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PACOP BLUE > Module 4: Pharmacology > Flashcards

Module 4: Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A stereoisomer of methylated derivative of levorphanol used as antitussive:
    A. Noscapine
    B. Levopropoxyphene
    C. Codeine
    D. Dextromethorphan
A

D. Dextromethorphan

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2
Q
  1. An example of a weakly basic prodrug that when protonated, form covalent disulfide linkages with H+/K+ ATPase and inactivates it:
    A. Maalox®
    B. Nexium®
    C. Tagamet®
    D. Buscopan®
A

B. Nexium®

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3
Q
  1. Anti-ulcerant drugs exert their effect through which of the following mechanism/s:
    I. Stimulation of protein kinases that phosphorylate H+
    /K+ ATPase
    II. Preventing histamine from binding to its receptor in parietal cells.
    III. Activate inhibitory proteins that block histaming activation of adenylate cyclase.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

D. II and III only

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4
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding the action of opioid analgesics.
    Statement 1: It decreases the resonse to pain stimuli through enhancement of neuronal K+ influx.
    Statement 2: It decreases neurotransmitter release through stimulation of Ca++ influx.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

D. Both statements are wrong

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5
Q
  1. Which H2-receptorblocker has an almost complete oral bioavailability?
    A. Nizatidine
    B. Famotidine
    C. Ranitidine
    D. cimetidine
A

A. Nizatidine

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are true about Zyflo®, an anti-asthmatic medication?
    I. A 5-epoxygenase inhibitor, containing zilueton as its active ingredient.
    II. A 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor, containing zilueton as its active ingredient.
    III. A 5-epoxygenase inhibitor, containing zafirlukast as its active ingredient.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

B. II only

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7
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding emetics.
    Statement 1: These are drugs that induce vomiting.
    Statement 2: They may cause a vomiting reflex by irritating the upper GI tract.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

C. Both statements are correct

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8
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding laxatives.
    Statement 1: They accelerate fecal passage in the colon.
    Statement 2: They increase fecal consistency.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong

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9
Q
  1. Different antacids are combined in a single preparation to:
    I. Antagonize the side effect of the other component.
    II. Obtain a product with a rapid onset and sustained action.
    III. Lower the dose of each component.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

E. I, II and III

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10
Q
  1. Antacids prevent the formation of this proteolytic enzyme that is thought to mediate tissue injury in gastric ulceration.
    A. Pepsin
    B. Pepsinogen
    C. Chymotrypsin
    D. Chymotripsinogen
A

A. Pepsin

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11
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding the action of Theo-Dur®.
    Statement 1: It promotes the decline of cAMP levels in the lungs.
    Statement 2: It inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct

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12
Q
  1. Gastric acid secretion by parietal cells is/are regulated by:
    I. Neurocrine cells
    II. Paracrine cells
    III. Endocrine cells
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

E. I, II and III

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13
Q
  1. The drug of choice fr the management of respiratory depression induced by opioid analgesics:
    A. Narcan®
    B. Nubain®
    C. Revex®
    D. Depade®
A

A. Narcan®

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14
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding DuoNeb®.
    Statement 1: This preparation contains salbutamol ( a beta – 2 agonist) and ipratropium (an antimuscarinic agent).
    Statement 2: This also contains guaifenesin to expectorate mucus production.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong

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15
Q
  1. Antitussive medications exert their effect through:
    I. Depression of the medullary center.
    II. Increasing the threshold of peripheral reflexogenous zones.
    III. Interuruption of tussal impulses in the afferent limb of the cough reflex.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

E. I, II and III

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16
Q
  1. This acts as the common mediator and the most potent stimulus of gastric acid secretion:
    A. Acetylcholine
    B. Histamine
    C. Gastrin
    D. None of the above
A

B. Histamine

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17
Q
  1. One of the most common adverse effect associated with inhaled corticosteroids:
    A. Huskiness of voice
    B. Dysphonia
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

C. All of the above

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18
Q
  1. Prostaglandin analogs increases gastric mucosal resistance to injury by:
    I. Increasing mucus secretion
    II. Increasing bicarbonate secretion
    III. Increasing gastric emptying time
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

C. I and II only

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19
Q
  1. Aspirin’s anti-inflammatory effect is due to:
    A. Its reversible acetylation of COX.
    B. Its irreversible acetylation of COX.
    C. Its reversible salicylation of COX.
    D. Its irreversible salicylation of COX
A

