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Biom1071 > Module 4: Reproductive System > Flashcards

Module 4: Reproductive System Flashcards

1
Q

What are gonads?

A
  1. Ovaries
  2. Testies
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2
Q

Are ovaries connected to the fallopian tubes?

A

No, they’re attach to a ligament

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3
Q

Are fallopian tubes unidirectional?

A

No, they’re bidriectional

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4
Q

What is the structure of the ovaries?

A
  1. strong matrix (connective tissue, nerves, lymphatic and blood vessels
  2. Follicles
  3. Tunica albuginea
  4. Surface epithelium
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5
Q

What is the name of the follicle that has been developed during birth

A

Primordial follice

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6
Q

What are the 7 phases of follicles?

A
  1. Primordial follicle
  2. Primary follicle
  3. Secondary follicle
  4. Early Antral follicle
  5. Antral follicle
  6. Preovulatory follicle
  7. Ovulatory follicle
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7
Q

What size follicle is estrogen produced by?

A

Larger follicles

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8
Q

When does menopause start?

A

When there’s about <1000 primordial follicles

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9
Q

What are the different cell types during folliculargenesis?

A
  1. Oocyte
  2. Granulosa cells
  3. Basement membrane
  4. Inner and outer theca cells
  5. Stromal cells
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10
Q

What is the cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte after ovulation?

A

Cumulus cells

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11
Q

How does primordial and preantral cells grow?

A

From factors release by the ovary. They are gonadotropin independent (no gonadal receptors)

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12
Q

What does exogenous mean?

A

To have external factors affecting your development

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13
Q

When are gonadotropin receptors developed?

A

In the early antral and preovulatory phases

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14
Q

Where are the gonadotropin receptors developed?

A

On the granulosa cells

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15
Q

What factor does follicles create themselves?

A

Inhibin

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16
Q

Why do follicles create inhibin?

A

To create a negative feedback loop to the pituitary gland so only 1 egg becomes dominant

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17
Q

Which follicles create high oestogen?

A

Early and antral follicles

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18
Q

Which follicles creates high amount of oestogen for 24 hours?

A

Preovulatory

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19
Q

What are the 4 phases of arrest in meiosis?

A

Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telaphase

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20
Q

When does mitosis happen in oogenesis?

A

Prenatal only

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21
Q

When does the primary oocyte arrest?

A

Prophase 1

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22
Q

Which follicles grow during prophase 1?

A

Primordial into secondary

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23
Q

When is meiosis 1 complete?

A

From childhood to adolescent, becomes an antral follicle.. will arrest at metaphase 2

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24
Q

When does meiosis 2 complete?

A

After fertilisation

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25
Q

What happens to polar bodies?

A

They degenerate

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26
Q

What is the life cycle of an oocyte?

A

Primordial germ cell migrates to gonads
Becomes oogonia and begins meiosis
Becomes oocyte
Primordial follicle
Primary follicle
Secondary follicle
Early antral follicle
Antral follicle
Preovulatory follicle
Fetus
Baby

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27
Q

What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal-axis?

A

The loop relationship between gonadoreleasing hormones and see hormones

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28
Q

Describe the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal-axis

A
  1. Hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary gland to release GnRH
  2. Anterior pituitary releases LH and FSH
  3. FSH and LH moves to the gonadotropin to stimulate follicle growth
  4. Follicles sends negative feedback loop back to AP and Hypo through inhibin to stop the release of FSH and LH

This is done in a pulsatile fashion

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29
Q

Why is hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal-axis done in a pulsatile fashion?

A

The gonadotrope cells become desensitised to GnRH. Which will reduce LH and FSH release, which will reduce steroid production

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30
Q

What will a fast pulse of GnRH achieve?

A

Increased LH

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31
Q

What will a slow pulse of GnRH achieve?

A

Increase FSH

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32
Q

What is the 2 cell gonadotropin hypothesis?

A
  1. Cholesterol is released by the blood to the theca cells where the g couple protein receptor LHR accepts LH. This produces androgen (steroids- testosterone)
  2. Androgens move across basement membrane of granulosa cells and triggers the FSHR to accept FSH.
  3. Activation causes the enzyme aromatase to release and convert androgens to oestrogens
  4. The peptide hormone inhibin creates a negative feedback loop to reduce release of LH and FSH from the pituitary gland
  5. This causes smaller eggs to deteriorate and enables and single egg to fertilize
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33
Q

How is ovulation initated?

