Module 5: ETHICS, LEGAL PRINCIPLES, AND CULTURAL CARE Flashcards

1
Q

Who deteremines the NP scope of practice?

A

o Determine by state legislative statues (state board of nursing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What defines the NP roles and actions?

A

scope of practice

Identifies competencies assumed to be held by all NPs who function in a particular role; varies broadly from one state to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What authority determines standard of practice?

A

o Determined by American Nurses Association (ANA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What defines the stanards of practice?

A

o Authoritative statements regarding the quality and type of practice that should be provided.
o Provide a way to judge nature of care provided.
o Can be used to legally describe standard of care that must be met by a provider, may be precise protocols or more general guidelines.
o The PMHNP is required by law to carry out care in accordance with what other reasonably prudent nurse would do in the same or similar circumstances. Thus, provision of high quality care consistent with established standards is critical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Client’s right to assume that information given to the provider will not be disclosed.

A

Confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False:

HIPAA does not allow the PMHNP to make disclosure about psychotherapy notes for a patient’s condition without authorization.
A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False

You only need one release of information to give information on patient’s chemical and psychiatric infomration to a third part.

A

False, you need 2 seperatr relase of information forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 6 exceptions to confidentiality

A
  1. When appropriate persons or organization determine that the need for information outweighs the principle of confidentiality.
  2. If a client reveals an intent to harm self of others.
  3. Answering court orders, subpoenas, or summonses.
  4. Information given to attorneys involved in litigation.
  5. Releasing records to insurance companies.
  6. Meeting state requirements for mandatory reporting of diseases or conditions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the importance of the Tarasoff Principle

A

(Tarasoff v. Regents at the Univ. of California, 1976): duty to warn potential victim of imminent danger of homicide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False

The Tarasoff principle applies to all states.

A

False
**DOES NOT APPLY IN EVERY STATE!!*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The following criteria make up a ________.

o Communication process between provider and client that results in client’s acceptance or rejection of proposed treatment.
o An explanation of relevant information that enables the client to make an appropriate and informed decision.
o The right of all competent adults or emancipated minors.
o Emancipated minors: persons younger than 18 years old who are married, parents, or self-sufficiently living away from the family domicile.

A

informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 5 elements of an informed consent.

A
  1. Decision capacity: Patients should have the capacity (ability) to make the decision.
  2. Full disclosure: The provider should disclose. Information on the treatment, test, or procedure in question, including the expected benefits and risks, and the likelihood (or probability) that the benefits and risks will occur.
  3. Comprehension: The patient should be able to comprehend the relevant information.
  4. Voluntariness: The patient should voluntarily grant consent, without coercion.
  5. Documentation: Provider must document in medical record that informed consent has been obtained from the client.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If patients are not able to consent for themselves, who can consent for them>

A

family members, court-appointed guardians, or others (determined by state law) may act as “surrogate decision makers” and make decisions for them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Justice

A

doing what is fair; fairness in all aspects of care.

Justice lead us to ensure that care is provided on a fair and equal basis, regardless of patient’s social status, financial status, sexual orientation, or ethnicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

Doing no harm.

**
* EX: Stopping a medication that is causing harmful side effects or discontinuing a treatment strategy that is not effective and may be harmful.**
* Imminent danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Promoting well being and doing good.

A

Beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fidelity

A

Being true and loyal.

* Fidelity comes the Latin “fides” meaning faithfulness. It is concerned with promise keeping, integrity, and honesty.
* It is also involves meeting the patient’s reasonable expectation (role fidelity) such as being respectful, competent, and professional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Veracity

A

Telling the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autonomy

A
  • Right to self-determination.
  • Allow healthcare teams to respect and support a patient’s decision to accept or refuse life sustaining treatments.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which court case ruled that an involuntarily committed patient who has been found incompetent, absent an emergency, has a qualified right to refuse psychotropic medication.

A

Rennie Vs. Klein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Respect

A

Treating everyone with equal respect.

22
Q

What is veracity?

A

Veracity focuses on truthfulness and providing accurate information to patients.

23
Q

What is fidelity?

A

Fidelity focuses on loyalty, trustworthiness, and keeping promises within the healthcare relationship.

24
Q

What is the difference between fidelity and veracity?

A

Veracity is primarily concerned with communication and the ethical obligation to be honest and transparent.

Fidelity extends beyond communication to encompass loyalty, trust, and maintaining the integrity of the healthcare relationship.

25
Q

What does PICOT stand for?

A

P = patient, population
I = intervention
C = comparison (another treatment or therapy, placebo)
O = outcome
T = time

26
Q

What are the 5 levels of evidence starting with the highest level.

A
  1. systematic reviews
  2. randomized controlled trials
  3. cohort studies
  4. case control studies
  5. case series, case reports
  6. editorials, expert opinions
27
Q

What qualigies as level I evidence?

A

Evidence from systemic review or meta-analysis of all relevant RCTs (randomized controlled trial) or evidence-based clinical practice guidelines based on systemic review of RCTs or three or more RCTs of good quality that have similar results.

28
Q

Level II evidence comes from _____

A

at least one well designed RCT (e.g.: multi site RCT)

29
Q

What do PMHNPs follow when educating their clients, clients’ families, and the community about mental health, psychiatric illness, and effective management of illness.

