Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

FAA Radar Concepts > Module 6 > Flashcards

Module 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The main difference between primary and secondary radar is that secondary radar _____.

A

requires cooperation from the target aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A radar’s mode of operation is determined by the variations in _____.

A

spacing between the mode pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A secondary radar’s ability to interrogate more than one mode at a time is called _____.

A

interlacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which mode uses a beacon parrot in place of a transponder to squawk desired codes?

A

Mode B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The interrogation signal transmits at _____ MHz.

A

1030

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Information pulses were decoded to provide the aircraft’s _____.

A

reply code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When an aircraft is being hijacked, the pilot would send the reply code _____.

A

7500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Secondary radar is beneficial over primary radar because _____. Select all that apply.
A. It can operate at a lower power level
B. It eliminates clutter from echo reflections
C. It has a longer range
D. It receives more accurate altitude information

A

It eliminates clutter from echo reflections
It has a longer range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The most common mode used in air traffic control is _____.

A

Mode 3/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mode interlace operation allows ATCBI transmitters to _____.

A

interrogate multiple modes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The _____ is transmitted 4.35 μs after the framing pulse.

A

Special Position Identifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When _____ is activated, the aircraft responds with the code 0000 if altitude information is unavailable.

A

Mode C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The _____ antenna(s) transmit(s) two interrogation pulses. Select all that apply.
A. directional
B. GPS
C. omni-directional
D. planar array

A

directional
planar array

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The _____ beacon(s) analyze(s) the time between the interrogation pulse and the reply pulse to determine the range of the aircraft. Select all that apply.
A. ASR-11
B. ATCBI-5
C. ATCBI-6
D. Mode S

A

ATCBI-5
ATCBI-6
Mode S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WAM uses _____ deployed throughout designated coverage areas to track aircraft.

A

beacon interrogation sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The _____ system uses GPS to track and broadcast aircraft locations.

A

ADS-B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following beacons may have a range of at least 200 NM when installed at a long range radar site? Select all that apply.
A. ATCBI-5
B. BI-6M
C. Mode S
D. MSSR

A

A. ATCBI-5
BI-6M
Mode S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The purpose of the planar array antenna on a Mode S beacon system is to reduce _____. Select all that apply
A. RF energy in busy air traffic environments
B. the length of the transmitted interrogation pulses
C. the number of interrogations per aircraft
D. the range at which azimuth can be detected

A

RF energy in busy air traffic environments
the number of interrogations per aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Mode S is a secondary surveillance system combined with a(n) _____

A

ground air data link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

At what frequency do beacon systems transmit interrogation pulses?

A

1030 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The _____ is integrated with the ASR-11 for more comprehensive secondary radar data.

A

MSSR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The MSSR beacon is only able to receive _____ data.

A

ATCRBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ identifies an aircraft’s distance by comparing the time and distance traveled from one network sensor to the next.

A

WAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ADS-B equipped aircraft are able to see the _____ of other properly equipped aircraft.

A

location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The basic parts of the transponder are:

A

Receiver
Transmitter
Signal processing unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The transponder will send a reply without being interrogated. T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Ring around occurs when an aircraft _____.
A. beyond the normal radar range responds to beacon interrogation
B. in the directional antenna side lobe responds to beacon interrogations
C. responds to beacon interrogations that were reflected off a structure
D. responds to multiple beacon interrogations within range

A

in the directional antenna side lobe responds to beacon interrogations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ISLS is advantageous over SLS because it ensures that a reflected target _____.
A. inside of the main beam will be enhanced
B. inside of the main beam will be suppressed
C. outside of the main beam will be enhanced
D. outside of the main beam will be suppressed

A

outside of the main beam will be suppressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Detection of a P2 pulse will suppress the transponder’s reply capability for a period of _____ μs.

30
Q

What are the major components of ATCBI ground equipment? Select all that apply.
A. Digital defruiter
B. Directional antenna
C. Interrogator/receiver unit
D. Omni-directional antenna
E. Polarizer

A

Directional antenna
Interrogator/receiver unit
Omni-directional antenna

31
Q

what does the Digital defruiter

A

Removes clutter caused by extraneous replies

32
Q

what does the Directional Antenna

A

Interrogates the aircraft

33
Q

what does the Omni-Directional Antenna

A

Sends out the P2 pulse to prevent unwanted replies

34
Q

what does the Pulse mode generator

A

Creates transmitted mode pulses

35
Q

what does the Receiver

A

Accepts the radar interrogation pulse

36
Q

what does the Signal processing unit

37
Q

what does the Transmitter

A

Sends the aircraft reply code

38
Q

Second-time around targets will display at the _____ azimuth and _____ range.

