Module 10

Question 1

In contrast to a type II ambulance, a type III ambulance:

A) is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.
B) does not allow access from the cab to the patient compartment.
C) is a standard van with a walk-through to the patient compartment.
D) has an ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis

Answer 1

A) is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.

Question 2

In contrast to rotary-wing air ambulances, fixed-wing air ambulances:

A) are mainly used to transport patients over long distances.
B) can get the patient to a definitive care trauma center faster.
C) cannot fly safely when inclement weather is within 30 miles.
D) are the preferred transport method for acutely injured patients.

Answer 2

A) are mainly used to transport patients over long distances.

Question 3

An individual’s span of control:

A) should be self-assigned and dependent on the incident size.
B) is the degree of responsibility assigned by a higher authority.
C) represents the number of personnel who report to him or her.
D) limits his or her autonomy to delegate tasks to another person.

Answer 3

C) represents the number of personnel who report to him or her.

Question 4

At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for:

A) locating food, shelter, and health care for you and the other responders present at the incident.
B) managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.
C) ensuring that there is ample lighting and functional communications equipment during the incident.
D) obtaining data regarding problems that may arise at the incident and revising the plan to solve the problem.

Answer 4

B) managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.

Question 5

Command functions include all of the following, EXCEPT the:

A) triage officer.
B) safety officer.
C) liaison officer.
D) public information officer.

Answer 5

A) triage officer.

Question 6

Communicating with area hospitals to determine their capabilities and resources is a responsibility of the:

A) treatment officer.
B) individual paramedic.
C) chief medical officer.
D) transportation officer.

Answer 6

D) transportation officer.

Question 7

Triage tags that have tear-off receipts are MOST useful to the:

A) triage supervisor.
B) treatment supervisor.
C) incident commander.
D) transportation supervisor.

Answer 7

D) transportation supervisor.

Question 8

In contrast to primary triage, secondary triage:

A) requires a more rapid assessment.
B) is performed in the treatment area.
C) is typically performed by a physician.
D) involves initial placement of triage tags.

Answer 8

B) is performed in the treatment area.

Question 9

Descending on a fixed rope from a severe angle is called:

A) self-belay.
B) rappelling.
C) scrambling.
D) a hasty rope slide.

Answer 9

B) rappelling.

Question 10

Packaging a patient is MOST accurately defined as:

A) preparing the patient for movement as a unit.
B) ensuring that full spinal precautions are taken.
C) splinting all fractures before moving a patient.
D) securely fastening a patient to a long backboard.

Answer 10

A) preparing the patient for movement as a unit.

Question 11

A blue placard specifically indicates that a chemical is a _________ hazard.

A) fire
B) health
C) reactivity
D) explosive

Answer 11

B) health

Question 12

According to the dose effect principle:

A) the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.
B) biotransformation and elimination of a chemical is not possible if the exposure involved a large or concentrated dose.
C) the effects of a hazardous material will be more severe if it is ingested rather than inhaled or absorbed through the skin.
D) an extremely toxic hazardous material will have the same effect on the body, regardless of the length of the exposure.

Answer 12

A) the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.

Question 13

Department of Transportation (DOT) Class 8 chemicals are:

A) explosive.
B) flammable.
C) corrosive.
D) radioactive.

Answer 13

C) corrosive.

Question 14

In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is:

A) a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs exclusively via the inhalation route.
B) the dose expected to cause death when administered over a specified period of time.
C) a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.
D) the dose expected to cause death when administered by any route other than absorption.

Answer 14

C) a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.

Question 15

Nerve agents block _______________, an essential enzyme of the nervous system.

A) epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) cholinesterase

Answer 15

D) cholinesterase

Question 16

Radiation exposure that occurs through the body is MOST appropriately termed:

A) infection.
B) absorption.
C) irradiation.
D) internal contamination.

Answer 16

C) irradiation.

Question 17

Ricin is a neurotoxin that is derived from:

A) a synthesized virus or bacterium.
B) mash that is left from the castor bean.
C) the leaves of the purple foxglove plant.
D) the seeds from a wide variety of fruits.

Answer 17

B) mash that is left from the castor bean.

Question 18

Which of the following statements regarding ricin is correct?

