Module 6 Flashcards
During a lateral impact collision:
A) the far-side occupant, even if properly restrained, experiences double the amount of force as the driver.
B) the patient’s head moves away from the object causing the impact, resulting in stretching injuries.
C) properly worn seat belts protect the passenger from pelvic trauma at the time of impact.
D) trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact.
D) trauma to the upper extremities depends on the spatial orientation of the arms upon impact.
During abrupt deceleration:
A) shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur.
B) the neck commonly sustains hyperextension injuries.
C) the skull provides excellent protection for the brain.
D) supporting structures of the aorta keep it attached.
A) shearing or rupturing of internal organs can occur.
The MOST common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the:
A) heart.
B) esophagus.
C) aorta.
D) vena cava.
C) aorta.
The third phase of a motor vehicle accident involves:
A) crush injuries to the body.
B) impact by another vehicle.
C) deceleration of internal organs.
D) injuries caused by flying debris.
C) deceleration of internal organs.
Sudden deceleration of a motor vehicle that is traveling at 60 mph:
A) typically generates forces of up to 10 to 20 g.
B) initially causes whiplash injuries to the patient’s neck.
C) dissipates tremendous forces and causes major injuries.
D) causes the driver’s body to stop moving at the same time.
C) dissipates tremendous forces and causes major injuries.
Following a rotational impact, the MOST severely injured patients will likely be found at the point of:
A) least deceleration.
B) greatest deceleration.
C) secondary impact.
D) greatest acceleration.
D) greatest acceleration.
The energy stored in an object, such as a bridge pillar, is called __________ energy, and the energy from motion is called __________ energy.
A) kinetic, potential
B) barometric, kinetic
C) potential, kinetic
D) chemical, potential
C) potential, kinetic
Which of the following general statements regarding trauma is correct?
A) Bullet impact is less if the energy in the bullet is applied to a small area.
B) The position of the patient at the time of the event is considered to be an internal factor.
C) Blunt trauma is difficult to diagnose by paramedics in the field and is often more lethal than penetrating trauma.
D) Rapidly applied amounts of energy are better tolerated than a similar amount of energy applied over a longer period.
C) Blunt trauma is difficult to diagnose by paramedics in the field and is often more lethal than penetrating trauma.
Unlike blunt trauma, penetrating trauma:
A) is especially common during the primary blast injury following an explosion.
B) often causes damage to a large body surface area, even from a single projectile.
C) involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area.
D) is usually more fatal because of the severe external bleeding that accompanies it.
C) involves a disruption of the skin and underlying tissues in a small, focused area.
Which of the following injury mechanisms would MOST likely result in blunt trauma?
A) Small-caliber gunshot wound
B) Explosion involving shards of glass
C) Falling from a tree onto a fence
D) The pressure wave caused by a blast
D) The pressure wave caused by a blast
Which of the following statements regarding primary blast injuries is correct?
A) Primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious injuries.
B) Primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
C) Primary blast injuries are the result of flying glass or shrapnel.
D) Primary blast injuries are due entirely to intense heat.
B) Primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
Which of the following statements regarding exit wounds is correct?
A) Exit wounds occur when the projectile’s energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body.
B) Compared to entrance wounds, exit wounds are generally much smaller and typically have regular edges.
C) Despite fragmentation of the projectile, there is usually only one exit wound for each round that is fired.
D) With low-velocity gunshot wounds, the exit wound is always a mirror image of the entrance wound.
A) Exit wounds occur when the projectile’s energy is not entirely dissipated along its trajectory through the body.
All of the following statements regarding front air bags are correct, EXCEPT:
A) Small children riding in the front seat can be killed when the air bag deploys.
B) Air bags will provide protection from both initial and secondary impacts.
C) Without the use of a seat belt, front air bags are insufficient in preventing ejection.
D) Front air bags will not activate in side impacts or impacts to the front quarter panel.
B) Air bags will provide protection from both initial and secondary impacts.
Hematochezia:
A) indicates digested blood from the upper gastrointestinal tract.
B) is the passage of stools that contain bright red blood.
C) suggests kidney injury and is characterized by bloody urine.
D) is the passage of dark stools and indicates lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) is the passage of stools that contain bright red blood.
A fall in blood pressure and the resultant changes in plasma osmolality cause the release of:
A) glycogen and luteinizing hormone.
B) T3 and T4 from the thyroid gland.
C) aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone.
D) acetylcholine and angiotensin I.
C) aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone.
Hyphema is defined as:
A) severe ecchymosis to the orbital region.
B) blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
C) marked swelling of the globe of the eye.
D) double vision following blunt eye trauma.
B) blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
Hemoglobin functions by:
A) dissolving in blood plasma to create the partial pressure of carbon dioxide.
B) binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues.
C) absorbing hydrogen ions in the blood in order to maintain acid-base balance.
D) transporting red blood cells throughout the body to ensure adequate oxygenation.
B) binding to oxygen that is absorbed in the lungs and transporting it to the tissues.
Penetrating trauma occurs when:
A) internal organs are lacerated and bleed profusely.
B) tissues are penetrated by single or multiple objects.
C) blunt force trauma causes explosive open injuries.
D) a fractured rib perforates the parenchyma of a lung.
B) tissues are penetrated by single or multiple objects.
During an explosion, secondary blast injuries occur when:
A) hollow organs rupture due to the pressure wave.
B) the patient is thrown against a stationary object.
C) the patient sustains severe burns from the intense heat.
D) the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.
D) the patient is struck by flying debris, such as shrapnel.
Venous bleeding:
A) is dark red in color and usually oozes from the wound.
B) is bright red in color and typically spurts from a wound.
C) is more likely to clot spontaneously than arterial bleeding.
D) is generally more difficult to control than arterial bleeding.
C) is more likely to clot spontaneously than arterial bleeding.
Elevation of an extremity that has a venous laceration to it:
A) is often the only intervention needed to control the bleeding effectively.
B) helps control the bleeding when used in conjunction with direct pressure.
C) should only be performed if pressure point control has proven ineffective.
D) is of minimal to no benefit if the patient is bradycardic and hypotensive.
B) helps control the bleeding when used in conjunction with direct pressure.
What aggregates in a clump and forms much of the foundation of a blood clot during the process of coagulation?
A) Fibrin
B) Calcium
C) Plasmin
D) Platelets
D) Platelets
External bleeding would be the MOST difficult to control in a patient with a large laceration to the _____________ and a blood pressure of ______ mm Hg.
A) jugular vein, 96/62
B) brachial artery, 68/46
C) femoral vein, 114/60
D) carotid artery, 100/70
D) carotid artery, 100/70
You are treating a 20-year-old man with a large laceration involving the brachial artery. The patient is confused, is pale, and has weak peripheral pulses. Your initial attempts to control the bleeding have failed. You should:
A) administer high-flow oxygen, establish vascular access at the scene, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet en route.
B) administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and apply a proximal tourniquet and establish vascular access en route.
C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route.
D) control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal pressure point, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport
C) apply a proximal tourniquet, administer high-flow oxygen, transport, and establish vascular access en route.
Which of the following statements regarding lacerations is correct?
A) Lacerations are linear cuts that tend to heal well due to their relatively even wound margins.
B) The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged.
C) The first priority in treating a laceration is to cover it with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.
D) A laceration must be sutured or otherwise closed within 8 to 10 hours following the injury.
B) The seriousness of a laceration depends on its depth and the structures that have been damaged.
A 51-year-old woman sustained a large laceration to her cheek when she was cut by a knife during a robbery attempt. The patient is conscious and alert and has severe oral bleeding. She denies any other trauma. Your FIRST action should be to:
A) suction her oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
B) manually stabilize her head in a neutral position.
C) control the intraoral bleeding with sterile gauze.
D) ensure that she is sitting up and leaning forward.
D) ensure that she is sitting up and leaning forward.
During an explosion, a 42-year-old construction worker sustained a large laceration to the lateral aspect of his neck when he was struck by a piece of flying debris. The patient is conscious, but complains of difficulty hearing. In addition to protecting his spine, you should be MOST concerned with:
A) administering high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as soon as possible.
B) covering the laceration with an occlusive dressing and controlling the bleeding.
C) carefully examining his ear to determine if his tympanic membrane is ruptured.
D) applying a bulky dressing to the laceration and securing it firmly with a bandage.
B) covering the laceration with an occlusive dressing and controlling the bleeding.
In contrast to a contusion, a hematoma is:
A) accompanied by ecchymosis.
B) caused by large vessel damage.
C) rarely accompanied by a bruise.
D) a less significant closed injury.
B) caused by large vessel damage.
Necrosis of tissue caused by an anaerobic, toxin-producing bacterium is called:
A) tetanus.
B) gangrene.
C) fasciitis.
D) lymphedema.
B) gangrene.
The subcutaneous tissue is:
A) the layer of tissue above the dermis that mainly produces sweat.