A

Correct, Incorrect

39
Q

A transponder will generate a reply if the P2 pulse amplitude is _____.
A. 10 dB above the P1 pulse amplitude
B. 10 dB below the P1 pulse amplitude
C. 10 dB below the P3 pulse amplitude
D. equal to the P3 pulse amplitude

A

10 dB below the P1 pulse amplitude

40
Q

What is a disadvantage of ISLS?
A. It may enhance a valid target outside of the main beam
B. It may enhance a valid target within close range of the main beam
C. It may suppress a valid target outside of the main beam
D. It may suppress a valid target within close range of the main beam

A

It may suppress a valid target within close range of the main beam

41
Q

One difference between a Mode S system and an ATCRBS system is that Mode S systems use a _____ while ATCRBS does not.

A

system processor

42
Q

Mode S aircraft are able to respond to ATCRBS interrogations T/F

43
Q

When the system receives replies to the all-call interrogations, it places those aircraft in the roll-call file ordered by _____.

44
Q

The _____ pulse train contains the message data for all-call and roll-call replies.

45
Q

Which interrogation can only occur if the aircraft address is on the sensor’s file?

46
Q

Monopulse direction finding allows the radar to more quickly calculate a target’s _____ with greater accuracy

47
Q

The _____ beam only receives interrogation signals

A. Theta
B. Control
C. Difference
D. Sum

A

Difference

48
Q

The _____ provides the necessary azimuth correction to calculate an aircraft’s true azimuth.

A

Off Boresight Angle Table

49
Q

The _____ pulse prevents aircraft outside of the main beam from replying to interrogations.

50
Q

The system ignores second-time around targets since they do not correlate with interrogation requests.
T/F

51
Q

Mode S replies contain which of the following? Select all that apply.
A. Data block
B. Preamble
C. Roll-call list
D. Unique 24-bit address

A

Data block
Preamble
Unique 24-bit address

52
Q

Mode S identification codes are made up of _____ bits.

53
Q

_____ interrogations address all Mode-S equipped aircraft within range simultaneously.

54
Q

Differential phase shift keying begins _____ μs after the start of the _____ pulse.
A. 0.8, P3
B. 1.25, P6
C. 2.0, P4
D. 15, P1

55
Q

The _____ contains the Mode 3/A code.

A

data block

56
Q

Which beams do the monopulse antenna transmit from? Select all that apply.
A. Control
B. Difference
C. Sum
D. Theta

A

Control
Sum

57
Q

Which beam pattern determines how far off boresight a target is?

A

Difference

58
Q
  1. A target is calculated to be to the right of the boresight when the Difference phase beam is _____ ahead of the Sum beam.
    A. 45°
    B. 90°
    C. 180°
    D. 360°
59
Q

The _____ beam has a directional notch at the boresight and is used for side lobe suppression.
A. Control
B. Difference
C. Sum
D. Theta

60
Q

All-call lockout lasts for 15 seconds and prevents false targets from _____.

A

replying to reflections

61
Q

The one-on-one nature of roll-call interrogations and replies prevents _____ from occurring.

A

overlapping replies

62
Q

Transponders contain 112 binary data store registers to contain avionics information.
T/F

63
Q

Modern transponders have _____.
A. 1 receiver and 1 antenna
B. 1 receiver and 2 antennas
C. 2 receivers and 1 antenna
D. 2 receivers and 2 antennas

A

2 receivers and 2 antennas

64
Q

Each BDS(Binary Data Store) register is _____ bits wide.

65
Q

Secondary radars do not require the use of a transponder in order to respond to ground station interrogations.

T/F

66
Q

GICB (Ground Initiated Comm B) registers store avionics information that is read out by the ground system.
T/F

67
Q

BDS (Binary Data Store) registers are _____. Select all that apply.
A. 256 bits wide
B. also called GICB registers
C. also written as BDS 0.5 (or BDS 05h)
D. identified by a 2-digit hexadecimal number
E. to be updated to remain on file

A

identified by a 2-digit hexadecimal number

also called GICB registers

to be updated to remain on file

68
Q

_____ is determined by measuring the elapsed time between the interrogation signal and the reply.

69
Q

The functional sections of the RF test set are the _____. Select all that apply.
A. comparator
B. demodulator
C. output calibration attenuator
D. signal generator
E. signal processor

A

demodulator
output calibration attenuator
signal generator

70
Q

The signal generator works with the FA-9410 to allow interrogation and reply signals to be duplicated in any mode.
T/F

71
Q
  1. What types of errors can prevent the aircraft transponder from sending a reply? Select all that apply
    A. Amplitude
    B. Frequency
    C. Pulse width
    D. Spacing
    E. Timing
A

Frequency
Pulse width
Spacing
Timing

FAA Radar Concepts (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions