Module 6: Genetic Pathology Flashcards
Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome of a base pair substitution mutation?
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Change in reading frame
D. Nonsense mutation
C. Change in reading frame
Base pair substitution:
- silent mutation
- missense mutation
- nonsense mutation
Which of the following is characterized by insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs?
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
Frameshift mutation: insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs
Silent mutation: no change in AA
Missense mutation: change in AA
Nonsense mutation: creates a stop codon
Which of the following NOT a mutation caused by one base pair being substituted for another?
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
Which of the following mutations causes a change in the entire “reading frame”?
A. Silent mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
D. Frameshift mutation
______ is a common variation at a single nucleotide position.
Single-nucleotide Polymorphism
SNP > 1%
Point mutation < 1%
________ are Non-DNA changes but are alterations in gene or protein expression.
A. Polymorphism
B. Epigenetic changes
C. Alterations in Non-coding RNAs
D. Translocation
B. Epigenetic changes
SNP: a common variation at a single nucleotide position
Epigenetic changes: Non-DNA changes; eg. alterations in gene or protein expression
Alterations in Non-coding RNAs: regulatory genes that do not code for proteins
Translocation: the interchanging of material between nonhomologous chromosomes
_______ is the interchanging of material between nonhomologous chromosomes.
A. Polymorphism
B. Epigenetic changes
C. Alterations in Non-coding RNAs
D. Translocations
D. Translocation
Translocation occurs when two chromosomes break and the segments are rejoined in an abnormal arrangement
SNP: a common variation at a single nucleotide position
Epigenetic changes: Non-DNA changes; eg. alterations in gene or protein expression
Alterations in Non-coding RNAs: regulatory genes that do not code for proteins
Translocation: the interchanging of material between nonhomologous chromosomes
Which of the following are characterized by regulatory genes that do not code for proteins?
A. Polymorphism
B. Epigenetic changes
C. Alterations in Non-coding RNAs
D. Translocations
C. Alterations in Non-coding RNAs
SNP: a common variation at a single nucleotide position
Epigenetic changes: Non-DNA changes; eg. alterations in gene or protein expression
Alterations in Non-coding RNAs: regulatory genes that do not code for proteins
Translocation: the interchanging of material between nonhomologous chromosomes
Which of the following is characterized by having a normal number of chromosomes?
A. Euploid cell
B. Polyploid cell
B. Polyploid cell
Which of the following is characterized by containing 3 copies of each chromosome?
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
A. Triploidy
Triploidy: 3 copies of EACH chromosome (3 X 23 = 69 chromosomes)
Trisomy: 3 copies of ONE chromosome
Monosomy: 1 copy of any chromosome
_____ is the usual cause of aneuploidy (trisomy, monosomy).
Nondisjunction
Which of the following is NOT usually lethal?
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
C. Trisomy
If a human fetus has 45 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Aneuploidy
B. Polyploidy
C. Euploidy
A. Aneuploidy
If a human fetus has 69 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Aneuploidy
B. Polyploidy
C. Euploidy
B. Polyploidy
If a human fetus has 46 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Aneuploidy
B. Polyploidy
C. Euploidy
C. Euploidy
If a human has 45 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
D. Monosomy
If a human has 47 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
C. Trisomy
If a human has 69 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
A. Triploidy
If a human has 92 chromosomes in it’s cells it would be called:
A. Triploidy
B. Tetraploidy
C. Trisomy
D. Monosomy
B. Tetraploidy
_______ is characterized by polydactyly, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate.
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): polydactyly, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate
Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Kidney malformations, protruding intestines, mental retardation, small size and micrognathia
Down syndrome (trisomy 21): Maxillary retrognathia, enamel hypoplasia, irregular placement of teeth, severe periodontal disease, delayed eruption
______ is characterized by Kidney malformations, protruding intestines, mental retardation, small size and micrognathia.
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): polydactyly, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate
Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Kidney malformations, protruding intestines, mental retardation, small size and micrognathia
Down syndrome (trisomy 21): Maxillary retrognathia, enamel hypoplasia, irregular placement of teeth, severe periodontal disease, delayed eruption
______ is characterized by Maxillary retrognathia, enamel hypoplasia, irregular placement of teeth, severe periodontal disease and delayed eruption.
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): polydactyly, microcephaly, mental retardation, cleft lip and palate
Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Kidney malformations, protruding intestines, mental retardation, small size and micrognathia
Down syndrome (trisomy 21): Maxillary retrognathia, enamel hypoplasia, irregular placement of teeth, severe periodontal disease, delayed eruption
______ is characterized by only containing one X chromosome (XO).
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome: missing an X or Y chromosome (XO)
Klinefelter syndrome: individuals w/ at least 2 X chromosomes and one Y chromosome (XXY)
________ is characterized by individuals with at least two X and one Y chromosome.
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
E. Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome: missing an X or Y chromosome (XO)
Klinefelter syndrome: individuals w/ at least 2 X chromosomes and one Y chromosome (XXY)
Which of the following is characterized by individuals with undeveloped ovaries, short stature and webbing of the neck?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Which of the following is characterized by individuals with a male appearance, underdeveloped male genitals and long limbs?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
E. Klinefelter syndrome
Which of the following is the syndrome of trisomy 13?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Patau syndrome
Patau syndrome = trisomy 13
Edwards syndrome = trisomy 18
Down syndrome = trisomy 21
_______ syndrome is a trisomy 18.
Edwards syndrome
Which of the following is associated with cleft lip and palate?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
A. Patau syndrome
Which of the following is associated with maxillary retrognathia and enamel hypoplasia?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
Which of the following is associated with enamel hypoplasia?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
Which of the following is associated with micrognathia (small jaw)?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome
Which of the following is associated with taurodontism (a condition of molars wherein the body of the tooth and pulp chamber is enlarged vertically at the expense of the roots).
