Module 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which anti-inflammatory drug is used for prophylaxis of chronic asthma?

A

Glucocorticoids

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2
Q

Glucocorticoids reduce asthma symptoms by what?

A

suppressing inflammation

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3
Q

budesonide and fluticasone are glucocorticoids used in what?

A

long term control of airway inflammation

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4
Q

Serious adverse effect with inhaled glucocorticoids

A

adrenal suppression

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5
Q

oropharyngeal candidiasis and dysphonia are common adverse effects with which drug?

A

inhaled glococorticoids

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6
Q

How can a patient minimize side effects of inhaled glucocorticoids?

A

rinse mouth with water and gargle after each administration

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7
Q

Long-term use of inhaled glucocorticoids may promote what?

A

bone loss

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8
Q

Using the lowest dose that controls symptoms, ensure adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D, and participate in weight-bearing exercises are all ways to minimize what with long term glucocorticoid use

A

bone loss

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9
Q

Most important patient education point for inhaled glucocorticoid use

A

intended for preventative therapy-not for aborting an ongoing attack
must administer on regular schedule NOT PRN

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10
Q

What possible side effect of glucocorticoids is seen in children but not adults?

A

growth suppression

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11
Q

When would you increase dose of glucocortioids?

A

in times of stress

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12
Q

bronchodilators, glucocorticoids, and PDE-4 inhibitors are used in management of what?

A

stable COPD

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13
Q

Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug that improves lung function by which mechanism of action?

A

blocking muscarinic receptors in the bronchi, thereby reducing bronchoconstriction

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14
Q

What is the onset and peak of anticholinergic drug Ipratropium?

A

30 seconds, reach 50% of max in 3 mins, and lasts about 6 hours

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15
Q

Side effects of Ipratropium?

A

dry mouth and irritation of the pharynx
glaucoma
cardiovascular events

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16
Q

small, hand-held, pressurized devices that deliver a measured dose of a drug with each actuation

A

metered-dose inhalers

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17
Q

Patient education with metered dose inhalers

A

patient must begin to inhale before activating the device

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18
Q

Phenylephrine is a sympathomimetic that is indicated for what?

A

to reduce nasal congestion

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19
Q

Sympathomimetics only relieve stuffiness associated with what conditions?

A

sinusitis and colds

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20
Q

What are some ways to discontinue Phenylephrine

A

discontinue drug one nostril at a time

use intranasal glucocorticoid for 2-6 weeks–starting 1 week before discontinuing

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21
Q

Which leukotriene modifier is the only one approved for children aged 1-5 years?

A

Montelukast

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22
Q

Montelukast has 3 approved indications:

A

(1) prophylaxis and maintenance thearpy of asthma in patients at least 1 year old
(2) prevention of EIB in pts at least 15 years old
(3) relief of allergic rhinitis

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23
Q

Montelukast has been linked with which neuropsychiatric side effects?

A

mood changes and suicidality

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24
Q

Patient education for dosing of Montelukast

A

once a day in the evening with or without food

No additional dose should be taken for at least 24 hours

25
Q

Which expectorant medication renders cough more productive by stimulating the flow of respiratory tract secretions?

A

Guaifenesin [Mucinex]

26
Q

Why are decongestant drops preferred for young children?

A

Because children are susceptible to toxicity and the number of drops can be precisely controlled, and drops allow better control of dosage than do sprays

27
Q

Why are non-selective beta blocker glaucoma drops contraindicated in patients with COPD?

A

Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs can cause bronchospasms

28
Q

What is the only ophthalmic beta blocker that can be used in patients with asthma and COPD and why?

A

betaxolol because it is beta1 selective

29
Q

This drug is applied topically to lower IOP in patients with open-angle glaucoma and ocular hypertension

A

Latanoprost (analog of prostaglandin F2 alpha)

30
Q

Latanoprost lowers IOP by what action?