B. Its irreversible acetylation of COX.

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20
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding the action of prostaglandin analogs. Statement 1. It inhibits
    gastric acid secretion. Statement 2: It increases gastric mucosal protection.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

D. Both statements are wrong

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following inhaled corticosteroids is/are equipotent with flunisolide in the management of asthma?
    I. Beclomethasone diproprionate
    II. Triamcinolone acetonide
    III. Budesonide
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

B. II only

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22
Q
  1. Antacids are compared quantitatively in terms of acid-neutralizing capacity (ANC). ANC is defined as the:
    A. # of mmol of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro.
    B. # of mEq of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro.
    C. # of mOsmol of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro.
    D. # of mEq of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vivo.
A

B. # of mEq of HCl required to maintain 1mL of an antacid suspension at pH 3 for 2hrs in vitro.

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23
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding leukotrienes:
    Statement 1: Leukotriene D4 is a potent bronchodilator.
    Statement 2: It is synthesized from arachidic acid.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

D. Both statements are wrong

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24
Q
  1. H2- receptor antagonists inhibit:
    I. Histamine – stimulated acid secretion.
    II. Acetylcholine - stimulated acid secretion
    III. Gastrin - stimulated acid secretion
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

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25
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding cycloxygenase. Statement 1: COX-1 isoenzyme contains
    isoleucine as the amino acid at position 523. Statement 2: COX- 2 isoenzyme contains valine as the amino
    acid at position 523 for selective binding of COX-2 inhibitors.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

C. Both statements are correct

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26
Q
  1. Considered as one of the major inhibitor of dastric acid secretion through its inhibition of histamine release
    from ECL cells:
    A. Somastostatin
    B. Somatostatin
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

B. Somatostatin

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following antacids has a slow onset of action?
    I. Aluminum hydroxide
    II. Calcium carbonate
    III. Magnesium hydroxide
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

A. I only

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28
Q
  1. Evaluate the following:
    Statement 1: Mucolytics increase the amount of respiratory tract fluid so that demulcent action s exerted.
    Statement 2: Expectorants decrease the viscosity of bronchial secretions and facilitate their elimination.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

D. Both statements are wrong

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29
Q
  1. Which is the correct sequence for decreasing potency of inhaled corticosteroids?
    A. Fluticasong proprionate > beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone acetonide > Budesonide
    B. beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone acetonide > Budesonide > Fluticasong proprionate
    C. Fluticasong proprionate > Budesonide > beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone acetonide
    D. None of the above
A

C. Fluticasong proprionate > Budesonide > beclomethasone dipropionate > Triamcinolone acetonide

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30
Q
  1. Which of the ff antacid/s has a long duration of action?
    I. Aluminum hydroxide
    II. Calcium carbonate
    III. Magnesium hydroxide
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

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31
Q
  1. Which COX-2 inhibitor has the highest COX – 2 : COX 1 selectivity ratio?
    A. Celecoxib
    B. Etoricoxib
    C. Rofecoxib
    D. Valdecoxib
    E. I, II, and III
A

B. Etoricoxib

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32
Q
  1. Evaluate the ff:
    Statement 1: Singulair® contains montelukast as active ingredient.
    Statement 2: This drug prevents inflammation and promotes broncodilation.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

C. Both statements are correct

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33
Q
  1. Attempts are made to selectively inhibit COX – 2 for pain relief because:
    I. COX – 2 tends to facilitate inflammatory response.
    II. COX – 1 tends to be homeostatic in function.
    III. COX – 2 has cardioprotective effects
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

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34
Q
  1. What is the final common pathway of acid secretion in the stomach?
    A. Proton pump
    B. H2 – receptor
    C. All of the above
    D. None of the above
A

A. Proton pump

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35
Q
  1. Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug when co-administered with opioids, reduces opioid requirements
    by 25%?
    A. Ibuprofen
    B. Ketorolac
    C. Mefenamic acid
    D. Indomethacin
A

B. Ketorolac

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36
Q
  1. Buprenorphine, an opioid analgesic, has the following characteristics/s:
    I. Dissociates slowly from mu receptor
    II. Partial mu agonist
    III. Resistant to the reversal effect of naloxone
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the ff antacid/s has a fast onset of action, yet has a long duration of action?
    A. Aluminum hydroxide
    B. Magnesium hydroxide
    C. Calcium carbonate
    D. Sodium bicarbonate
A