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
E. Klinefelter syndrome
Patau syndrome = cleft lip and palate
Edwards syndrome = micrognathia
Down syndrome = enamel hypoplasia, maxillary retrognathia
Klinefelter syndrome = Taurodontism
Which of the following is an example of trisomy?
A. Fragile X
B. Turner syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Cri du chat syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
Which of the following is an example of monosomy?
A. Patau syndrome B. Edwards syndrome C. Down syndrome D. Turner syndrome E. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Which of the following is NOT labeled as an autosomal aneuploidy?
A. Patau syndrome
B. Edwards syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome = XO
Which of the following is NOT considered an autosomal DOMINANT disorder?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
A. Cystic fibrosis (autosomal recessive)
_______ is a disorder of connective issues, manifested principally by changes in the skeleton, eyes, and cardiovascular system.
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
B. Marfan syndrome
Features:
- unusually tall with long extremities
- bilateral subluxation of the eye lens (ectopica lentis)
- cardiovascular lesions: mitral valve prolapse
_______ is a group of diseases characterized by defects in collagen synthesis structure (ECM).
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Features:
- skin and joint hypermobility
- easy bruising
_______ results from the abnormal development from the first and second branchial arches.
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
Features:
- underdeveloped mandible
- downward slanting palpebral fissures
- deformed ears
- possible cleft palate
Which of the following is associated with increased risk of caries and cleft palate?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
B. Marfan syndrome
Marfan syndrome: increased risk of caries and cleft palate
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome: Gorlin’s sign (able to touch nose with tongue)
Treacher Collins syndrome: underdeveloped mandible
Which of the following is associated with Gorlin’s sign?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
Marfan syndrome: increased risk of caries and cleft palate
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome: Gorlin’s sign (able to touch nose with tongue)
Treacher Collins syndrome: underdeveloped mandible
Which of the following is associated with underdeveloped mandible?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
Marfan syndrome: increased risk of caries and cleft palate
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome: Gorlin’s sign (able to touch nose with tongue)
Treacher Collins syndrome: underdeveloped mandible
Which of the following is an autosomal RECESSIVE disorder?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Marfan syndrome
C. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
D. Treacher Collins syndrome
A. Cystic fibrosis
note: all other answer choices are dominant
__________ is the percentage of individuals with a specific genotype who also express the expected phenotype.
Penetrance
Penetrance = express the expected phenotype
Expressivity = variation in phenotype
________ is the variation in a phenotype associated with a particular genotype.
Expressivity
Penetrance = express the expected phenotype
Expressivity = variation in phenotype
Which of the following demonstrate incomplete penetrance?
A. MODY (type of diabetes)
B. Huntington disease
C. Recklinghausen disease
A. MODY (type of diabetes)
MODY = incomplete penetrance (50%) Huntington = complete penetrance (100%) Recklinghausen = Expressivity
Which of the following demonstrates expressivity?
A. MODY (type of diabetes)
B. Huntington disease
C. Recklinghausen disease
C. Recklinghausen disease
MODY = incomplete penetrance (50%) Huntington = complete penetrance (100%) Recklinghausen = Expressivity
note: Recklinghausen = malignant neurofibromas
Which of the following is NOT a lysosomal storage disease?
A. Gaucher’s disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Niemann-Pick disease
D. von Gierke’s disease
D. von Gierke’s disease
Lysosomal storage diseases:
- Gaucher’s
- Tay-Sachs
- Niemann-Pick
Glycogen storage diseases:
- von Gierke’s disease
- Pompe’s disease
- Cori’s disease
- Anderson’s disease
- McArdle’s syndrome
Which of the following is NOT a glycogen storage disease?
A. von Gierke's disease B. Pompe's disease C. Cori's disease D. Anderson's disease E. Tay-Sachs disease F. McArdle's syndrome
E. Tay-Sachs disease
Lysosomal storage diseases:
- Gaucher’s
- Tay-Sachs
- Niemann-Pick
Glycogen storage diseases:
- von Gierke’s disease
- Pompe’s disease
- Cori’s disease
- Anderson’s disease
- McArdle’s syndrome
What is the phrase I use to remember what diseases are lysosomal diseases?
Niemann-picked Gay Tay
Lysosomal (3)
- Niemann-Pick disease
- Gaucher’s disease
- Tay-Sachs disease
What is the acronym I use to remember the 5 glycogen storage diseases?
“Von Pompe and Cori Anderson love Mcgriddles but cant store it as glycogen”
Glycogen (5)
- Von Gierke’s disease
- Pompe’s disease
- Cori’s disease
- Anderson’s disease
- McArdle’s syndrome
Which of the following are sex-linked disorders?
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Duchenne Muscle Dystrophy
D. All of the above
D. All of the above