MODULE 7 DESIGNING OPTIMAL RETIREMENT INCOME STREAMS Flashcards

1
Q

SOME QUALIFIED PLANS PROVIDE FOR IN-SERVICE WITHDRAWALS BY PLAN PARTICIPANTS.

WHICH TYPE OF QUALIFIED PLANS MAY PERMIT WITHDRAWALS BEFORE THE PARTICIPANT HAS REACHED AGE 62?

A

(1) profit sharing plans/stock bonus
(2) thrift/savings plans

may include provisions for in-service w/d by plan participants who are younger than age 62

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2
Q

WHICH PLANS TYPICALLY INCLUDE PROVISIONS FOR W/D’S BY PLAN PARTICIPANTS WHO ELECT TO CONTINUE WORKING PAST THE PLAN’S NORMAL RETIREMENT AGE?

A

defined contribution plans typically allow w/d’s by participants who continue to work past the plan’s normal retirement age. theoretically, defined benefit plans can do the same, but the record-keeping complexity resulting from these w/d’s discourages most from doing so.

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3
Q

WHICH PLANS TYPICALLY PROVIDE FOR HARDSHIP W/D’S? DESCRIBE CIRCUMSTANCES THAT JUSTIFY SUCH W/D’S.

A

generally available for the following 3 plans:

(1) TSA
(2) profit sharing plans
(3) 401(k) plans

participant must demonstrate an IMMEDIATE AND HEAVY FINANCIAL NEED and a LACK OF REASONABLY AVAILABLE RESOURCES

may also be allowed for:

(1) medical expenses
(2) tuition payments
(3) purchase of a primary residence
(4) payments to prevent eviction from one’s home

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4
Q

QUALIFIED PLANS & TSA’S MAY PERMIT PARTICIPANTS TO BORROW FROM THEIR ACCRUED BENEFITS.

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM REPAYMENT PERIOD FOR SUCH LOANS?

A

no more than 5 years, except in the case of loans used to acquire a principal residence.

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5
Q

QUALIFIED PLANS & TSA’S MAY PERMIT PARTICIPANTS TO BORROW FROM THEIR ACCRUED BENEFITS.

WHAT HAPPENS IF LOANS ARE NOT REPAID W/IN THE ALLOWED PERIOD?

A

loans that are not repaid w/in the specified period are treated as taxable distributions (& may come w/ a penalty)

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6
Q

WHAT ARE TWO ALTERNATIVE PAYMENT OPTIONS GENERALLY AVAILABLE TO RETIRED AND TERMINATED PARTICIPANTS IN QUALIFIED RETIREMENT PLANS?

A

two forms of benefit payment generally offered to plan participants are:

(1) a lump sum distribution of the entire benefit, or
(2) a series of periodic payments (an annuity or series of installments)

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7
Q

WHAT IS THE NEGATIVE ASPECT OF TAKING A LUMP SUM DISTRIBUTION?

A

the entire sum must be recognized as taxable income in the year in which it is received.

the magnitude of the tax liability can be mitigated to some degree through the use of forward averaging

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8
Q

EXPLAIN THE TAX BENEFIT OF ROLLING OVER A LUMP SUM DISTRIBUTION. WHAT IS THE NEGATIVE TAX ASPECT OF THIS OPTION?

A

if properly executed, it defers taxation of the lump sum until such time as it is distributed from the IRA or other retirement plan into which it was rolled.

the negative aspect (except in the case of a conduit IRA) is that it may eliminate the opportunity for forward averaging

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9
Q

FORWARD AVERAGING

A

a method of calculating taxes on a lump sum distribution that may result in a lower rate than would otherwise apply.

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10
Q

EXPLAIN AN INDIRECT ROLLOVER.

A

an indirect IRA rollover is one in which the plan participant takes receipt of the retirement plan distribution, and within 60 days, places it into an IRA or other retirement plan.

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11
Q

DESCRIBE AN IMPORTANT NEGATIVE ASPECT OF THIS INDIRECT APPROACH TO HANDLING A LUMP SUM DISTRIBUTION

A

the indirect IRA fulfills the purpose of the rollover; however, the IRC requires the plan administrator to withhold 20% of the initial qualified plan or TSA distribution for tax purposes

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12
Q

HOW CAN THE NEGATIVE ASPECT OF THE INDIRECT ROLLOVER BE AVOIDED?

A

by using a DIRECT rollover. in this type of rollover, no funds are withheld for taxes.

