Module 5 - MSK Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff?

A

Supraspinatus: abduction, most susceptible to impingement
Infraspinatus: external rotation with arm by side
Teres minor: external rotation with arm abducted
Subscapularis: internal rotation, larges and strongest

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2
Q

What views are included in a “shoulder series” XR

A
  • AP in external rotation to best demonstrate lesser and greater tuberosities of humerus
  • Internal rotation
  • Lateral or scapulular y : demonstrates coracoacromial arch, and the glenohumeral
  • Axillary/axial view
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3
Q

Which of the following images demonstrates a shoulder dislocation? Is it dislocated anteriorly or posteriorly?

A

Internal rotation of humeral head

Posterior dislocation

Left

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4
Q

What is the difference between a hill sachs lesion and bankart lesion

A

Hill sachs: head of humerus

Bankart: glenoid rim

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5
Q

What is the most common mechanism for shoulder ACJ disruption

A

Usually direct impact onto acromium with rupture of stabilising ligaments, depressing scapula relative to clavicle

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6
Q

Describe the continuum of pathology for rotator cuff disease (5 steps)

A
  • Impingement: Repetitive compression of cuff on coracoacromial arch
  • Partial thickness tear: Chronic tendinitis or acute trauma
  • Full thickness tear: Usually an extension of partial tear, remaining cuff compensates
  • Massive tear: Weakness and functional impairment
  • Arthropathy: proximal humeral migration, secondary OA
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7
Q

Describe 3 imaging modalities useful in rotator cuff pathology

A

XR: good at demonstrating calcific tendinosis

U/S: good at calcific tendinosis, directs injections

MRI: effectively demonstrates all structures including soft tissue

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8
Q

What are Gilula’s lines?

A

Borders of carpal bones used to assess carpal instability

  • Proximal margin of proximal row (Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrium)
  • Distal margin of proximal row
  • Proximal margins of capitate/hamate
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9
Q

imaging features of rotator cuff tear

A

XR:

  • calcific tendonitis
  • calcification in the coracohumeral ligament
  • cystic changes in greater tuberosity
  • proximal migration of humerus seen with chronic RCT (acromiohumeral interval <7 mm)
  • Type III (hooked) acromion

US: hypoechoic or anechoic defects in which fluid has replaced the area of the torn tendon

MRI: fatty streaks in muscle, humeral head cysts

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10
Q

imaging features of scaphoid fracture

A

Distal fractures in children, waist or middle third in adults

XR: need scaphoid views

CT: less accurate than MRI for occult fractures

MRI: for occult fractures <24 hours, T2 hyperintensity

Bone scan: acute increased radionucleotide uptake

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11
Q

imaging features of osteoarthritis (4)

A
  1. Joint space narrowing
  2. Sclerosis
  3. Subchondral cysts
  4. Osteophytes
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12
Q

Name a fracture associated with ACL rupture

What are 2 MRI findings associated with ACL rupture

A

Segond Fracture: ACL rupture associated with lateral fibular head fracture

Deep sulcus sign: Depressed subchondral plate

Wrinkled tibia (posterior tibia wrinkling subtly) obvious on MRI

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13
Q

What are they? Which requires ORIF

A

A: Colles

B: Smith

C & D: Barton (partial intra-articular)

Barton requires ORIF

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14
Q

Late complications of distal radial fractures (4)

A

Post-traumatic arthritis

Malunion

Tendon rupture

Stiffness

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15
Q

List the 5 ottawa knee rules for XR of the knee post-trauma

A

Aged <55

Tenderness at fibula head

Patellar tenderness

Inability to flex knee to 90 degrees

Inability to weight bear (4 steps, immediately and at presentation)

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16
Q

MRI appearance of ligamentous injury of the knee

A

Bone marrow oedema appears bright on T2

Proton density sequences -> Meniscus black

17
Q

List the 4 ottawa ankle rules

A

High energy injury

Inability to weight bear

Gross swelling

Bony tenderness

18
Q

What is the tibio-fibular clear space? What is its relevance?

A

1 cm above joint, normal clear space is <6mm

see red line

If wider, is marker for syndesmotic injury

19
Q

Describe the imaging appearance of aggressive bone lesions on different imaging modalities

A

DESTRUCTION: permeative

MARGIN: poorly-defined

PERIOSTEAL REACTION: spiculated (lamellated is slightly less aggressive)

20
Q

What are the most common bone tumours in the following age groups

0-10 yo

5-25 yo

10-25 yo

20-40 yo

A

0-10 yo: histiocytosis X or eosinophilic granuloma

5-25 yo: ewing sarcoma

10-25 yo: osteosarcoma

20-40 yo: giant cell tumour

21
Q

What are the most common bone lesions based on the following locations

Epiphyseal

Metaphyseal

Diaphyseal

A

Epiphyseal : chondroblastoma

Metaphyseal: osteosarcoma

Diaphyseal: ewing’s sarcoma

22
Q

What modalities are useful in the diagnosis of bone tumours and what is their specific utility?

A

XR: may be diagnostic

MRI: aids diagnosis, local staging

PET: distant staging

CT: calcification investigation as secondary investigation after XR

U/S: biopsy

23
Q

What is aseptic lymphocytic vasculitis?

A

Adverse reactions to metal debris where particle wear and discharge creates a biological response resulting in soft tissue lesion that impacts on the prosthesis

24
Q

Name 6 types of prosthetic complications

A

Aseptic loosening: due to mechanical stress and osteolysis, often in first 2 years (perioprosthetic radiolucency >2mm for knees, >0.5 for shoulders)

Polyethylene wear: late complication often of TKA, joint space loss +/- tilt

  • Tibial component loosens more frequently than femoral

Particle disease: common in hip prostheses

Infection: in 0.5-2%, often normal on imaging, only through aspiration of fluid that it’s obvious

Component failure: Ceramic liner fracture

Bead shedding: from the outer coating of component

25
Q

What is subsidience?

A

loss of bone substance beneath a component with the result that the component settles into its host bone

26
Q

What are the roles of CT and MRI in looking for prosthetic complications?

A

CT: best for assessing peri-prosthetic bone stock or bone cysts

MRI: good for lymphocytic vasculitis lesions (pseudotumours)