C. Calcium carbonate

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38
Q
  1. Evaluate the following statements regarding gastric acid secretion.
    Statement 1: Histamine is first released from the parietal cells.
    Statement 2: Histamine binds to H2 – receptors in ECL cells to initiate acid secretion.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

D. Both statements are wrong

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39
Q
  1. Nalbuphine, an opioid analgesic, has the ff characteristic/s:
    I. Mu receptor agonist
    II. Kappa receptor agonist
    III. Gamma receptor agonist
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

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40
Q
  1. Which of the ff. H2 – receptor blocker has the highest potency?
    A. Cimetidine
    B. Ranitidine
    C. Famotidine
    D. Nizatidine
A

C. Famotidine

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41
Q
  1. Absorption of which vitamin is reduced especially during prolonged therapy of proton pump inhibitors?
    A. Vitamin B12
    B. Vitamin B6
    C. Vitamin B3
    D. Vitamin B1
A

A. Vitamin B12

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42
Q
  1. Which of the ff. is/are taken prophylactically for asthma?
    I. Tilade®
    II. Myambutol®
    III. Rifadin®
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

A. I only

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43
Q
  1. This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug should not be used for trivial or minor problems associated with
    pain due to its potential serious untoward effects?
    A. Ibuprofen
    B. Diclofenac
    C. Indomethacin
    D. Naproxen
A

C. Indomethacin

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44
Q
  1. Evaluate the ff.
    Statement 1: Prostaglandin synthesis is prevented by nonsteroidal anti0inflammatory drugs.
    Statement 2: Prostaglandins amplify pain signal.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

C. Both statements are correct

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45
Q
  1. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug has the ff. characteristic/s:
    I. Generally highly protein- bound
    II. Causes gastric irritation due to prostaglandin synthesis inhibition
    III. Interfere with glumerular filtration regulation
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

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46
Q
  1. Which was the proposed maintenance drug in the treatment programs for opioid addiction?
    A. Naloxone
    B. Naltrexone
    C. Nalbuphine
    D. None of the above
A

B. Naltrexone

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47
Q
  1. This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is as effective as mefenamic acid in relieving dysmenorrheal:
    A. Naproxen
    B. Diclofenac
    C. Indomethacin
    D. Ibuprofen
A

D. Ibuprofen

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48
Q
  1. Evaluate the ff. regarding beta-2 agonists.
    Statement 1: Serevent® contains a long acting beta – 2 agonist
    Statement 2: Formeterol is also a long acting beta -2 agonist
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

C. Both statements are correct

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49
Q
  1. Evaluate the ff.
    Statement 1: Accumulation of intracellular calcium in parietal cells initiates gastric acid secretion.
    Statement 2: Conversion of ATP to cAMP inactivates protein kinase, thereby preventing gastric acid
    secretion.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong

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50
Q
  1. Evaluate the ff.
    Statement 1: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs provide pain relief through their anti-inflammatory action.
    Statement 2: Acetaminophen also provide pain relief through its anti-inflammatory effect.
    A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong
    B. Statement 1 is wrong while statement 2 is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statements are wrong
A

A. Statement 1 is correct while statement 2 is wrong

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51
Q
  1. A 70 year old, male, patient post coronary angiography bypass graft ( CABG) with elevated LDL is managed
    with Simvastatin. What is the mechanism of action of Simvastatin?
    A. Decreased hepatic secretion of VLDL
    B. Decreased oxidation of plasma lipids.
    C. Sequestration of bile acids.
    D. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase
A

D. Inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase

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52
Q
  1. A 501 year old, female patient arrives to the Emergency Department due to the severe chest pain.
    Electrocardiogram revealed that she has an acute myocardial infarction. The medical resident-on-duty gave
    Streptokinase as her first dose. What is the mechanism of action of Streptokinase?
    A. It inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
    B. It promotes the conversion of fibrin to fibrin-split products
    C. It inactivates the conversion of plasminogen to lasmin
    D. It inhibits the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
A

C. It inactivates the conversion of plasminogen to lasmin

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53
Q
  1. Which of the ff. statement/s are true for Clonidine?
    I. It is a lipid-soluble and rapidly enters the brain from the circulation
    II. Concomittant traetment with TCA may block the antihypertensive activities f Clonidine.
    III. It has a long half-life that is related to its anti-hypertensive properties
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

C. I and II only

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54
Q
  1. The ECG of the patient with Digoxin as his treatment in the therapeutic dose range would likely to show
    A. Widening of the QRS complex
    B. Elevation of the ST segment
    C. Prolongation of the QT interval
    D. Prolongation of the PR interval
A

D. Prolongation of the PR interval

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55
Q
  1. The major segment of the nephron where the diuretic action of the thiazides took p[lace
    A. Cortical collecting tubule
    B. Medullary collecting tubule
    C. Distal convoluted tubule
    D. Proximal convoluted tubule
A

C. Distal convoluted tubule

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56
Q
  1. The ff statement/s are true for the Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.
    I. Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the cortical collecting tubule
    II. Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the Depresses HCO3- reabsorption in the proximal convoluted
    tubule
    III. Causes significant hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

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57
Q
  1. What segments of nephron where the diuretic action of Spironolactone took place?
    A. cortical collecting tubule
    B. thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop
    C. thin ascending limb of Henle’s loop
    D. Medullary collecting duct
A

A. cortical collecting tubule

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58
Q
  1. The activity of propranolol in the treatment of angina pectoris is the result of this mechanism
    A. Decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen
    B. Increased sensitivity to catecholamines
    C. Reduced production of catecholamines
    D. Dilation of the coronary vasculature
A

A. Decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen

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59
Q
  1. A 56 year old male patient, with hypertension and DM type 2. He managed his diabetes by insulin. What
    antihypertensive drug should not be used on his case?
    A. Metoprolol
    B. Propranolol
    C. Methyldopa
    D. Hydralazine
A

B. Propranolol

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60
Q
  1. The ff. statement/s are true for Potassium-sparing diuretics
    I. Inhibition of Na+ influx through ion channels in the luminal membrane
    II. Inhibition by direct pharmacologic antagonism of mineralocorticoid receptors
    III. Renal K+ wasting may occur
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

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61
Q
  1. The ff. statement/s are true for Quinidine.
    I. Prolongs the QRS duration
    II. Induction of Torsades de Pointes arrhythmia
    III. Shortens the action potential duration by nonspecific blockade of K+ channels.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

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62
Q
  1. The ff. drug is considered to be the most effective in the prevention of ischemic episodes in patients with
    angina.
    A. Na nitroprusside
    B. Isosorbide dinitrate
    C. Propranolol
    D. Amlodipine
A

D. Amlodipine

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63
Q
  1. The diuretic agent that conserves the K+ ions in the body
    A. Triamterene
    B. Bumetanide
    C. Hydrochlorothiazide
    D. Furosemide
A

A. Triamterene

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64
Q
  1. A case of a 60 year old male patient with developed gynecomastia and erectilr dysfunction due to the
    treatment of this particular diuretic agent.
    A. Hydrochlorothiazide
    B. Spironolactone
    C. Triamterene
    D. Furosemide
A

B. Spironolactone

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65
Q
  1. The ff. statement/s are true for Lidocaine
    I. Extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism
    II. Plasma clearance is increased in liver damage
    III. Vol of distribution is decreased in liver damage.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

A. I only

66
Q
  1. The ff. are the results of vasodilating activity of Na nitroprusside
    I. Activation of guanylyl cyclase
    II. Increased intracellular cGMP
    III. Decreased intracellular cGMP
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

67
Q
  1. The ff. are the mechanism of actions of most of the drugs with vasodilating actions
    I. Increasing cGMP
    II. Promoting depolarization of the vascular smooth muscles
    III. Increased intracellular Ca2+
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

A. I only

68
Q
  1. What is the effect of combining Digoxin to Verapamil?
    A. Verapamil may enhance the AV-blocking effect of Digoxin
    B. Verapamil may increase the metabolism of Digoxin
    C. Increased effects of Verapamil
    D. Decreased serum concentration of Digoxin
A

A. Verapamil may enhance the AV-blocking effect of Digoxin

69
Q
  1. The ff. are the mechanism of actions of Guanethidine
    I. Inhibits the release of NE from sympathetic nerve endings
    II. Increases sensitivity to the hypertensive effects of amines
    III. Replaces NE stores in the nerve endings.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