A) Ricin is five times more lethal than botulinum.
B) Ricin is highly communicable only if it is inhaled.
C) Calcium chloride is the preferred antidote for ricin.
D) Ricin is extremely toxic by many routes of exposure.

Answer 18

D) Ricin is extremely toxic by many routes of exposure.

Question 19

A helicopter landing zone should be:

A) marked with a strobe light at the front and rear of the proposed site.
B) 100 feet by 100 feet in size and on a surface that is firm, level, and free of debris.
C) 50 feet by 50 feet in size and in an area that is at least 50 feet from the ambulance.
D) at least a quarter of a mile from the ambulance to avoid injury from flying debris.

Answer 19

B) 100 feet by 100 feet in size and on a surface that is firm, level, and free of debris.

Question 20

An ambulance operator’s cushion of safety can be maintained by:

A) carefully passing other motorists on the right.
B) using the siren only when at an intersection.
C) checking for tailgaters behind the ambulance.
D) staying at least 10 feet behind other vehicles.

Answer 20

C) checking for tailgaters behind the ambulance.

Question 21

Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) using your emergency flashers.
B) leaving the headlights on.
C) wearing a reflective vest.
D) turning off the strobe lights.

Answer 21

B) leaving the headlights on.

Question 22

The equipment and supplies that are carried in the back of an ambulance:

A) are dictated by the medical director.
B) should follow standard federal guidelines.
C) must be stowed safely yet easily accessible.
D) should be standardized in every ambulance.

Answer 22

C) must be stowed safely yet easily accessible.

Question 23

Unless the fluid level is low, you should NOT uncap the brake fluid reservoir because:

A) air will be drawn into the hydraulic brake lines.
B) the reservoir is pressurized and may cause burns.
C) doing so releases pressure within the brake lines.
D) brake fluid absorbs moisture from the atmosphere.

Answer 23

D) brake fluid absorbs moisture from the atmosphere.

Question 24

When determining productivity of an EMS system, the EMS provider:

A) calculates the ratio of EMS calls to the number of operating ambulances.
B) determines the number of paramedics on duty versus the number of EMS calls.
C) calculates the number of critical patients per month and how many survived.
D) measures how many patient transports per hour each ambulance accomplishes.

Answer 24

D) measures how many patient transports per hour each ambulance accomplishes.

Question 25

Air ambulances are advantageous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A) the ability to access remote areas.
B) faster transport to definitive care.
C) the availability of specialized equipment.
D) more experience of the flight paramedics.

Answer 25

D) more experience of the flight paramedics.

Question 26

Which of the following statements regarding loading and securing a patient in the back of the ambulance is correct?

A) Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat-belted.
B) All patients transported in the back of the ambulance must be secured on the stretcher, even if they request otherwise.
C) It generally takes a minimum of three people to safely load an average-sized adult on the stretcher into the ambulance.
D) All patients should initially be loaded into the ambulance on the stretcher, but they can move to the bench seat once loaded.

Answer 26

A) Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat-belted.

Question 27

According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:

A) he or she is in need of immediate intubation.
B) the airway is completely blocked by swelling.
C) a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.
D) he or she does not respond to two rescue breaths.

Answer 27

C) a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.

Question 28

According to the START triage system, if a patient has a strong radial pulse, you should:

A) place him or her in the delayed category.
B) control bleeding and assess mental status.
C) assess his or her ability to follow commands.
D) determine whether the pulse rate is slow or fast.

Answer 28

B) control bleeding and assess mental status.

Question 29

Because extrication and rescue are medically complex:

A) the officers responsible for these functions usually function under the EMS branch of the incident command system.
B) no lengthy extrication or rescue operation should commence until an emergency physician is present at the scene.
C) the position of extrication or rescue officer should always be assumed by an experienced EMT or paramedic.
D) anyone who requires extrication or rescue should be triaged and receive basic lifesaving care before being extricated or rescued.

Answer 29

A) the officers responsible for these functions usually function under the EMS branch of the incident command system.

