q

A form of autologous blood transfusion

A

Cell Salvaging

60
Q

Test that is recommended for cell salvaging prior to reinfusion

A

Residual-free hemoglobin

61
Q

High level of hemoglobin indicates what in cell salvaging?

A

Too many RBC were destroyed during salvage process

62
Q

What will happen if high level of hemoglobin and blood is reinfused?

A

Can result to renal dysfunction

63
Q

Useful in assessing the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy once treatment is initiated.

A

Blood culture

64
Q

Identify the type of organism responsible and the antibiotic to which it is most susceptible.

A

Blood cultures

65
Q

if microorganisms multiply faster than the body can remove them

A

Blood infection

66
Q

Bacteria in the blood

A

Bacteremia

67
Q

microorganisms or their toxins in the blood

A

Septicemia

68
Q

An overwhelming, unregulated response by the body to the blood infection that triggers inflammatory responses throughout the body that can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death

69
Q

A life-threatening condition caused by bacteremia or septicemia.

70
Q

Leading cause of death from infection

71
Q

What are the symptoms for septicemia?

A

Fever
Chill
Malaise (feeling of discomfort or illness)
Low blood pressure
Changes in mental status

72
Q

persistent fever with no obvious cause, has long been recognized as an indication of septicemia

A

Fever of unknown origin (FUO)

73
Q

Most bacteremia is caused by?

A

Aerobic and anaerobic bacteria

74
Q

Effective antiseptic for blood culture

A

Tincture of iodine
Chlorohexidine gluconate
Povidine iodine
70% ethyl alcohol

75
Q

Which is more effective to use?
Chlorohexidine or povidone-iodine

A

Chlorohexidine

76
Q

What are the alternative antiseptics for blood culture?

A

Chlorhexidine gluconate in isopropyl alcohol
70% isopropyl alone

77
Q

aerobic bottle is filled first because air in the tubing will be drawn into it before the blood.

A

Direct inoculation

78
Q

anaerobic bottle is filled first and the aerobic bottle is filled last

A

Syringe Inoculation

79
Q

What type of tube is used for Intermediate Collection tube?

A

Yellow-top Sodium Polyanethol Sulfonate (SPS)

80
Q

Why SPS is more recommended to used than anticoagulants for intermediate collection tube?

A

SPS reduces the action of a protein called complement that destroys bacteria. It slows down the ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes and reduces the activity of certain antibiotics.

81
Q

Inoculation that uses butterfly and specially designed holder

A

Direct Inoculation

82
Q

What must take note for syringe inoculation by avoiding the specimen to be hemolyzed

A

Syringe Inoculation

83
Q

What does CTAD stands for?

A

Citrate, Theophylline, Adenosine, and Dipyridamole

84
Q

What does special Coagulation tests used?

A

Anti-factor Xa

85
Q

used to inhibit thrombocyte activation between collection of the specimen and testing in coagulation specimens

86
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Insulin dependence

A

Type 1 diabetes

87
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Juvenile diabetes

A

Type 1 diabetes

88
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Beta-cell destruction

A

Type 1 diabetes

89
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Autoantibodies

A

Type 1 diabetes

90
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Have high glucose values accompanied by high insulin levels

A

Type 2 diabetes

91
Q

Type of Diabetes:
Patients have fasting plasma glucose levels within normal limits but are unable to metabolize ingested glucose properly

A

Type 2 diabetes

92
Q

Type of diabetes:
when a patient’s blood glucose is higher than normal but not high enough to be classified as diabetes

A

Prediabetes

93
Q

complicated disease that may cause more complications for the patient than just an increased blood glucose level

A

Diabetes mellitus

94
Q

signal that a person might have diabetes mellitus

A

Hyperglycemia

95
Q

Diabetes mellitus can develop:

A

Blindness (retinopathy)
Kidney damage (nephropathy)
Heart disease
Circulatory disease

96
Q

Fasting hours for 2hour Postprandial Glucose Test

A

10-12 hours

97
Q

Used to monitor insulin therapy

A

2 Hour Postprandial Glucose Test

98
Q

Fasting hours for fasting blood glucose

A

8-10 hours

99
Q

Normal fasting glucose:

A

70-99mg/dL (3.9 to 5.5 mmol/L)

100
Q

Impaired fasting glucose

A

100-120mg/dL (5.9 to 6.9 mmol/L)

101
Q

Provisional fasting glucose?

A

> or equal to 126 mg/dL (7.0 and higher mmol/L)

102
Q

Normal glucose tolerance?

A

< or equal to 140mg/dL (< or equal to 7.8mmol/L)

103
Q

Impaired glucose tolerance

A

140-199mg/dL (7.9-11.1 mmol/L)

104
Q

Provisional Glucose Tolerance

A

> or equal 200 mg/dL (> or equal to 11.1 mmol/L)

105
Q

GTT chronological procedure

A

FBS
Glucose Drink infested for 5 minutes
Start time for 2 hours
Collect blood

106
Q

Fasting plasma glucose for gestational screen

A

> or equal to 92mg/dL (5.1 mmol/L)

107
Q

One-hour plasma glucose gestational screen

A

> or equal to 180mg/dL (10mmol/L)

108
Q

Two-hour plasma glucose gestational screen

A

> or equal to 153mg/dL (8.5 mmol/L)

109
Q

Early stool passed by a newborn soon after birth before the baby starts to feed and digest milk or formula

110
Q

An area of the skin that is temporarily raised, typically reddened, usually accompanied by itching

111
Q

Elevated overgrowth of scar tissue at a wound or incision site

112
Q

Thickening and hardening of soft tissues of the body, specifically the skin

A

Induration

113
Q

Concentration of medication that is effective and not toxic in patient management

A

Therapeutic range

114
Q

To evaluate and manage medication therapy effectively and safely

A

Therapeutic drug monitoring

115
Q

What is NPO?

A

nulla per os

116
Q

Importance of fasting sample

A

To ensure accurate test results

117
Q

What are the tests that exhibits diurnal effects?

A

Serum iron
Corticosteroids
Other hormones

118
Q

Therapeutic drug monitoring ensure the given dosage of a drug produces _______ and ________

A

Maximal therapeutic benefit

Minimal toxic side effects

119
Q

Cortisol test is drawn ____ hours apart

120
Q

What are the variables that influence the effectiveness of the drug?

A
  1. Drug half-life
    2, concentration of medication
  2. Form of drug administration
  3. Age of patient
  4. Weight of the patient
  5. Liver & kidney function
  6. Disease state
  7. Interacting drug therapy
  8. Patient’s metabolism

Phlebotomy Lecture Finals (8 decks)

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