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FAA Radar Concepts > Module 1 > Flashcards

Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which time period saw the most significant innovation in radar technology?

A

During World War 2

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2
Q

The First aircraft radar detection occurred in

A

1930

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3
Q

Primary radar is the same as surveillance radar. T/F

A

True

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4
Q

Aircraft without transponders are _____ to secondary radar.

A

invisible

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5
Q

What is the relationship between primary and secondary radars in ATC?

A

Together they provide a complete picture of the air traffic.

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6
Q

What is detection?

A

The determination that a target is present.

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7
Q

What is Ranging

A

The determination of the distance to an aircraft in flight by the measurement of elapsed time of the return echo

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8
Q

What is Search

A

Looking for aircraft within a specified area. Search radars normally determine the range and azimuth of aircraft detected in the area of interest

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9
Q

Height Finding

A

The determination of the height of an airborne aircraft. The ARSR-4 provides 3D capabilities along the U.S. borders

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10
Q

Velocity Measurement

A

Radial velocity and even ground speed of aircraft can be determined via software analysis of sets of detection data associated with range and azimuth data.

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11
Q

Track-While-Scan

A

A software operation that generates tracks for various aircraft by associating target reports from successive scans (antenna rotations). It remembers the last known and next expected location of an aircraft

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12
Q

Azimuth

A

Determined from position data provided by the antenna of its current direction.

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13
Q

ARSRs operate on which frequency band

A

L Band

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14
Q

Who discovered electromagnetism and the electric current in 1831

A

Michael Faraday

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15
Q

What is another name for primary radar

A

Surveillance Radar

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16
Q

What is the advantage of primary pulsed radar over CW radar

A

It provides more accurate 2D information

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17
Q

What is another name for secondary radar?

A

Air Traffic Control Beacon Interrogator

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18
Q

What is the basic difference between primary pulse radar and secondary pulse radar

A

Primary radar does not need target cooperation

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19
Q

Which frequency does the secondary radar interrogation pulse use?

A

1090 MHz

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20
Q

What is a disadvantage of secondary radar

A

The transponder can be disabled.

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21
Q

What is determined from positional data provided by the antenna of its current direction

A

Azimuth

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22
Q

What is the term for radar looking for aircraft in a specified area

A

Search

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23
Q

What is the distance to an aircraft in flight as measured by the elapsed time of the return echo?

A

Ranging

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24
Q

ASR operates in which frequency band?

A

S Band

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25
Q

TDWR operates in which frequency band?

A

C Band

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26
Q

what is determined by measuring elapsed time between pulse transmission and the returned echo.

A

Range

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27
Q

what is a radar’s ability to receive HF radio waves reflected off physical objects.

A

Detection

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28
Q

The FAA primarily uses radar to

A

detect aircraft with accurate range and azimuth

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29
Q

What radar uses Moving Target Detector (MTD) processing

A

ASR-9

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30
Q

What radar is also known as DASR

A

ASR-11

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31
Q

What radar provides weather information in the terminal environment

A

TDWR

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32
Q

What radar monitors runways and taxiways for obstructions

A

ASDE-3A

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33
Q

What radar combines an SMR with an MLAT system

A

ASDE-X

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34
Q

What system determines aircraft azimuth using monopulse direction finding techniques

A

MODE-S

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35
Q

What system provides secondary data to the ASR-11.

A

Monopulse Secondary Surveillance Radar(MSSR)

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36
Q

What system tracks aircraft using GPS

A

ADS-B

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37
Q

What makes up the heart of the radar system.

A

frequency generator/synchronizer

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38
Q

what radar component can detect returned target echoes

A

Antenna

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39
Q

what can can route the received echo pulse into the receiver’s front end

A

Waveguide

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40
Q

what program allows radars remaining in service to be modernized

A

Service Life Extension Program

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41
Q

What system replaced the replaced the ASR-7/8.

A

ASR-11

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42
Q

Which radar system provides a fail-soft operation

A

ASR-11

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43
Q

what radar system has both an omni-directional antenna and a directional antenna.

A

ATCBI-5

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44
Q

what determines a target’s location by triangulating the time and distance measurements between radar signals.

A

WAM

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45
Q

What routes the transmitted pulse to the antenna

A

Waveguide

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46
Q

what does the frequency generator/synchronizer generate

A

carrier frequency and timing signals

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47
Q

what is one of the oldest types of displays used in radar

A

A-Scope

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48
Q

what would be the secondary function for FAA radars to detect

A

weather phenomenon

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49
Q

The ______ of electromagnetic energy off of physical objects allows radar target detection.