Question 30

During an incident involving a building collapse, a paramedic is assigned eight rescuers to function under his authority. However, as the incident progresses, the paramedic finds that he is unable to effectively manage the personnel assigned to him. He should:

A) send two of the rescuers to the triage section since this is where they will most likely be needed.
B) transfer authority to one of the rescuers assigned to him and then follow that person’s directions.
C) divide tasks and delegate supervision of some tasks to one or more of the rescuers assigned to him.
D) release half of the rescuers assigned to him and instruct them to report directly to the incident commander.

Answer 30

C) divide tasks and delegate supervision of some tasks to one or more of the rescuers assigned to him.

Question 31

During an incident involving an explosion, you determine that two critically injured patients should be transported to a trauma center by air. After stabilizing the patients’ conditions to the best of your ability, you should:

A) call the receiving trauma center and update them on the patients’ conditions.
B) contact the incident commander and request permission to utilize air transport.
C) request air transport immediately and determine where you will land the helicopter.
D) notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

Answer 31

D) notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

Question 32

If a disaster situation requires a morgue officer, it is MOST important for the person who is assigned the function of morgue officer to:
A) work directly with law enforcement officials to positively identify the deceased as soon as possible.
B) leave all of the dead victims in their original locations until a coroner or mortician is at the scene.
C) be aware that some multiple-casualty incidents involving numerous fatalities may be crime scenes.
D) quickly remove the bodies from the scene, even if a storage and removal plan has not been established.

Answer 32

C) be aware that some multiple-casualty incidents involving numerous fatalities may be crime scenes.

Question 33

Multiple-casualty equipment and supplies needed for airway control include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) gloves, face shields, and a HEPA or N-95 mask.
B) oral and nasal airways, ET tubes, and Combitubes.
C) large-bore IV catheters for thoracic decompression.
D) rigid and flexible suction catheters and suction devices.

Answer 33

C) large-bore IV catheters for thoracic decompression.

Question 34

Prior to implementing any plans or operations at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you should FIRST:

A) notify your supervisor or the incident commander.
B) make sure the assigned safety officer is present.
C) move any unnecessary personnel away from the area.
D) acquire the assistance of at least seven other rescuers.

Answer 34

A) notify your supervisor or the incident commander.

Question 35

The primary duty of the triage officer is to:

A) quickly remove the deceased from the triage area.
B) ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.
C) immediately identify the most critically injured patients.
D) evacuate patients to the most appropriate treatment area.

Answer 35

B) ensure that every patient receives a primary assessment.

Question 37

Triage tags that have tear-off receipts are MOST useful to the:

A) triage supervisor.
B) treatment supervisor.
C) incident commander.
D) transportation supervisor.

Answer 37

D) transportation supervisor.

Question 38

A 29-year-old man was pulled from icy water after being submerged for approximately 10 minutes. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. He does not appear to have any injuries. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient involves:

A) defibrillating up to three times if he is in ventricular fibrillation, removing his wet clothing and applying blankets, and transporting.
B) immobilizing his spine, initiating CPR, removing his wet clothing, and ceasing resuscitative efforts if unsuccessful after 5 minutes.
C) assessing his cardiac rhythm, but attempting resuscitation only if the cardiac monitor reveals ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
D) protecting his spine, initiating resuscitative measures, removing his wet clothing and applying warm blankets, and transporting to the hospital.

Answer 38

D) protecting his spine, initiating resuscitative measures, removing his wet clothing and applying warm blankets, and transporting to the hospital.

Question 39

A 7-year-old child was playing near a large pile of sand when the ground underneath him collapsed. You can hear him crying and asking for his mother. Until the technical rescue team arrives at the scene, you should:

A) get as close to the edge of the trench as possible and attempt to visualize the child.
B) maintain verbal contact with the child, but avoid going near the edge of the trench.
C) throw the child a rope and ask him to tie it around his waist so you can pull him out.
D) use several long backboards as shoring to decrease the risk of a secondary collapse.

Answer 39

B) maintain verbal contact with the child, but avoid going near the edge of the trench.

Question 40

A frantic woman called 9-1-1 after her father, a 77-year-old man with Alzheimer disease, wandered off into a wooded area near her home. When you arrive at the scene, the woman tells you that she is not sure in which direction her father headed. What should you do?