A

empirical evidence

30
Q

What is an important aspect of education?

A

It helps to reduce stigma.

31
Q

What is included in Rights of Patients

A

Confidentiality, informed consent, least restrictive environment, give consent for treatment and withdraw consent at any time.

32
Q

What is a health policy?

A
  • Decisions, actions, and plans by a group, community, or organization, to achieve specific healthcare goals; developed through laws and regulation.
33
Q

What are the 4 components of a health policy.

A
  1. Process: formulation, implementation, and evaluation (FIE)
  2. Policy reform: changes in programs and practices
  3. Policy environment: arena that process takes place in (govt., media, public)
  4. policy makers, key players and stake holders.

o Assess/address organizational barriers and facilitators.
o Meet/brainstorm with stake holders.

34
Q

What does patient advocacy entail?

A
  • A nurse advocate ensures that patients’ autonomy and self-determination are respected.
  • Reduce the stigma of mental illness (Education)
  • Help clients receive available services
  • Advocating is getting up, showing and telling people the value of what you do as a PMHNP
  • Promote mental health by participating in one or more of these professional
35
Q

What are 3 nursing organizations can you get involved int to promote mental health?

A

 American Nurses Association (ANA)
 American Psychiatric Nurses Association (APNA)
 International Society of Psychiatric Nurses (ISPN)

36
Q

what is a just culture?

A
  • A just culture seeks to create an environment that encourages individuals to report mistakes so that the precursors to error can be better understood in order to fix system issues.
  • In a just culture, individuals are continually learning, designing safe systems, and managing behavioral choices.
37
Q

**Key principles of a just culture:

A
  1. Learning Culture: Encouraging a culture of continuous learning and improvement rather than a culture of blame.
  2. Accountability: Holding individuals accountable for their actions but distinguishing between human error, at-risk behavior, and reckless behavior.
  3. Fairness: Ensuring that the consequences or sanctions are proportionate to the behavior and intentions of the individual involved.
  4. Transparency: Promoting open and transparent reporting of incidents and near-misses to identify systemic issues.
  5. Non-Punitive Approach: Focusing on systems and process improvements rather than punishing individuals for honest mistakes.
38
Q

What is a quality improvement?

A

Projects designed to improve systems, decrease cost, and improve productivity.
For example, a retrpspective chart review, patient safety rounds, fall prevention programs.

Process of Quality improvement (PDSA)

39
Q
A
40
Q

Process of quality improvement can be PDSA cycle:

A
  • Plan: Plan the change; Identifying a problem or area for improvement, setting specific objectives, and planning the changes to be made.
  • Do: Carry out the plan; Implementing the planned changes on a small scale to test their effectiveness.
  • Study: Examine the results; Evaluating the results of the changes to see if they led to the desired improvements.
  • Act: Decide what actions will improve the process; If the changes were successful, implementing them on a larger scale; if not, revising the plan and trying again.
41
Q

What is a root cause analysis (RCA)

A

as a collective term that describes a wide range of approaches, tools, and techniques used to uncover causes of problems.

42
Q

What are Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (FMEA)

A

is a systematic, proactive method for evaluating a process to identify where and how it might fail and to assess the relative impact of different failures, in order to identify the part of the process that are more in need of change.

43
Q

the ability to practice nursing that meets the needs of clients care by using logical thinking and accurate nursing skills

A

core competency

44
Q

it looks at forces that are either driving movement toward a goal (helping forces) or block movement toward a goal (hindering forces)

A

Force field analysis

45
Q

an ongoing process and information necessary to address those risk in a timely manner.

A

Risk analysis

46
Q

Reflective practice involves:

A

Linking theory to practice.

Debriefing strategies
Culturally Competent Mental Health Care

Cultural competency describes the ability to effectively interact with people belonging to different cultures.

It is the active process of taking each patient’s background into account when providing treatment, as well as respecting cultural beliefs, heritage, and traditions.

47
Q

Culturally competent and effective staff are:

A
  • Patient and family centered.
  • Respectful and non-judgmental.
  • Able to appropriately change their approach in response to different cultural situations.
  • Understand and consider culture, economic and educational status, health literacy level, family patterns and situation, and traditions (including alternative and folk remedies); communicate in language and at a level that the client understands.
48
Q

this popular theory encourages learners to build on past experiences and knowledge, use their intuition, imagination and creativity, and search for new information to discover fact, correlation, and new truths.

A

Discovery learning theory

49
Q

is a student centered approach in which students learn about subject by working in groups to solve an open ended problem.

A

Problem based learning

50
Q

What is existentialism

A

Philosophy that emphasizes individual existence, freedom, and choice.

  • It is the view that humans define their own meaning in life and try to make rational decisions existing in an irrational universe (a philosophy based on the belief that the universe is irrational and meaningless and that the search for order brings the individual into conflict with the universe).
  • It focuses on the question of human existence, and the feeling that there is no purpose or explanation at the core of existence.

* Existentialism believes that individuals are entirely free and must take personal responsibility for themselves.

* Emphasizes accepting freedom, taking action, and believes that individuals must take personal responsibility for themselves