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13
Q

ID 7 EXCEPTIONS STATED IN THE IRC TO THE TAX PENALTY ASSESSED AGAINST DISTRIBUTIONS TAKEN BEFORE 59 & 1/2

A

7 exceptions to the 10% premature distribution penalty are:

(1) plan participant dies and distribution goes to a bene or participant’s estate
(2) attributable to permanent disability
(3) part of a series of substantially equal periodic payments made over the plan participant’s life expectancy or joint life expectancy of the participant & spouse (or bene of an IRA)
(4) distributions are made @ separation from service at age 55 or older (not applicable to IRA)
(5) distribution is made to a former spouse/dependent under a QDRO (not applicable to IRA; IRA assets can be transferred w/o penalty to the IRA of a former spouse when it is ordered in a DIVORCE DECREE)
(6) distributions do not exceed the amount of participant’s deductible medical expenses for the tax year (over 7.5% AGI)
(7) in 2020 and later, up to $5,000 per event per parent can be taken from an IRA or employer retirement plan after the birth or adoption of a child under 18

also, qualified education expense distribution from an IRA are not subject to the penalty.

distributions from an IRA or Roth IRA would also be exempt from the 10% penalty if used by first-time homebuyer expenses, up to the $10K lifetime cap

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14
Q

WHAT IS THE REQUIRED DEADLINE FOR THE COMMENCEMENT OF DISTRIBUTIONS FROM QUALIFIED PLANS, IRA’S, SEP’S, TSA’S AND OTHER RETIREMENT ACCOUNT?

A

the deadline for taking RMDs for 2020 and later is APRIL 1ST of the year FOLLOWING THE YEAR IN WHICH A PLAN PARTICIPANT ATTAINS AGE 72.

**for a common-law participant (a participant who does NOT own 5%+ of the company) in a qualified plan, the RBD is April 1st of the year following the later of attaining age 72 or retiring from the company.

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15
Q

WHAT DOES THE TAX CODE REQUIRE IN TERMS OF RMDs ONCE THE PLAN PARTICIPANT HAS ATTAINED AGE 72 IN 2020 AND LATER?

A

the tax code has specific rules about how much must be distributed of the RMD. they are:

(1) amounts in the plan must be taken over a period of time that does not exceed the participant’s life expectancy under the UNIFORM TABLE (TABLE III)
(2) the amounts in the plan must be taken over a period of time that does not exceed the joint life expectancy of the plan participant and the spouse using the JOINT AND LAST SURVIVOR TABLE if the spouse is 11 or more years younger than the participant

life expectancy is based on an IRS table. formula for calculating RMD is:

RMD = (account balance of 12/31 of prior year) divided by (life expectancy based on Uniform Table)

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16
Q

WHAT IS THE DEFAULT DISTRIBUTION OPTION FOR THE MARRIED PARTICIPANT OF A DEFINED BENEFIT PLAN? EXPLAIN WHAT IS REQUIRED TO CHANGE IT.

A

married participant in a defined benefit plan will automatically be given a joint and survivor annuity as a distribution option. this provides a fixed life benefit for the retiring participant, and a reduced benefit for their survivor. the plan participant cannot unilaterally cut the spouse out of this benefit. if another distribution option seems to be more appropriate, the spouse must give their written consent to the change.

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17
Q

QUALIFIED PRERETIREMENT SURVIVOR ANNUITY (QPSA) VS. QUALIFIED JOINT SURVIVOR ANNUITY (QJSA)

A

defined benefit, money purchase, cash balance & target benefit plans must provide a QPSA to the spouse of a plan participant who dies PRIOR to retirement. the payment to the surviving spouse is equal to at least 1/2 of the participant’s actuarially reduced pension benefit as of the date of death/the earliest retirement date from the plan

a QJSA is mandated in defined benefit plans and continues payments to the surviving spouse of the plan participant who has died AFTER leaving service

surviving spouse has the option to waive the benefit

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18
Q

WHAT ARE THE DISTRIBUTION OPTIONS OF THE BENE WHEN AN IRA OWNER DIES DURING RETIREMENT OR AFTER THEIR RBD?

A

if a surviving spouse is the sole eligible designated bene, their RMD period is the greater of their recalculated life expectancy factor (using the Single Life Table) or the deceased IRA owner’s remaining actuarial life expectancy (using the Single Life Table and then subtracting one for each subsequent year)

for example, let’s assume the surviving spouse:

  • chooses not to roll the account into their own IRA
  • is the sole eligible designated bene
  • elects to take RMD over their life expectancy

a spousal bene is uniquely able to roll a lump sum distribution from the deceased’s plan into an IRA in the surviving spouse’s name.

if an individual other than the spouse is the eligible designated bene, the required distribution period is the greater of the eligible designated bene’s life expectancy (using the Single Life Table and then subtracting one for each subsequent year) or the dcsd IRA owner’s remaining actuarial life expectancy (using the single Life Table for the decedent and then subtracting one for each subsequent year)

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19
Q

THREE TYPES OF BENES FOR DEATHS IN 2020 AND LATER UNDER ERISA?

A

(1) eligible designated bene: stretches longer than the 10 year rule. two types: surviving spouses & nonspouses.
for nonsurviving spouse EDBs, a bene who is not more than 10 years younger than the dcsd, a disabled person, chronically ill person, or dcsd’s minor child (until state-set age of majority is set, which is when the 10 year rule sets in)
(2) designated bene: the retirement account can only be stretched (max) to Dec 31 of the 10th anniversary year of the dcsd owner’s death (includes bene is who is more than 10 years younger than the DCSD)
(3) bene: allows person to receive retirement asset after death. RMD rules are most severe

20
Q

WHAT IS AN OPTION ONLY AVAILABLE TO A SURVIVING SPOUSE WHO IS THE SOLE ELIGIBLE DESIGNATED BENE?

A

only a surviving spouse can do a spousal rollover - move the IRA or employer retirement plan into his/her own name add new contributions to the account, and be subject to RMD rules as the original owner of the AC

21
Q

JOHN NAMED HIS SON MARK AS HIS BENE OF HIS IRA. JOHN DIED IN 2020 OR LATER.

JOHN DIED AT 60 WHEN MARK WAS 30. WHAT ARE MARK’S RMD OPTIONS?

A

the 10 year rule (mark is more than 10 years younger)

22
Q

JOHN NAMED HIS SON MARK AS HIS BENE OF HIS IRA. JOHN DIED IN 2020 OR LATER.

JOHN DIED AT 80 WHEN MARK WAS 60. WHAT ARE MARK’S RMD DISTRIBUTION OPTIONS?

A

the 10 year rule (mark is still more than 10 years younger)

23
Q

EXPLAIN WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR TAXES ON DISTRIBUTIONS MADE AFTER DEATH OF THE PLAN PARTICIPANT

A

benefits distributed from a qualified plan/IRA are taxable to whatever individual/entity is designated as the distributee. thus, the bene or estate that receives the distribution is responsible for whatever tax is due. the payments are taxed as INCOME IN RESPECT OF A DECEDENT. if the deceased qualified for forward averaging, the bene or estate has the right to use forward averaging in figuring the tax.

24
Q

WHAT IS QDRO? EXPLAIN ITS COMMON USE W/ RESPECT TO RETIREMENT PLANS

A

QDRO = qualified domestic relations order. it is a legal judgment mandating the distribution or attachment of one person’s property on behalf of another. in cases of divorce a part of one ex-spouse’s retirement plan is often attached for the benefit of the other ex-spouse by means of a QDRO. QDROs do not apply to IRAs or retirement plans that utilize IRAs.

25
Q

IDENTIFY THE MAIN SOURCES OF VARIABILITY IN RETIREMENT PLANNING ASSUMPTIONS

A

(1) inflation
(2) investment return
(3) longevity

26
Q

DISCUSS SEQUENCE RETURNS RISK AND ITS IMPLICATIONS FOR RETIREMENT PLANNING.

A

SEQUENCE OF RETURNS RISK involves the order in which investment returns occur. employing distribution strategies to reduce/eliminate the need to draw from a portfolio during a period of negative returns is essential. this is especially true during the first few years of retirement when large losses, coupled w/ withdrawals, could cripple an investment portfolio and cause it to fall short of its original goals

27
Q

DEFINE LONGEVITY RISK & DISCUSS ITS IMPLICATIONS FOR RETIREMENT PLANNING

A

longevity risk is the risk that life expectancy will exceed expectations, resulting in greater-than-anticipated retirement income needs. because longevity is unknown, retirees are faced w/ the competing risks of taking money out too quickly or too slowly.

28
Q

DEFINE THE OBJECTIVE OF THE MONTE CARLO ANALYSIS IN RETIREMENT PLANNING & ID ITS PROS AND CONS.

A

monte carlo analysis purpose is to calculate the probability of specific scenarios that are based upon a given set of assumptions and standard deviations. when used in retirement planning it is designed to determine the probability of a particular income stream lasting through life expectancy.

pro: you can manipulate inputs related to inflation, longevity expectations, and annual w/d rate to see the impact on the likelihood of success, w/ success being defined as a given level of income lasting until death.
con: results are based on historical data (i.e. historical returns, inflation rates) which are not always an accurate predictor of the future.

29
Q

DESCRIBE THE OBJECTIVE OF THE 4% RULE AS IT RELATES TO SYSTEMATIC W/DS FROM RETIREMENT SAVINGS.

A

william bengen developed the so-called 4% rule in the early 1990s. using historical data and a 50/50 stock/bond allocation, he argued that if the initial w/d rate were set at 4% of savings, and the dollar amount of subsequent w/d’s increased to inflation, just about all well-constructed portfolios would be able to last throughout retirement. other researchers set the sustainable w/d rate higher, but in today’s environment of sustained low interest rates, most agree that the rate needs to be lower in order to be sustainable throughout retirement.