A) Ask the daughter if her father has any other known medical conditions.
B) Notify the dispatcher and request a helicopter to attempt to find the man.
C) Have your partner stay with the daughter as you attempt to locate the man.
D) Remain with the daughter and immediately request a search and rescue team.

Answer 40

D) Remain with the daughter and immediately request a search and rescue team.

Question 41

A late-model sport utility vehicle struck a tree head-on. You are able to gain access to the driver, who was the sole occupant, through the passenger-side door. The patient appears to be unconscious and has blood bubbling from his mouth when he breathes. Upon entering the vehicle, it is MOST important for you to:

A) carefully open the patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver, and ask your partner for a suction unit.
B) ask the rescue team to remove the driver’s side door with the hydraulic spreader so your partner can gain access.
C) recall that if the air bags did not deploy during the collision, they could still do so and may severely injure you.
D) conduct a brief head-to-toe exam and then rapidly remove the patient from the vehicle by grabbing him under his arms.

Answer 41

C) recall that if the air bags did not deploy during the collision, they could still do so and may severely injure you.

Question 42

A police officer was shot when he attempted to serve a warrant to a known criminal. The shooter is still inside the residence, which is surrounded by SWAT team members. You have provided initial treatment, have loaded the officer into the ambulance, and are ready to depart. Your next action should be to:

A) wait for the shooter to be neutralized before departing.
B) confirm with the incident commander that it is safe to exit.
C) choose a different route than the one used to enter the scene.
D) immediately turn your lights and siren on to announce your exit.

Answer 42

B) confirm with the incident commander that it is safe to exit.

Question 43

Access to a patient and the initiation of treatment can begin only after the:

A) triage officer is present.
B) scene has been made safe.
C) patient has been disentangled.
D) fire department is at the scene.

Answer 43

B) scene has been made safe.

Question 44

As soon as you reach an unresponsive victim who is floating in the water, you should:

A) turn the patient supine without manipulating his or her head or neck.
B) float a buoyant backboard under the patient and initiate ventilations.
C) immediately assess for the presence of breathing and for a central pulse.
D) move the victim’s face above water and manually open his or her airway.

Answer 44

A) turn the patient supine without manipulating his or her head or neck.

Question 45

As the first responding unit to arrive at the scene of a confined space rescue, what is the MOST important information to share with the technical rescue team when they arrive?

A) Whether the incident has changed significantly since your arrival
B) The documented statements of any individuals who witnessed the event
C) The patient’s name, weight in pounds, and any known medical problems
D) Your scene assessment and recommended approach to the rescue effort

Answer 45

A) Whether the incident has changed significantly since your arrival

Question 46

If you believe that your assigned task at a rescue incident may be unsafe, it would be MOST appropriate for you to:

A) assign yourself a task that poses less of a safety threat.
B) proceed with the task while exercising extreme caution.
C) reorganize the rescue effort as dictated by the situation.
D) bring your concern to the attention of the safety officer.

Answer 46

D) bring your concern to the attention of the safety officer.

Question 47

Immediate implementation of an incident management system is critical because:

A) many technical rescue incidents become complex and require a large number of assisting units and personnel.
B) there must be one person in charge of assigning tasks to incoming ambulances, rescue units, and other emergency resources.
C) each ambulance or rescue unit that responds to the scene must have one person who assumes the role of incident commander.
D) technical rescue incidents tend to attract large crowds and media who must be updated regularly on the status of the rescue situation.

Answer 47

A) many technical rescue incidents become complex and require a large number of assisting units and personnel.

Question 48

Immediately upon arriving at the scene involving a technical rescue situation:

A) an emergency treatment area must be identified.
B) the paramedic must ascertain the number of patients.
C) additional resources must be summoned to the scene.
D) a rapid and accurate scene size-up must be conducted.

Answer 48

D) a rapid and accurate scene size-up must be conducted.

Question 49

In a four-door vehicle, the B posts are located:

A) behind both of the rear doors.
B) closest to the front of the vehicle.
C) behind the rear passenger windows.
D) between the front and rear doors.

Answer 49

D) between the front and rear doors.

Question 50

In addition to identifying and evaluating any hazards, scene stabilization typically involves all of the following components, EXCEPT:

A) observing the geographic area.
B) noting the routes of access and exit.
C) observing wind and weather conditions.
D) determining if air transport is available.