70
Q
  1. The patient was given Mannitol 100g for the treatment of his oliguria. Of the following, which is the least likely to be associated with the effect of Mannitol.
    A. Effectiveness as nonelectrolytic, osmotically active particles
    B. Capacity to be freely filtered
    C. Ability to be metabocally altered to an active form
    D. Retention of water in the tubular fluid
A

C. Ability to be metabocally altered to an active form

71
Q
  1. The ff. are the mechanism of the clinical effects of Ca++ channel blockers:
    I. Increases atrioventricular nodal conduction
    II. Decreases in left ventricular wall stress
    III. Increases myocardial oxygen delivery in patients with vasospastic angina.
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

72
Q
  1. The rationale of the beta blocker agents as a management for angina pectoris.
    I. Increase in diastolic perfusion time that may increase coronary perfusion
    II. Decreased heart rate, blood pressure and contractility
    III. Increase in end-diastolic volume and ejection time
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

73
Q
  1. Which of the ff. diuretics caused hyperglycemia, hypomagnesemia and hyperuricemia?
    A. Spironolactone
    B. Furosemide
    C. Acetazolamide
    D. Hydrochlorothiazide
A

D. Hydrochlorothiazide

74
Q
  1. Prophylactic drug for paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
    A. Verapamil
    B. Nifedipine
    C. Procainamide
    D. Adenosine
A

A. Verapamil

75
Q
  1. Patient has an angina pectoris treated with sublingual nitroglycerin. Which of the ff. is involved in the
    mechanism of actions of nitroglycerin?
    A. Phosphorylation of light chains of myosin
    B. α-adrenergic activity
    C. cGMP
    D. Phosphodiesterase activity
A

C. cGMP

76
Q
  1. Which of the ff. is/are the clinical uses of Captopril?
    I. Congestive heart failure
    II. Prevention of LV dysfunction following MI
    III. Diabetic nephropathy
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

77
Q
  1. Patient has hypertension and diabetic neuropathy. His medication is Losartan. What would be the mechanism of actions of his medication?
    A. Interacts irreversibly at the AT1 and AT2 receptors
    B. Have effect on bradykinin metabolism
    C. Increases excretion of Cl, Mg, uric acid, Ca, and phosphate
    D. Decreases urinary flow rate
A

C. Increases excretion of Cl, Mg, uric acid, Ca, and phosphate

78
Q
  1. The ff. statements are true about the mechanisms of action of Carvedilol in the treatment of CHF, EXCEPT
    A. Decreased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
    B. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
    C. Decreased stroke volume index
    D. Decreased right arterial pressure
A

C. Decreased stroke volume index

79
Q
  1. Which of the ff. beta blockers could be administered on a once a day dose?
    I. Carvedilol
    II. Bisoprolol
    III. Betaxolol
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

80
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic effect of Digoxin in the atrioventricular node?
    A. Increase in PR interval
    B. Decrease in refractory period
    C. Decrease in conduction velocity
    D. Decrease in QT interval
A

C. Decrease in conduction velocity

81
Q
  1. What is the effect of digoxin in atrial muscle at toxic dose?
    A. Arrrythmia
    B. Tachycardia
    C. Extrasystoles
    D. Fibrillation
A

A. Arrrythmia

82
Q
  1. What is the therapeutic effect of digoxin in Purkije system?
    A. Increase in refractory period
    B. Decrease in refractory period
    C. Increase in PR interval
    D. Decrease in QT interval
A

B. Decrease in refractory period

83
Q
  1. What is the toxic effect of digoxin in Purkije system?
    A. Arrrythmia
    B. Tachycardia
    C. Bradycardia
    D. Asystole
A

B. Tachycardia

84
Q
  1. Which of the ff. diuretic agent bhas no effect or no changes in K+ urinary electrolytes?
    A. Hydrochlorothiazide
    B. Furosemide
    C. Spironolactone
    D. Acetazolamide
A

C. Spironolactone

85
Q
  1. Among the diuretic agents, which of the ff. would decrease the body pH?
    I. Potassium-sparing diuretics
    II. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
    III. Loop diuretics
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

86
Q
  1. Among the diuretic agents, which of the following would decrease the K+ level?
    I. Potassium-sparing diuretics
    II. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
    III. Loop diuretics
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

A. I only

87
Q
  1. Among the diuretic agents, which of the following has no changes in NaHCO3 in urine?
    I. Furosemide
    II. Ethacrynic acid
    III. Indapamide
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