30
Q

DISCUSS THE USE OF THE “BUCKET STRATEGY” TO MITIGATE SEQUENCE OF RETURN RISK.

A

a “bucket strategy” can mitigate the sequence of returns risk by creating a bucket of cash or money market instruments for immediate cash flow needs, while also maintaining a diversified portfolio of more volatile assets with higher potential returns for future needs. having a “bucket” of low-risk products to rely on is essential, should equities experience negative returns during the first several years of retirement when sequence of return risk are at its greatest.

31
Q

DISCUSS WHAT IS MEANT BY A “RISING EQUITY GLIDEPATH’

A

a rising equity glidepath is defined as “the asset allocation path that results from spending down fixed income assets in the early years and letting equity exposure rise over time” research has shown that the biggest threat to a retirement portfolio is poor market returns in the early years can help ease the transition to retirement when sequence of return risk is the greatest.

32
Q

DISCUSS THE ROLE THAT A SINGLE PREMIUM IMMEDIATE ANNUITY (SPIA) CAN PLAY IN A CLIENT’S RETIREMENT INCOME PORTFOLIO.

A

the purchase of a lifetime annuity eliminates the need to manage the investment of those funds, determining which assets should be used to fund distributions, and the fear of outliving one’s assets.

knowing that one’s fixed expenses are covered frees upt heir remaining savings, which can then be used to fund discretionary expenses. research points to the partial annuitization of a portfolio improving sustainability.

33
Q

WHAT IS THE ORDER IN WHICH RETIREMENT SAVINGS SHOULD BE W/D TO MAXIMIZE THE LIFETIME AFTER-TAX BENEFIT?

A

tapping the least tax-favored assets first retains the benefits of tax deferral for as long as possible.

(1) first: taxable account (taxable savings accounts)
(2) then: partially tax-deferred assets (such as stocks and mutual funds)
(3) next: tax deferred accounts (IRAs, annuities, qualified retirement plans).
(4) last: Roth IRAs/401(k)s

34
Q

SOME IRAS AND QUALIFIED PLANS CONTAIN CONTRIBUTIONS OF AFTER-TAX DOLLARS. WHEN DISTRIBUTIONS FROM THESE PLANS ARE MADE THROUGH A SERIES OF EQUAL INSTALLMENTS, HOW DOES ONE IDENTIFY WHICH PART OF THE PAYMENT IS THE AFTER-TAX DOLLARS AND WHICH IS NOT?

A

the nontaxable portion of each payment is determined by dividing the total contribution of after-tax dollars - i.e. the cost basis - by the number of anticipated monthly payments, according to the following table

35
Q

ACCRUED BENEFIT

A

a benefit that has accumulated up to a particular point in the participant’s employment

36
Q

ACCRUED BENEFIT METHOD

A

a method of calculating and funding defined benefit plan liabilities accruing in a particular year. this method looks at the plan’s benefit accrual for the year for each participant at normal retirement and funds the present value of the benefit for that year.

37
Q

ACP TEST

A

a discrimination test that compares the deferral rates of nonhighly compensated participants with the deferral rates of highly compensated participants in the same 401(k) plan

38
Q

CATCH-UP PROVISION

A

a provision found in both 403(b) and 457 plans that allows an eligible employee to make higher annual contributions in the years just prior to retirement

39
Q

DEATH BENEFIT ONLY PLAN

A

a plan in which the only benefit provided is a death benefit to the employee’s designated bene

40
Q

DISQUALIFIED PERSON

A

as defined by the IRS, any person or entity prohibited by the IRC from entering into certain transactions with a qualified plan because of the person’s relationship with the plan - fiduciary/plan sponsor

41
Q

ELECTIVE CONTRIBUTION/DEFERRAL

A

contribution is by an employer or an employee’s behalf pursuant to the agreement for salary deferral

deferral is made by the employee participant of a CODA plan

42
Q

EMPLOYEE STOCK OWNERSHIP PLAN (ESOP)

A

a profit sharing or stock bonus plan in which the funds must be invested primarily in the employer’s securities. an ESOP may borrow in order to purchase the company stock

43
Q

FIVE-YEAR CLIFF VESTING

A

an approved vesting schedule in which the participant is fully vested in their benefits at the completion of five years of service. under this schedule, the participant who is terminated or leaves the company prior to five years of service has no right to any benefits in the plan

44
Q

FIVE-YEAR RULE

A

an IRS rule stating that all of a dcsd’s funds in qualified plans, IRAs, and so forth, must be distributed within 5 years of the end of the year in which the individual died. the only exception to this is when the retirement vehicle names a designated bene

45
Q

FORFEITURES

A

unvested benefits left in a retirement plan by departing plan participants