A

facilitating aqueous humor outflow and by relaxing the ciliary muscle

31
Q

Most significant side effect seen with Latanoprost drops?

A

harmless heightened brown pigmentation of the iris

32
Q

How do sunscreens protect against sunburn, photoaging of the skin, and photosensitivity reactions to certain drugs?

A

They impede penetration of UV radiation to viable cells of the skin

33
Q

What type of sunscreen absorbs UV radiation and then dissipates it as heat?

A

Organic screens (chemical screens)

34
Q

Minoxidil is a direct-acting vasodilator used primarily for severe hypertension but has topically can be used for what?

A

promoting hair growth in pts with baldness.

35
Q

open comedones (blackheads) are the most common lesion in this skin disorder?

A

mild acne

36
Q

nonpharmacologic therapy for for mild acne includes what?

A

cleansing with a gentle nonirritant soap 2x a day
avoid vigorous scrubbing or abrasives
avoid oil-based make-up or moisturizing products

37
Q

Drug therapy for mild acne

A

topical antibiotics and topical retinoids

38
Q

Moderate acne can be treated with what?

A

oral antibiotics and comedolytics

39
Q

In young women whose acne is unresponsive to other drugs, the provider can order what?

A

combination OCs and spironolactone

40
Q

Why is the topical vitamin D analog Calcitriol used to treat mild to moderate Psoriasis?

A

It slows the growth of new cells

41
Q

Inflammation of the EAC caused by bacterial infection. Rapid-onset ear pain.

A

Otitis externa (swimmers ear)

42
Q

How can you prevent otitis externa (swimmers ear)?

A

don’t put anything in ear
dry EAC after swimming and showering
don’t remove ear wax
don’t use earplugs except when swimming

43
Q

Treatment otitis externa include keeping the ear dry and using what?

A

analgesics for pain
topical antimicrobials
oral antibiotics

44
Q

Why is quinolone Ciprofloxacin preferred treatment for otitis externa?

A

safe for perforated tympanic membranes

45
Q

Keflex has to be used instead of Cipro in children under 18 for which condition?

A

otitis externa with infection beyond the EAC involving the pinna

46
Q

Inflammation of the middle ear caused by bacterial or viral infection or noninfectious causes.

A

Otitis media

47
Q

What are some ways to prevent otitis media in children?

A
breastfeed first 6 months
avoid childcare centers 
eliminate exposure to smoke
reduce pacifier use
avoid supine bottle feeding
48
Q

If 3 or more episodes of acute otitis media occur in the past 6 months or 4 times in the past year what is recommended treatment?

A

tympanostomy tubes

49
Q

Why are oral fluoroquinolones contraindicated for use in children under 18?

A

can cause tendon rupture

50
Q

inflammation of the conjunctiva in response to an allergen-may be seasonal or chronic

A

allergic conjunctivitis

51
Q

Mast cell stabilizers, antihistamines, NSAIDs, glucocorticoids, and ocular decongestants are all forms of treatment for what?

A

allergic conjunctivitis

52
Q

This is the most common form of glaucoma, characterized by progressive optic nerve damage with eventual impairment of vision

A

Primary open angle glaucoma

53
Q

Painless, insidious disease, develops over years. Elevated IOP is seen. No symptoms until significant and irreversible optic nerve injury has occurred

A

Primary open angle glaucoma

54
Q

What are the 3 classes of first line drugs for glaucoma

A

beta blockers
alpha2-adrenergic agonists
prostaglandin analogs

55
Q

What is the goal of glaucoma treatment?

A

To reduce elevated IOP

56
Q

decreased aqueous humor formation is what glaucoma drugs mechanism?

A

beta blockers

57
Q

increased aqueous humor outflow is what glaucoma drugs mechanism?

A

prostaglandin analogs

58
Q

decreased aqueous humor formation is what glaucoma drugs mechanism?

A

Alpha2-adrenergic agonists