88
Q
  1. Patient has secondary, acute glaucoma. He was given 2501mg IV q4 of Acetazolamide. The mechanism of actions of acetazolamide in this particular case include which of the ff.:
    I. Increase in renal excretion of Na+, K+, HCO3-, and water
    II. Reduction of aqueous humor formation
    III. Reduction of H+ ion secretion at renal tubule
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

89
Q
  1. What are the consequences of the noncompetitive inhibition of carbonic anhydrase?
    I. Increase in urine volume
    II. Change in alkaline pH
    III. Increase in excretion of ammonia
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

90
Q
  1. What are the consequences of the inhibition of sodium reabsorption by amiloride in the distal tubule, cortical
    collecting tubule and collecting duct?
    I. Decrease in potassium retention
    II. Reduction of excretion of both potassium and hydrogen excretion
    III. Decrease in Natriuretic activity
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III
A

D. II and III only

91
Q
  1. What are the antihypertensive mechanisms of actions of indapamide?
    I. Temporary increase in glomerular filtration rate
    II. Direct arteriolar vasodilation through Ca2+ channel blockade
    III. Decreases total body sodium
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

92
Q
  1. What electrolyte is primarily decreased in the combination of ethacrynic acid and cardiac glycosided?
    A. Magnesium
    B. Potassium
    C. Calcium
    D. Chloride
A

B. Potassium

93
Q
  1. What is the coagulation factor released by Desmopressin?
    A. Factor VIII
    B. Factor IX
    C. Factor X
    D. Factor X
A

A. Factor VIII

94
Q
  1. The statements about esmolol include which of the ff?
    I. β1-selectiveblocker metabolized by hydrolysis of red blood cell estrerases
    II. used in hypertension with associated tachycardia
    III. longer half lives
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

95
Q
  1. The mechanisms of action of felodipine include which of the ff?
    I. Inhibits calcium ions from entering the “slow channels” or select voltage—sensitive areas of vascular smooth muscle and myocardium during depolarization
    II. Relaxation of coronary vascular smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation
    III. Increases myocardial oxygen delivary in patients with vasospastic angina
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

96
Q
  1. The mechanisms of action of ramipril include which of the ff?
    I. Must undergo enzymatic saponification by esterases in the liver to its biologically active metabolite
    II. Effects of ramipril result from the high affinity, competitive, reversible binding of ramiprilat
    III. Vasoactive kallikriens may be increased in conversion to active hormones by ACE inhibitors
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

97
Q
  1. The mechanisms of action of pindolol include which of the ff?
    I. Has positive inotropic and chronotropic effects and can significantly increase AV nodal conduction
    II. Blocks beta 1- and beta 2-receptors and has mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
    III. Augmentive action of antidepressants thought to be mediated via a serotonin 1A autoreceptor antagonism
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

98
Q
  1. What are the mechanisms of action of antihypertensive activities of valsartan?
    I. Produces indirect antagonism of the angiotensin II (AT2) receptors
    II. Displaces angiotensin II from the AT1 receptor by antagonizing AT1-induced vasoconstriction
    III. Produces direct antagonism of the angiotensin II (AT2) receptors
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

D. II and III only

99
Q
  1. The mechanisms of action of clopidogrel include which of the ff?
    I. Irreversibly blocks the P2Y12 component of ADP receptors on the platelet surface
    II. Prevents activation of the GPIIb/IIIa receptor complex
    III. Increase platelet aggregation
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

C. I and II only

100
Q

100.The mechanisms of action of Imdur include which of the ff?
I. Decrease preload as measured by pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and left ventricular end
diastolic volume and pressure
II. Average reduction in left ventricular end diastolic volume is 25% at rest
III. Increase in ejection fractions of 50% to 60%
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

E. I, II and III.

101
Q
  1. This mode of hepatocyte death is associated with cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation and lack of inflammation?
    A. Apoptosis
    B. Necrosis
    C. Hepatosis
    D. Steatosis
A

A. Apoptosis

102
Q

102.The first clinically used chelating agent
A. Penicillamine
B. Deferoxamine
C. BAL
D. EDTA

A

C. BAL

103
Q

103.Chemical name of British Anti-Lewisite
A. 2,3-dimercaptopropanol
B. 2,3-dimercapto-1-propaesulfonic acid
C. Dimethylcysteine
D. Ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid

A

A. 2,3-dimercaptopropanol

104
Q

104.A hydrolytic product of penicillin used for the removal of copper in persons with Wilson’s disease
A. EDTA
B. BAL
C. Penicillamine
D. Deferoxamine

A

C. Penicillamine

105
Q

105.An orally active chelating agent alternative for persons who have developed a sensitivity to penicillamine.
A. Triethylene tetramine
B. DTPA
C. BAL
D. Deferoxamine

A

A. Triethylene tetramine

106
Q

106.In cases of chlorinated hydrocarbon ingestion, the following medication(s) is/are given:
I. Activated charcoal
II. epinephrine
III. diazepam
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

D. II and III only

107
Q
  1. Peripheral vascular disease has been observed in persons with chronic exposure to this toxic metal drinking water in Taiwan and in Chile. The disease is manifested by acrocyanosis and Raynaud’s Phenomenon
    A. Mercury
    B. Arsenic
    C. Cadmium
    D. Beryllium
A

B. Arsenic

108
Q

108.Acrocyanosis is a feature of Raynaud’s disease. It is defined as:
A. Disorder affecting the fingers and toes causing them to become blue and cold at low temperatures.
B. Disorder affecting the fingers and toes causing them to become blue and cold at high temperatures
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

A. Disorder affecting the fingers and toes causing them to become blue and cold at low temperatures.

109
Q

109.A potent hemolytic agent formed by the reaction of hydrogen with arsenic and is generated as a by-product in the nonferrous metals
A. Arsenite
B. Arsine
C. Arsenous gas
D. Arsenate

A

B. Arsine

110
Q

110.Exposure to insoluble compounds of this toxic metal produced as syndrome, first described among
fluorescent lamp workers, characterized by shortness of breath, clubbing of fingers and cyanosis. The toxic
metal is:
A. Cadmim
B. Beryllium
C. Magnesium
D. Arsenic

A

B. Beryllium

111
Q

111.The most ubiquitous toxic metal
A. Cadmium
B. Lead
C. Arsenic
D. Mercury

A

B. Lead

112
Q
  1. Clinically overt encephalopathy may occur in children with high exposure to this toxic metal. Symptoms begin with lethargy, irritability, loss of appetite, dizziness progressing to obvious ataxia, a reduced level of consciousness which may progress to coma and death. This toxic metal is:
    A. Cadmium
    B. Lead
    C. Arsenic
    D. Mercury
A

B. Lead

113
Q
  1. Metallic nickel combines with carbon monoxide to form nickel carbonyl, which decomposes to pure nickel and carbon monoxide on heating to 200°C. this is extremely toxic. The preferred drug for nickel toxicity is:
    A. BAL
    B. EDTA
    C. Deferoxamine
    D. Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate
A

D. Sodium diethyldithiocarbamate

114
Q
  1. Cardiomyopathy has been caused by an excessive intake of this essential metal, particularly from drinking of beer to which 1ppm of this metal was added to enhance its foaming qualities. This essential metal is:
    A. Iron
    B. Magnesium
    C. Cobalt
    D. Zinc
A

C. Cobalt

115
Q

115.The puffrfish poison, tetrodotoxin, are one and the same with the newt poison called:
A. Newtoxin
B. Amphibitoxin
C. Tarichatoxin
D. Saxitoxin

A

C. Tarichatoxin

116
Q

116.Treatment of choice for acid ingestion
A. use of emetics and lavage
B. dilution or therapy with milk or wter immediately after ingestion
C. use f alkaline substances
D. all of the above

A

B. dilution or therapy with milk or wter immediately after ingestion

117
Q

117.Treatment of choice for alkali ingestion
A. Dilution or therapy with milk or wter immediately after ingestion
B. Vinegar and lemon juice
C. Both
D. None of the above

A

A. Dilution or therapy with milk or wter immediately after ingestion

118
Q

118.The ff. may be given for patients with salicylate poisoning:
I. Activated charcoal
II. Sodium bicarbonate
III. Acetazolamide
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

C. I and II only

119
Q

119.Sea turtle poisoning symptoms are vomiting, diarrhea, sore lips and tongue, foul breath, white coating on
the tongue, tightness of the chest, coma and death. The etiologic agent is:
A. Saxitoxin
B. Chelonitoxin
C. Ciguatoxin
D. Tetrodotoxin

A

B. Chelonitoxin

120
Q

120.Route of administration of deferoxamine includes:
I. intramuscular
II. intravenous
III. oral
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A