Answer 50

D) determining if air transport is available.

Question 51

Once the patient has been disentangled, your primary focus should be to:

A) begin emergency care.
B) protect his or her spine.
C) perform a detailed exam.
D) safely remove the patient.

Answer 51

D) safely remove the patient.

Question 52

Once you have succeeded in establishing verbal contact with a man who is in the process of being rescued, it is MOST important to:
A) answer all of his questions.
B) use the patient’s first name.
C) remain in contact with him
D) speak slowly and distinctly.

Answer 52

C) remain in contact with him

Question 53

It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because:

A) if the chemical ignites and explodes, the fallout from the blast will most likely sink into valleys and ditches instead of rising.
B) the risk of being contaminated is minimal if the chemical travels, and you will have greater visibility of the entire incident scene.
C) hazardous chemicals that turn to gas rarely have a vapor density that is heavier than the air, regardless of the amount of chemical.
D) the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

Answer 53

D) the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

Question 54

Medical monitoring and rehabilitation of rescuers at the scene of a hazardous materials incident should routinely include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) assessment of the person’s hydration status.
B) a complete set of vital signs and ECG monitoring.
C) prophylactic IV boluses of an isotonic crystalloid.
D) documentation of the hazardous material involved.

Answer 54

C) prophylactic IV boluses of an isotonic crystalloid.

Question 55

The direct exposure of a patient to a hazardous material is called:

A) acute infection.
B) chemical transference.
C) systemic intoxication.
D) primary contamination.

Answer 55

D) primary contamination.

Question 56

When a base substance is placed on a burn caused by an acid:

A) the burn will be confined to the epidermis.
B) an exothermic reaction is less likely to occur.
C) the toxicity of the acid is effectively neutralized.
D) heat is generated as a by-product of the reaction.

Answer 56

D) heat is generated as a by-product of the reaction.

Question 57

What level of personal protective equipment is typically worn by the hazardous materials decontamination team in the warm zone?

A) Level A
B) Level B
C) Level C
D) Level D

Answer 57

B) Level B

Question 58

The local effects of a hazardous material may present with:

A) restlessness.
B) blister formation.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) blood in the urine.

Answer 58

B) blister formation.

Question 59

Which of the following statements regarding the warm zone at a hazardous materials incident is correct?

A) Patients who are brought to the warm zone by trained rescuers should already have been decontaminated.
B) A standard-size warm zone is generally 50 feet in all directions, but may be smaller depending on the incident.
C) The warm zone is also known as the contamination zone and is only accessible by properly trained rescuers.
D) It may be necessary to perform urgent lifesaving care in the warm zone before a patient is fully decontaminated.

Answer 59

D) It may be necessary to perform urgent lifesaving care in the warm zone before a patient is fully decontaminated.

Question 60

A 21-year-old woman presents with a severe headache, body aches, and a fever of
102.8°F. She tells you that she returned from a humanitarian aid mission overseas a week and a half ago and began feeling ill yesterday morning. Given this patient’s travel history and clinical presentation, you should expect her to develop:

A) spontaneous hemorrhaging.
B) cutaneous lesions on her arms.
C) bradycardia and hypersalivation.
D) a rash and blisters on her face.

Answer 60

D) a rash and blisters on her face.

Question 61

Whether ingested or inhaled, ricin poisoning causes:

A) fever, chills, and a headache.
B) a productive cough and diaphoresis.
C) convulsions, cyanosis, and hemorrhage.
D) chest pain, muscle aches, and pulmonary edema.

Answer 61

A) fever, chills, and a headache.

Question 62

A terrorist would MOST likely disseminate smallpox via:

A) a powder.
B) an explosion.
C) a dirty bomb.
D) aerosolization.

Answer 62

D) aerosolization.

Question 63

Gray discoloration of the skin is a sign of permanent damage seen following exposure to:

A) lewisite and phosgene oxime.
B) chlorine and sulfur mustard.
C) phosgene, soman, and tabun.
D) V agent and sulfur mustard.

Answer 63

A) lewisite and phosgene oxime.