A

Through a surge of LH via a positive feedback loop due to oestogen.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the corpus luteum?

A

To crate progesterone, which maintains the pregnancy

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35
Q

What happens to the corpus luteum if no pregnancy?

A

It deteriorates and menstruation occurs

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36
Q

What is another name for the menstrual cycle?

A

Uterine cycle

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37
Q

Define the uterine cycle

A

A cyclic change in endometrium in response to fluctuating ovarian hormone levels

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38
Q

Des rive the timeline and phases of the uterine cycle

A
  1. Days 1-5 menstrual phase
  2. Days 6-14 proliferative phase (preovulatory)
  3. Days 15-28 secretary phase (post ovulatory)
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39
Q

What are the 2 layers of the endometrium?

A

Basal and functional

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40
Q

Which layer sloughs from the endometrium?

A

Functional layer

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41
Q

How does endometrium thicken?

A
  1. A spike in endometrium just before ovulation also causes a spike in LH
  2. This creates the corpus luteum, and a progesterone spike
  3. These spikes cause a thickening of the endometrium
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42
Q

Describe the actions of estrogen in reproductive organs

A
  1. Within the ovary thr developing follicle and corpus luteum is the major source of oestrogen
  2. It is stimulated by the release of LH and FSH which creates both positive and negative feedback loops to control gonadotropin within the pituitary gland.
  3. These factors stimulate growth and maturation of the reproductive organs , promote the proliferative phase of the uterine cycle, stimulate watery mucus production ans activity of fimbrar and uterine tube cilia
  4. During pregnancy the mammary glands and genetlilia swell
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43
Q

Describe the actions of progesterone on reproductive organs

A
  1. The corpus luteum is the major source of progesterone and is stimulated by the release of LH to create a negative feedback loop of gonadotropin vie the anterior pituitary gland
  2. It co-operates with oestrogen to enlarge breasts, promote secretary phase of uterine cycle and creates viscous mucus production
  3. It enhances the beating of cilia in uterine tube, promotion sperm and egg meeting.
  4. During pregnancy it quietens myometrium and helps mammary glands produce milk
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44
Q

At what age does the suspension ligament elongate?

A

10-15 weeks, in utero

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45
Q

Why do testes hangoutsidr of the body?

A

Thermoregulation

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46
Q

What is the life cycle of sperm?

A
  1. Gonacyte (newborns)
  2. Spermatogonia
  3. Primary spermatoyte
  4. Secondary spermatocyte
  5. Spermatid
  6. Spermatozoon
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47
Q

What is the pampiniform venous plexus?

A

The veins and arteries within the scrotum to draw heat away from the testes

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48
Q

What is a cremastor muscle?

A

The muscle that moves the testes up and down for thermal regulation

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49
Q

What is the dartos muscle?

A

Afascia muscle that causes the scrotum to wrinkle, increasing surface area, allowing for cooling to occur faster

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50
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

In seminiferous tubules

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51
Q

What is the rete testis?

A

A passage for sperm to move into the epididimus

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the epididmus in the male reproductive system?

A

To give sperm the ability to swim, it takes about 20 days. Before moving into the vas defrens

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53
Q

What is the purpose of the vas defrens in the male reproductive system?

A

Soerm ejaculation

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54
Q

What area of the male reproductive system is sperm stored?

A

The epididmus, for several months

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55
Q

Describe the features of the intratubular compartment of the testis

A
  1. Lines with complex stratified germinal cells
  2. Contains sperm and sertoli cells
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56
Q

Describe the features of the peritubular in the testes

A
  1. Contains androgens made by leydig cells
  2. Has neuronal and vascular elements
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57
Q

What cells great sperm?

A

Sertoli cells

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58
Q

Where do sperm first start in the sertoli cell?

A

On the basal layer and move into the lumen

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59
Q

Describe the process of spermogenesis

A
  1. Stem cell spermatogonium (diploid) undergoes mitosis
  2. Primary spermatocyte (diploid)undergoes meiosis 1
  3. Secondary spermatocyte (haploid) undergoes meiosis 2
  4. Spermatids undergo spermatogenesis
  5. Spermatozoa is formed and moves into epididmus
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60
Q

What is the function of sertoli cells?

A
  1. Maintains the blood testis barrier
  2. Provides nutrients
  3. Moves developing aperm towards lumen
  4. Secretes testicular fluid for sperm transport
  5. Phagocytosis in the vas defrens
  6. Produces androgen binding protein (ABP)
  7. Creates inhibit to initiate a negative feedback loop of FSH
    8
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61
Q

When does meiosis occur in males?

62
Q

Why does the sertoli cell have a blood testis barrier?

A

Meiosis into a hapliod cell makes the sperm a foreign body. The blood will detect it as foreign and try to kill it with WBC

63
Q

What are the 2 areas created from the tight junction in sertoli cells?

A
  1. Basal compartment (vascular)
  2. Alumina compartment (avascular)
64
Q

What happens during spermiogenesis?

A

Cytodifferentiation occurs, for defective delivery of chromosomes into the oocyte

65
Q

What happens during mitosis in a sertoli cell?

A
  1. Type A daughter cells stay in the basal membrane to maintain a pool of viable dividing cells
  2. Type B daughter cells move towards the lumen and create spermatocytes
66
Q

Why is there a 15% difference of error between spermatocytes and oocytes?

A

Age of eggs

67
Q

What happens to a spermatid during spermatogenesis?

A
  1. Becomes more streamline
  2. Grows a tail
  3. Loses excess cytoplasm
  4. Speratid elongates
68
Q

What are the features of a sperm?

A
  1. Head with an cromosome cap (enzymatic knife) and nucleus
  2. Midpiece with mitochondria and olfactory epithelium
  3. Tail
69
Q

Is the HPG axis the same in men and women?

70
Q

How does the HPG indirectly stimulate spermatogensis?

A

Causes sertoli cell to release ABP which concentrates testosterone

71
Q

What does LH stimulate and why?

A

Stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone

72
Q

How is testosterone created in leydig cells?

A

From cholesterol being processed in their smooth ER. This enables gonad production

73
Q

What stages of males life is there a testosterone surge?

A

3-9 months before birth
Puberty until about 60, then starts to wa e slightly

74
Q

How does the oocyte move from ovum to fallopian tube?

A

It is swept up by cilia on fimbrae and moved into the infundibulum of the fallopian tube

75
Q

Where is an oocyte fertilized in the fallopian tube?

A

In the ampulla, it is now a zygote

76
Q

Where does the zygote travel after the ampulla

A

Through the isthmus and into the uterus

77
Q

What facilitates egg transfer across the fallopian tube?

A

Cillia and muscular contractions

78
Q

Where does capacitation occur in the fallopian tube?

A

In the isthmus

79
Q

What areas of the fallopian tube support embryonic development?

A

Ampulla and isthmus

80
Q

How does ovulation affect the beat frequency of the fallopian duct?

A

High oestrogen increases beat frequency of cilia and smooth muscle contraction

81
Q

Where does the zygote stop after fertilisation?

A

It halts in the ampulla until the ovary moves into the luteal phase. This creates increased progesterone

82
Q

What happens if there is high levels of P⁴?

A

Decreases beat frequency and relaxes the smooth muscle

83
Q

Why is there a halt of the zygote in the ampulla?

A

To allow the early embryo grow to be ready for implantation

84
Q

What hormone does the cumulus cells secrete?

A

Progesterone

85
Q

What are the functions of the epidimus?

A
  1. Matures sperm cells
  2. DNA stabilization
  3. Chromatic condensation and concentration
86
Q

What are the seminal vesicles?

A

70-75% alkaline and fructose rich solution to feed spermatocyte

87
Q

What are the 3 glands of the male reproductive system?

A
  1. Seminal vesicles: nutrients
  2. Prostate: enhances sperm motility, antimicrobial, proteases
  3. Bulbo-urethral glands: secretes mucus and neutralizes acid from urethra due to urine
88
Q

What is the pathway of sperm?

A
  1. Ducts vans defrens
  2. Ampulla of ducts defrens
  3. Ejaculated duct
  4. Urethra
89
Q

What is seminal plasma?

A

The non sperm component to create an alkaline environment, neutralizing the acidic vagina

90
Q

What is the role of fibrinogen in ejaculation?

A

It coagulates the ejaculate to create a sperm deposit in the vagina

91
Q

What is the role of seminal plasma?

A
  1. To create fibrinogen for ejaculate clotting
  2. Coat sperm with capacitation inhibitors
  3. Activates and augments motility of sperm cells
  4. Supplies nutrients for ATP production
  5. After 15-20 minutes the enzyme fibrinolsin fluidises the ejaculate by breaking down fibrinogen
92
Q

What is the anatomy of the penis?

A
  1. 3x longitudinal columns of erectile tissue
  2. Corpora cavernousa
  3. Corpus spongiosum
  4. Dorsal vessels and nerves
  5. Deep arteries
  6. Spongy urethra
93
Q

Why does the penis become erect?

A
  1. The engorgement of corpa cavernosa via vascular and neurological events
  2. Non distensible connective tissue causes stiffening
94
Q

What tubes are active during ejaculation?

A
  1. Vas defrens
  2. Prostate
  3. Seminal vesicles
  4. Smooth muscle
  5. Seminal glands
95
Q

What happens to sperm during their journey to fertilisation?

A
  1. Swim 16-20cm to ampulla
  2. Most either: fall out, killed by acid, die on the way or get lost.
96
Q

How does the uterus aid sperm transport?

A
  1. Endometrial secretion provides nutrients
  2. Changes mucus consistency to be more fluid to enable easier transport (decrease P⁴=decrease mucus viscosity
  3. Aids capacitation
97
Q

How does the oocyte attract the sperm?

A

By releasing chemoattractants a s P⁴ (created by cumulus cells), which the sperms olfactory epithelium picks up.

98
Q

What happens to sperm in the isthmus?

A

Sperm binds to the isthmus to complete capacitation and synchronizes timing between egg and oocyte for arrival to the ampulla

99
Q

Why is capacitation needed?

A

The non-covalently bound epididymal/seminal glycoproteins and sterols (cholesterol) means that the sperm can’t fertilise the egg.

Capacitation removes these from the head of the sperm.

100
Q

What happens to sperm motility during hyperactivstion during capacitation?

A

It increases motility

101
Q

Why is the female reproductive tract ideal for capacitation?

A
  1. High acid environment
  2. Proteolytic enzymes enable sterol-binding albumin
  3. High ionic strength increases colubikity to dissolve factors from sperm
102
Q

Explain fertilisation

A

The acrosome reaction is initiated by the sperm contacting the Zona pellucia. The acrosome swells and multiple points of fusion occur between the outer acrosomal membrane and plasma membrane. The contents of the acrosome is released, inclusive of proteolytuc enzymes.

This enables the sperm to bind with thr plasma membrane of the oocyte

103
Q

Explain fertilisation

A
  1. Acrosome reaction:sperm contacts Zona pellucida and Acrosome swells
  2. Multiple sites of fusion occur between plasma membrane and outer acrosomal membrane
  3. Acrosome bursts, contents such as proteolytic enzymes are released.
  4. Fusion between and oocyte occurs
104
Q

What is Zona pellucida in an oocyte?

A

An acellular glucoprotein coat around that is synthesis and secreted by the oocyte

105
Q

What is the purpose of the Zona pellucida?

A

Means the oocyte is viable for 12-24 hours after ovulation and enables fertilisation

106
Q

Describe the process of acrosome reaction ans sperm penetration

A
  1. Hyalurondiase on head of sperm digests matrix between cumulus cells, exposing the Zona pellucida
  2. Sperm binds to Zona pellucida receptors triggering Ca2+ channels to open on sperm (catsper channels) triggering hyperactivation and acrosome reaction
  3. Acrosine is released which digests the Zona pellucida (can be done by multiple sperms)
  4. First sperm successfully inside chemotaxis’ to ooleme and binds
  5. Only centrioles enter oocyte and a membrane block occurs due to the sperm binding receptors shedding from oocyte membrane
  6. A corticol reaction occurs. Where Ca2+ surges from intracellular ER triggering cortical granules to fuse to oocyte plasma membrane and undergo exocytosis into the Zona pellucida.
  7. This causes zona reaction: a hardening of the Zona pellucida and destroys the Zona pellucida binding receptors
107
Q

What is a Ca2+ spiking pattern?

A

A spike of Ca2+ over a couple of hours after ejaculation to facilitate fertilisation

108
Q

What is the result of the Ca2+ spikes?

A
  1. Resumption of meiosis 2 “oocyte reaction”
  2. Hardening of Zona pelucia
  3. Preservation of euploid
109
Q

What is the process of fertilisation?

A
  1. Meiotic division completes: Ovum and 2nd polar body formed due to Ca2+ spikes
  2. Formation of male and female pronuclei
  3. DNA from each pronuclei replicate, moves together and forms a mitotic spindle - nuclear envelope
  4. Maternal and paternal chromosomes combine to form a diploid zygote
  5. Fertilisation!
110
Q

How long after fertilisation does pronuceli form?

111
Q

What does the sperm contribute to fertilisation?

A

Centrioles during spindle formation during cytokinesis

112
Q

What does the oocyte contribute to fertilisation?

A
  1. Cell membrane
  2. Cytoplasm
  3. Organelles
  4. Mitochondria
113
Q

What is preimplantation?

A
  1. The movement of the embryo through the fallopian tubes to the uterus
  2. Cleavage of the zygote to form bkastomeres occurs at this time too
114
Q

What is clevage?

A

Rapid mitotic division of zygotes within the Zona pellucia

115
Q

Why does cleavage occur I na zygote?

A

To increase surface area of the zygote to increase nutrient and oxygen uptake, and waste disposal

116
Q

What does a blastomere turn into after creating about 16 cells?

117
Q

What is a morula?

A

A solid ball of cells within a zygote

118
Q

What are the 5 stages of embryonic development?

A
  1. Zygote
  2. 4 cell stage
  3. Morula
  4. Early blastocyte
  5. Mature blastocyte
119
Q

What’s the difference between early and mature blastocyte?

A

Mature doesn’t have Zona palucia

120
Q

What is the structure of an early blastocyte?

A
  1. Zona pellucida
  2. Trophoblast
  3. Embryoblast
  4. Blastocyte cavity
121
Q

What are the 5 stages of blastocyte implantation?

A
  1. Day 4: early blastocyte hatches from Zona pellucida, floats around for 2-3 days then attaches to the endometrium (nutrients from uterine fluid and glands)
  2. Day 6-7 implantation: trophoblast cells adhere to endometrial epithelium. Inflammation initiated
  3. Day 7: invasion: trophoblast invades uterine wall, proliferates and differentiates into cytotrophoblast (inner) and syncytiotrophoblast (outer
  4. Day 9 continuation: embryoblasts differentiate into 2 layers: epiblast (foetus) + hypoblast (yolk sac) = embryonic disc
  5. Day 11-12 complete: blastocyst completes invasion, cells close over of endometrium, corpus luteum maintained by human chorionicgonadotropin ( hCG)
122
Q

What is a cytotrophoblast?

A

A group of cells that have differentiated from trophoblasts to surround the blastocyte. Has minimal influence on placental development

123
Q

What is Syncytiotrophoblast?

A

Differentiated cells from trophoblast that has invaded the endometrial wall, creating the placenta

124
Q

What are the 2 types of contraception?

A
  1. Hormonal
  2. Non hormonal
125
Q

What are the different ways of administering contraception?

A
  1. Oral
  2. Injection
  3. Implant
  4. IUD
  5. Condom
126
Q

Hiw does the combined oral contraceptive work?

A
  1. High plasma oestrogen causes a negative feedback loop but doesn’t cause a LH surge.
  2. Inhibits secretion of FSH which stops maturation of follicles, so no ovulation
127
Q

Hiw does progestin work for contraceptives?

A

Inhibits the synthesis of of LH via negative feedback loop. This stop the surge that triggers ovulation

128
Q

How do both types of oral contraception work with the hypothalamus?

A

They reduce the production of GnRH, which reduces LH and FSH

129
Q

What does high levels of progesterone do to the cervix?