A

reflection

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50
Q

If a returning echo is strong enough, a(n) _____ will detect it

A

Antenna

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51
Q

what is is the calculated distance from the radar to the target.

A

Range

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52
Q

Range is _______ the total distance a sound pulse travels

A

half

53
Q

Slant range is the _______ between a radar and the target.

A

direct line-of-sight

54
Q

what is is the length of time required for a waveform interval to repeat

A

period

55
Q

The ________ and the period are reciprocals of each other.

A

pulse repetition frequency

56
Q

The _____ is the fraction of time during which a pulse is active

A

Duty Ratio

57
Q

What is an isotropic source

A

A source that radiates equally in all directions

58
Q

Electromagnetic radiation in free space travels

A

At the speed of light

59
Q

Power density is the _____ radiated by the isotropic source divided by the area of the sphere.

A

total power

60
Q

When referring to propagation velocity, what is pulse length

A

The physical distance between the leading and trailing edge of a propagating pulse

61
Q

When referring to propagation velocity, what is the pulse duration?

A

The time duration between the leading and trailing edge of a pulse

62
Q

The pulse length ______________ as the wave front travels through space

A

does now vary

63
Q

Power density is the total power radiated by the isotropic source divided by _________.

A

Watts

64
Q

If the power generated during pulse transmission is constant, in an isotropic antenna it is distributed ______________ over a spherical wavefront.

A

equally

65
Q

Antenna gain is the ratio of _______ delivered to the target, by the antenna to the power density that would have resulted in the same location from the isotropic transmitter.

A

maximum power density

66
Q

Antenna gain is NOT affected by a change in ________.

A

aperture*****

67
Q

What is the physical aperture of a radar antenna

A

Area across the reflector’s opening when viewing the antenna head-on

68
Q

What is the effective aperture value in a 100% efficient antenna

A

The physical aperture value

69
Q

The power extracted from the returning echo wavefront as it strikes the radar antenna is directly proportional to the ________.

A

effective aperture
antenna gain
radar cross section

70
Q

Where does most of the power obtained by the antenna go?

A

Receiver

71
Q

What is antenna gain?

A

The power density delivered to a target from an antenna compared to an isotropic antenna

72
Q

Which type of beam gives lower antenna gains

A

Wider

73
Q

What is necessary to calculate antenna gain

A

Area of the beam

74
Q

many degrees are in each radian?

A

57.296

75
Q

What is the “cone of silence

A

The space above the radar which doesn’t detect aircraft

76
Q

RF energy is visualized with the _____ and ______ as its boundary(ies) and the _____ as its length

A

horizontal and vertical beamwidths, pulse width

77
Q

Bursts of RF energy are approximately bounded by lines defining the __________ of the system.

A

horizontal and vertical beamwidths

78
Q

A radar system’s range resolution measures how well the system can distinguish between two targets at the ______.

A

same azimuth at slightly different ranges

79
Q

Targets close enough in range for the radar to only register one pulse return for that position per PRT are __________.

A

Unresolved

80
Q

A radar receiver’s basic function is to _____.

A

amplify and detect returned signals

81
Q

Along with Boltzmann’s constant, the _____ is needed to calculate input noise magnitude.

A

temperature of space

82
Q

The temperature of space (TK) is generally assumed to be _____ K

A

1.38 x 10-23

83
Q

Why does a radar system operating on the Earth’s surface have an immediate range disadvantage compared to a radar operating in free space?

A

The Earth’s atmosphere

84
Q

What causes the radar horizon to be farther away than the optical horizon

A

Curvature of the Earth

85
Q

The length of bursts of RF energy is determined by the _________ of the system

A

pulse width

86
Q

What causes the returning echo signals from two targets at the same azimuth and close range to merge and become one continuous echo

A

Pulse length

87
Q

The minimum required separation in range permitting individual target detection is the __________

A

range resolution of the radar system

88
Q

Thermal agitation is the _____ movement of electrons.

A

random

89
Q

If the signal input power is _____ the noise input power, the signal will be masked by noise. Select all that apply.