Question 64

A young man presents with severe respiratory distress. He is conscious, but confused, and smells of freshly cut grass. Auscultation of his breath sounds reveals coarse crackles in all lung fields, and he is coughing up copious secretions. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with exposure to:

A) chlorine.
B) phosgene.
C) V agent.
D) soman or tabun

Answer 64

B) phosgene.

Question 65

In contrast to sulfur mustard, lewisite and phosgene oxime exposures:

A) do not result in the formation of blisters.
B) have a delayed onset of signs and symptoms.
C) cause a change in the structure of the cells.
D) cause a rapid onset of signs and symptoms.

Answer 65

D) cause a rapid onset of signs and symptoms.

Question 66

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a/an:

A) single-issue group.
B) technology terrorist.
C) violent religious group.
D) extremist political group.

Answer 66

A) single-issue group.

Question 67

You are dispatched to a residence for a 50-year-old woman with respiratory distress. While you are assessing the patient, she tells you that she began experiencing flulike symptoms 4 days ago, shortly after delivering mail on the rural mail route for which she is responsible. Due to her illness, she has been unable to return to work. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse rate is 120 beats/min, and respirations are 26 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of her breath sounds reveals the presence of coarse crackles. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to:

A) anthrax.
B) smallpox.
C) a neurotoxin.
D) botulinum toxin.

Answer 67

A) anthrax.

Question 68

Biologic agents are:

A) synthetically manufactured and weaponized by mixing the synthetic component with an organism.
B) least preferred by terrorists because they are difficult to disseminate over a large population.
C) the ideal weapons of mass destruction if the terrorist’s objective is to affect a small geographic area.
D) naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

Answer 68

D) naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

Question 69

Bubonic plague is:

A) also referred to as plague pneumonia.
B) a highly communicable bacterial disease.
C) characterized by lymph node enlargement.
D) more contagious than pneumonic plague.

Answer 69

C) characterized by lymph node enlargement.

Question 70

Initial exposure to __________ produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation.

A) soman
B) chlorine
C) phosgene
D) phosgene oxime

Answer 70

B) chlorine

Question 71

Requesting a hazardous materials team as early as possible to a scene involving a weapon of mass destruction is MOST important because:

A) a member of the hazardous materials team must function as the incident commander.
B) the hazardous materials team must quickly identify the type of weapon that was used.
C) you must be decontaminated prior to initiating care for any injured patients.
D) it takes time for the hazardous materials team to assemble their personnel and equipment.

Answer 71

D) it takes time for the hazardous materials team to assemble their personnel and equipment.

Question 72

Signs and symptoms of nerve agent exposure include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) tachycardia.
B) bronchorrhea.
C) constricted pupils.
D) excessive salivation.

Answer 72

A) tachycardia.

Question 73

Smallpox is in its MOST contagious phase when:

A) a rash develops.
B) blisters begin to form.
C) the patient becomes febrile.
D) a headache and body aches develop.

Answer 73

B) blisters begin to form.

Question 74

An infected person can transmit a disease from a cough from a distance of up to:

A) 2 feet.
B) 3 feet.
C) 4 feet.
D) 6 feet.

Answer 74

D) 6 feet.

Question 75

For the EMS provider, most of the problems associated with sandstorms and dust storms are directly related to:

A) the abrasive and visual effects.
B) high winds that cause the storm.
C) objects hidden by blowing sand.
D) the inhalation of toxic gases.

Answer 75

A) the abrasive and visual effects.

Question 76

If an EMS agency is providing relief to a neighboring community during a disaster, it is important to ensure that:

A) no single medic is mobilized for greater than 12 hours.
B) only basic life support equipment is brought to the scene.
C) the relief-providing agency reports to the triage section.
D) it has enough coverage in its home area of responsibility.

Answer 76

D) it has enough coverage in its home area of responsibility.

Question 77

The intense heat of brush fires seals the soil surface, which makes mudslides, avalanches, or landslides:

A) contain more dirt than water.
B) move even faster over terrain.
C) travel for longer periods of time.
D) travel slowly, allowing warning time.

Answer 77

B) move even faster over terrain.

Question 78

The key to any disaster response is:

A) planning.
B) execution.
C) recovery.
D) triage.