A

Creates a thick mucus, which forms a plug. This prevents sperm gaining access to the uterus

130
Q

What does high levels of oestrogen do to the uterus?

A

Creates a watery mucus which enables smooth travel to the uterus

131
Q

How does the oral contraceptive work?

A

Through monophonic spikes, which is why they need to be taken daily.

132
Q

What are the non oral, hormonal contraceptives

A
  1. Vaginal ring
  2. Injection
  3. Implant
  4. Hormonal IUD
133
Q

What is a LARC?

A

Long Acting Reversible Contracteptive
E.g. implant, injection, IUD

134
Q

What are the non hormonal contraceptives?

A
  1. Condom
  2. Copper IUD
135
Q

What are common causes of infertility in women?

A
  1. Endocrine abnormality (hypothalamic dysfunction/pituitary disease)
  2. Ovarian dysfunction (PCOS, abnormal follicle development, pre azure ovarian failure)
  3. Implantation abnormality (Luteal phase deficiency, reduced progesterone production, delayed maturation of endometrium)
136
Q

What is the most common endocrine disorder?

A

Poly Cystic Ovary Syndrome

137
Q

How does PCOS cause I fertility?

A

Disrupts follicle development from early antral phase and arrests so the theca cell hyperproliferates, creating a lot of androgens (more testosterone)

138
Q

What metabolic features cause infertility in both sexes?

A
  1. Increased obesity
  2. Insulin resistance
  3. Type 2 diabetes
  4. CVS diseasesemesters?
  5. Stress
  6. Smoking
  7. Alcohol
139
Q

What anatomical abnormalities can cause infertility?

A
  1. Tubal disease: inflammatory scarring (STIs, pelvic inflammatory disease)
  2. Septic abortion
  3. Surgery
  4. IUD scalpinitis
140
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

An abnormal growth of endometrial outside of the uterus

141
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Pain and bleeding due to tissue reacting to hormones same wY it would in the uterus
10% women

142
Q

What are the causes of infertility in men?

A
  1. Varicole:dilation of pampiniform plexus (increases temp. Reduce sperm quality)
  2. Vas defrens blockage
  3. Retrograde ejaculation
  4. Hypogonadaltropic hypogonadism (Kallman syndrome)
  5. Sperm count, motility, structure, stickiness
143
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility?

A

A woman’s age

144
Q

What is AMH?

A

Antimullerian Hormone: produced by granulosa cells in primary, secondary and antral follicles.

This inhibits excessive activation of primordial to primary follicles

145
Q

What does blood tests and ultrasounds check for regarding infertility?

A
  1. PCOS
  2. Endometriosis
  3. Ovulation
  4. Fibroids
  5. Polyps
  6. Ovarian cysts
  7. AMH
146
Q

How can semen to analysed to determine fertility?

A
  1. Count
  2. Motility
  3. Morphology
  4. Volume
  5. Consistency
  6. pH
  7. Leukocytes
  8. Fructose levels
147
Q

What is ART?

A

Assisted Reproductive Technology: manipulating both soerm and egg in lab and returning to woman

1 in 25 are art babies

148
Q

What is IVF?

A
  1. Hormones given to woman in controlled manner to hyperstimulate ovulation.
  2. About 8 embryos are collected by flushing out the uterus with warm media
  3. Put into diskh with capacitated sperm and placed back to woman after 5-6 days
149
Q

What Is ICSI?

A

IntraCytoplasmic Sperm Injection: male infertility, 1 sperm injected directly to egg
Indicating increased risk of health to children

150
Q

How are hormones controlled in ART?

A
  1. Daily injection of FSH to increase follicle growth (ultrasound monitored)
  2. Injection of LH to induce resumption of meiosis in oocyte (36-40 hours after injection
  3. GnRH agonist given continuously prior and during gonadotropin to suppress natural ovulation
  4. Progesterone given during luteal phase to support embryo after transfer
151
Q

What are the contraindications to ART?

A
  1. Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS)
  2. PCOS
  3. Fatal
  4. Multiple borth rate
  5. Preterm delivery
  6. Low birth weight babies
  7. Miscarriage or no pregnancy (20% livebith)
  8. Costly
  9. Emotionally draining

Biom1071 (6 decks)

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