B) a thin layer of tissue from which blood vessels exclusively originate.
C) also called the superficial fascia and consists mainly of adipose tissue.
D) the deep fascial layer that ensheathes muscle and other internal structures.
C) also called the superficial fascia and consists mainly of adipose tissue.
When applying a dressing and bandage to a scalp wound, you should:
A) carefully assess the skull for an underlying fracture.
B) remove any foreign particles from the wound first.
C) always use a loose dressing to soak up the blood.
D) apply a cervical collar in case the c-spine is injured.
A) carefully assess the skull for an underlying fracture.
A properly worn motorcycle helmet will:
A) not protect the cervical spine.
B) eliminate the risk of head trauma.
C) decrease the risk of a spinal injury.
D) minimize the trauma caused by secondary impacts.
A) not protect the cervical spine.
Structural protection afforded to a motorcycle rider during a crash comes from:
A) protective gear worn by the rider.
B) the main frame of the motorcycle.
C) side foot pedals and the handlebars.
D) the handlebars and large engine block.
A) protective gear worn by the rider.
A specific attribute of a Level I trauma center is that it:
A) is involved in an injury prevention program.
B) can initiate definitive care for all injured patients.
C) has 24-hour in-house coverage by general surgeons.
D) has rapid access to an off-site anesthesiologist.
C) has 24-hour in-house coverage by general surgeons.
Compared to a handgun, a rifle:
A) is less accurate.
B) fires a single projectile.
C) fires at a higher velocity.
D) has less powerful ammunition.
C) fires at a higher velocity.
During a frontal collision, MOST pneumothoraces occur when:
A) the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact.
B) the diaphragm rapidly ascends into the chest cavity during impact, causing an increase in intrathoracic pressure.
C) the chest strikes the steering wheel, which fractures one or more ribs and causes a perforation injury to one of the lungs.
D) the patient is ejected through the windshield, and his or her chest collides with a secondary object outside the vehicle.
A) the patient takes a deep breath just before impact and the lungs rapidly decompress at the time of impact.
If a person survives the initial trauma from a shotgun wound at close range:
A) nervous system damage is likely due to the internal dispersal of the pellets.
B) contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection.
C) he or she typically dies within 24 hours secondary to liver or renal failure.
D) it is likely that only soft tissue was injured and major organs were spared.
B) contaminants that were driven into the wound can cause a severe infection.
Lap belts that are worn alone and too high by a pregnant woman:
A) usually do not injure the fetus because the uterus is a highly muscular organ.
B) will provide adequate protection for the uterus if the airbag properly deploys.
C) allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus.
D) will provide equal distribution of forces and prevent forward flexion of the mother.
C) allow enough forward flexion and subsequent compression to rupture the uterus.
The primary determinants of the extent of trauma a patient sustains are the:
A) type of object that strikes a patient and the part of the body that sustains the most impact.
B) amount of energy in the object and the mechanism by which the object is delivered to the body.
C) size of the object that strikes the body and any secondary injuries that occur if the patient falls.
D) physical size of the patient and the part of the body that sustains direct impact from an object.
B) amount of energy in the object and the mechanism by which the object is delivered to the body.
The forces applied to the driver during a frontal vehicle collision will differ based on all of the following factors, EXCEPT:
A) objects inside the vehicle.
B) the physical size of the patient.
C) the design of the motor vehicle.
D) safety features of the motor vehicle.
B) the physical size of the patient.
The greatest amount of kinetic energy would be created if a ____-pound driver struck a tree while traveling at ____ mph.
A) 140, 50
B) 160, 30
C) 150, 40
D) 170, 30
A) 140, 50
An object increases its kinetic energy more by:
A) decreasing its speed than by increasing its mass.
B) increasing its velocity than by increasing its mass.
C) decreasing its velocity than by decreasing its mass.
D) increasing its mass than by increasing its velocity.
B) increasing its velocity than by increasing its mass.
The MOST common site of deceleration injury in the chest is the:
A) heart.
B) esophagus.
C) aorta.
D) vena cava.
C) aorta.
The MOST reliable indicator that significant energy was dissipated by braking before a motor vehicle collision is:
A) deformity to the driver’s brake pedal.
B) severe damage to the front rims of the tires.
C) a trail of debris leading to the site of impact.
D) the presence of tire skid marks at the scene.
D) the presence of tire skid marks at the scene.
The MOST significant fall occurs from a height greater than:
A) 10 feet.
B) 15 feet.
C) 1.5 times the patient’s height.
D) 2 times the patient’s height.
B) 15 feet.