Answer 78

A) planning.

Question 79

Upon arriving at the scene of a large building collapse, you are asked to perform a perimeter search. This includes:

A) donning protective equipment and entering the collapsed building to rescue patients.
B) searching only the farthest reaches of the perimeter where patients may have wandered off to.
C) searching areas and structures adjacent to the collapsed building to detect explosives.
D) searching the area immediately around the collapse area in order to find critically injured patients.

Answer 79

B) searching only the farthest reaches of the perimeter where patients may have wandered off to.

Question 80

When functioning during a flash flood, tag lines should be used, which are:

A) handheld radios that are all tuned in to the same frequency.
B) ropes stretched across a flooded river that victims can cling to.
C) safety ropes tied around rescuers so they can be pulled to safety.
D) cords that, when pulled on, activate personal flotation devices.

Answer 80

C) safety ropes tied around rescuers so they can be pulled to safety.

Question 81

When functioning during a heat wave, the paramedic should:

A) avoid foods such as vegetables, fruits, and salads.
B) take small, constant sips of water throughout the day.
C) eat large meals at least 2 to 3 times throughout the day.
D) consume at least 1 to 2 gallons of water every hour.

Answer 81

B) take small, constant sips of water throughout the day.

Question 82

Which of the following injuries or conditions would you MOST likely encounter following a cave-in?

A) Blast-related injuries
B) Hypoxia and hypothermia
C) Crush or penetrating trauma
D) Anhydrous ammonia exposure

Answer 82

B) Hypoxia and hypothermia

Question 83

In rescues that involve lengthy entrapment in a confined space, especially with cave-ins and trench rescues, the paramedic should be especially concerned about the potential for:

A) severe alkalosis.
B) femur fractures.
C) spinal cord injury.
D) crush syndrome.

Answer 83

D) crush syndrome.

Question 84

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration after an event?

A) All ambulances are restocked.
B) A CISD team is established.
C) All personnel are accounted for.
D) Agencies are properly reimbursed.

Answer 84

C) All personnel are accounted for.

Question 85

You and your partner respond to multiple victims at an event. At the scene-remember to anticipate that a secondary explosive may be present
You and your partner respond to an explosion at the courthouse in which there are multiple victims. At this scene, it is MOST important for you to:

A) quickly establish an initial triage section and begin receiving patients.
B) anticipate that a secondary explosive device may be on the premises.
C) immediately report to the incident commander for further instructions.
D) avoid unnecessarily moving objects in order to preserve any evidence.

Answer 85

B) anticipate that a secondary explosive device may be on the premises.

Question 86

After you have safely approached a parked vehicle and are ready to alert the apparently ill driver of your presence, you should:

A) carefully open the left rear door and tap the patient’s shoulder.
B) remain at the left rear of the vehicle and firmly tap on the trunk.
C) do so without moving past the B column into the driver’s door area.
D) position yourself in front of the side view mirror and tap on the glass.

Answer 86

C) do so without moving past the B column into the driver’s door area.

Question 87

How can you BEST assist law enforcement at the scene of a crime involving a gunshot wound or stabbing?

A) Begin patient care after all evidence has been collected.
B) Examine an expended gun casing to identify the caliber.
C) Place any of the patient’s clothing you removed in a paper bag.
D) Collect blood on a 4-inch by 4-inch dressing and give it to the police.

Answer 87

C) Place any of the patient’s clothing you removed in a paper bag.

Question 88

If a violent person directs his or her aggression at you:

A) it may be because your uniform resembles a police officer’s.
B) it would be appropriate to immediately retaliate with deadly force.
C) you should slowly approach the person and talk calmly to him or her.
D) under no circumstances should you defend yourself with physical force.

Answer 88

A) it may be because your uniform resembles a police officer’s.

Question 89

If your partner is injured while approaching a parked vehicle, you should:

A) drive the ambulance around your partner and ram the vehicle’s driver door.
B) back the ambulance away from the danger zone and request law enforcement.
C) wait for the vehicle to leave before exiting the ambulance to tend to your partner.
D) use the public address system to advise the perpetrator that the police are en route.

Answer 89

B) back the ambulance away from the danger zone and request law enforcement.