A

Less than

90
Q

_____ is the receiver’s ability to detect weak signals.

A

Receiver sensitivity

91
Q

_____ is the weakest signal that produces visible receiver output

A

Minimum discernable signal

92
Q

What does clutter refer to

A

Unwanted echo returns

93
Q

What is the reference input for MTI and MTD detection circuits

A

COHO frequency

94
Q

Synchronizers on newer FAA radar generate ________ for nearly every operation in the system.

A

control and timing signals

95
Q

What reports and diagnoses synchronizer malfunctions

A

SBCs (Single Board Computers)

96
Q

Synchronizers create timing signals that let the processors know when to start _____.

A

testing cycles

97
Q

Error messages from the BIT processes may be sent to the _________. (2 answers)

A

MDT (maintenance data terminal) and RMS (remote monitoring system)

98
Q

In a synthesis-type radar system, the _______ frequency is created by combining the ______ frequencies through addition or subtraction

A

transmitter, STALO (Stable Local Oscillator) and COHO (Coherent Oscillator)

99
Q

Since STALO _______ is so critical, it is checked as part of routine maintenance checks in most FAA radars.

A

stability

100
Q

Basic timing signals, clocks, gates, and triggers come from _______

A

COHO

101
Q

________ provide(s) RF trigger pulses to the transmitter and display equipment

A

Basic synchronizer systems**

102
Q

What are benefits provided by modern radars that write timing sequences into memory devices (PROMs, ROMs, RAMs)? 2 answers

A

It is easier to add new functions to the system and It is easier to make timing adjustments to existing functions

103
Q

Troubleshooting _____ requires determining the path missing its signal and following that signal to its point of failure

A

analog radar systems

104
Q
  1. What is the diagnostic software tool that can pinpoint faults quickly and accurately?
A

BIT/FIT

105
Q

BIT can be used to _______. 2 answers

A

pinpoint faults quickly and accurately and maintain system operations at the proper levels

106
Q

How did the controller communicate with pilots for manual traffic air control

A

Colored flags

107
Q

What was the main problem with manual air traffic control

A

Pilots could not see the controller and received mixed communications when multiple planes were in the controller’s view

108
Q

A “blip” on the ____ indicates the aircraft’s position in the terminal area

A

PPI (Plan Position Indicator)

109
Q

What was the first total automated tracking system

A

ARTS (Automated Radar Terminal System)

110
Q

The ____ system links the ARTCC, ATCT, and TRACON environments to distribute information between facilities.

A

FDIO (Flight Data Input/Output)

111
Q

What does a surveillance radar system used by the FAA measure

A

A target’s range and azimuth

112
Q

In an ______, the sweep starts at one edge and goes to the other edge

A

A-scope display

113
Q

The _______ presents the range and azimuth of a target

A

PPI

114
Q

How does a PPI CRT sweep

A

From the center to the edge of the tubeQ

115
Q

______ mixes analog video and digital signals, converting them into a raster type output

A

DBRITE (Digital Bright Radar Tower Equipment0

116
Q

What is one of the primary reasons why raster scan systems have replaced PPI

A

High-light environments

117
Q

What are the two types of non-CRT displays used by the FAA

A

Plasma and LCD

118
Q

What does using non-CRT displays eliminate the need for

A

Deflection yokes, high voltage power supplies, focus, and convergence

119
Q

What allowed controllers to interact directly with the aircrafts in range of the airport while providing pilots with a method to state their intentions while in flight?

A

Two-way radios

120
Q

What was the problem with VFR

A

Congestion made it difficult to see the controller

121
Q

Today, the TRACON provides ATC services from the airport to _____ miles away, from the ground up to _____ feet.

A

between 30 to 50; 10,000

122
Q

What was a shrimp boat

A

A block periodically moved on an airspace map by a controller as updates were received from the plane

123
Q

What software sends out departure, over-flight, and arrival strip messages to Towers or TRACONs at the appropriate time?

A

FDP (Flight Data Processing)

124
Q

Range position is determined by ____. Therefore, display devices indicate slant range to the target.

A

two-way travel time of the radar pulse

125
Q

The user controls the time required to move a PPI sweep. What effect does this have on increasing or decreasing the range

A

It varies

126
Q

The PPI sweep is electronically rotated around the screen at ______.

A

the same rotation rate as the antenna

127
Q

What is the primary automation system used throughout the FAA

A

STARS (Standard Terminal Automation Replacement System)

128
Q

The ____ is an LCD workstation designed for high-light environments

A

Tower Display Workstation (TDW)

FAA Radar Concepts (8 decks)

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