Question 90

It is MOST important to consider a clandestine drug lab to be a(n):

A) crime scene.
B) illegal operation.
C) hazardous materials scene.
D) unsafe environment for children.

Answer 90

C) hazardous materials scene.

Question 91

Which of the following statements regarding clandestine drug labs is correct?

A) Cocaine and heroin are the two most popular substances manufactured in clandestine drug labs.
B) If you unknowingly enter a clandestine drug lab, your priority is to quickly remove any patients.
C) Common chemicals found in a clandestine drug lab include distilled water, ibuprofen, and diphenhydramine.
D) Some drug producers use fragmentation and incendiary devices and animal traps to protect their operations.

Answer 91

D) Some drug producers use fragmentation and incendiary devices and animal traps to protect their operations.

Question 92

You arrive on scene to a patient who is reportedly unconscious in her parked vehicle. What do you do?

When approaching a van at night to determine if the driver, who is reportedly unconscious, is in need of medical assistance, you should:
A) keep your flashlight turned off as you move along the left side of the van.
B) move 10 to 15 feet away from the passenger side and walk parallel to the van.
C) approach the passenger side door, belly toward the van, and knock on the door.
D) stay at least 5 feet away from the van until you are at a 45° angle to the A column.

Answer 92

B) move 10 to 15 feet away from the passenger side and walk parallel to the van.

Question 93

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient who is reportedly unconscious in his or her parked vehicle, you should:

A) notify the dispatcher of your location and the number and state of the vehicle’s license plate.
B) turn your ambulance’s headlights off so that you are less visible if the patient is really conscious.
C) write down your physical location and the time on a piece of paper and leave it in the ambulance.
D) use the public address system on your ambulance’s radio and ask the patient to raise his or her hand.

Answer 93

A) notify the dispatcher of your location and the number and state of the vehicle’s license plate.

Question 94

When arriving at a residence for any EMS call, you should make it a routine habit to:

A) leave your jump kit in the unit until you need it.
B) request that law enforcement respond to the scene.
C) knock on the rear door of the residence if possible.
D) pay attention and listen for loud, threatening voices.

Answer 94

D) pay attention and listen for loud, threatening voices.

Question 95

Which of the following statements regarding hostage situations is correct?

A) The psychological effects of being held hostage are often of greater concern than physical problems.
B) If you are taken hostage, you should recall that most hostage situations only last about 30 to 45 minutes.
C) If you see the opportunity to disarm a person who is holding you and others hostage, you must act quickly.
D) If you are taken hostage, your job as a paramedic is to try to reason with the assailant to end the crisis.

Answer 95

A) The psychological effects of being held hostage are often of greater concern than physical problems.

Question 96

Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is correct?

A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear once that vehicle has passed.
B) If you are using an emergency escort, you should follow closely behind it to avoid a wake effect collision.
C) Use of a police escort is an acceptable practice, because it often facilitates a faster response time to the scene.
D) The use of emergency escorts is generally discouraged, unless you are traveling through a busy intersection.

Answer 96

A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear once that vehicle has passed.

Question 97

While responding to a call for a pediatric cardiac arrest, you approach a school bus with its red warning lights on. You should:

A) turn your emergency lights and siren off and carefully proceed past the bus at a slow speed.
B) use your PA system to advise the students to remain on the bus as you carefully pass it on the left.
C) carefully pass the bus on the right, if possible, so the children exiting the bus will be able to see you.
D) wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.

Answer 97

D) wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.

Question 98

A man stormed into a daycare center and opened fire with a semiautomatic rifle. The scene has been secured by law enforcement, and you are in the process of triaging the injured children. The first child you assess, a 4-year-old boy, is unresponsive and apneic but has a pulse. After manually opening his airway, he remains apneic. You should:

A) consider him non-salvageable and place a black tag on him.
B) assist his ventilations while closely monitoring his pulse rate.
C) categorize him as an immediate patient and continue triaging.
D) provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

Answer 98

D) provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

Question 99

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should:

A) deliver five rescue breaths.
B) manually open the patient’s airway.
C) categorize the patient as expectant.
D) immediately assess for a pulse.

Answer 99

D) immediately assess for a pulse.