C. I and II only

121
Q

121.Denotes the absorption, distribution, excretion, and metabolism of toxins, toxic doses of therapeutic agents and their metabolites
A. Toxicokinetics
B. Toxicodynamics
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

A. Toxicokinetics

122
Q

122.Used to denote the injurious effects of toxins, toxic doses of therapeutic agents and their metabolites on vital function
A. Toxicokinetics
B. Toxicodynamics
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

B. Toxicodynamics

123
Q

123.Specific antidote for Fluoride poisoning:
I. Calcium
II. acetylcysteine
III. atropine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

A. I only

124
Q

124.Cocaine: crack as ____ : crank
I. shabu
II. methamphetamine
III. methylenedioxymethamphetamine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A

C. I and II only

125
Q

125.Antidote for caffeine poisoning:
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Calcium
C. Esmolol
D. Fomepizole

A

C. Esmolol

126
Q

126.The Nitrosoureas are highly lipid-soluble and cross the blood-brain barrier, making them useful in the
treatment of brain tumors. Which of the ff. belong to the group Nitrosoureas?
I. Lomustine
II. Altretamine
III. Semustine
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

C. I and II only

127
Q
  1. A folic acid antagonist that binds to the active catalystic site of dihydrofolate reductase, interfering with the synthesis of the reduced form that accepts one-carbon units
    A. Methotrexate
    B. Mercaptopurine
    C. Cisplatin
    D. Allopurinol
A

A. Methotrexate

128
Q

128.Methotrexate also has important applications in the treatment of:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Infectios

A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

129
Q

129.The firt of the thiopurine series found useful as an anticancer drug
A. Cisplatin
B. Methotrexate
C. Fluouracil
D. Mercaptopurine

A

D. Mercaptopurine

130
Q

130.Frequently used with chemotherapu in hematologic cancers to prevent hyperuricemia after tumor cell lysis
A. Allopurinol
B. Cisplatin
C. Fluorouracil
D. Mercaptopurine

A

A. Allopurinol

131
Q

131.Major toxicities of Fluorouracil are:
I. Myelosupression
II. Mucositis
III. Vomiting
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

C. I and II only

132
Q

132.Enzyme responsible for cutting and relegating single DNA strands. Inhibition of this enzyme results in DNA damage.
A. Topoisomerase I
B. Topoisomerase II
C. Aromatase
D. Asparaginase

A

A. Topoisomerase I

133
Q

133.Natural products that interfere with the activity of Topoisomerase I
A. Vincristine
B. Podophyllotoxins
C. Camptothecins
D. Taxanes

A

C. Camptothecins

134
Q

134.An alkaloid ester derived from the Western Yew (Taxus brevifolia) and the European Yew ( Taxus baccata)
A. Cisplatin
B. Paclitaxel
C. Vincristine
D. Podophyllotoxins

A

B. Paclitaxel

135
Q

135.Paclitaxel has significant activity in ovarian and advanced breast cancer. Its primary dose-limiting toxicities includes:
I. Neutropenia
II. Thrombocytopenia
III. Peripheral neuropathy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

E. I, II and III.

136
Q

136.Used in combination with surgery and vincristine in the adjuvant treatment of Wilm’s tumor
A. Doxorubicin
B. Dactinomycin
C. Plicamycin
D. Mitomycin

A

B. Dactinomycin

137
Q

137.Major dose-limiting toxicity of dactinomycin
A. Alopecia
B. Vomiting
C. Bone marrow depression
D. Thrombocytopenia

A

C. Bone marrow depression

138
Q
  1. Formerly known as Mithramycin, isolated from Streptomyces plicatus
    A. Plicamycin
    B. Dactinomycin
    C. Dodorubicin
    D. Mitomycin
A

A. Plicamycin

139
Q

139.Mitomycin is isolated from:
A. Streptomyces plicatus
B. Streptomyces caespitosus
C. Streptomyces peucetius
D. Streptomyces nodosus

A

B. Streptomyces caespitosus

140
Q
  1. A series of antineoplastic antibiotics produced by Streptomyces verticillus
    A. Plicamycin
    B. Bleomycin
    C. Doxorubicin
    D. Mitomycin
A

B. Bleomycin

141
Q
  1. Sex hormones are employed in cancer of the female and male breast, cancer of the prostate, and cancer of the endometrium of the uterus. Its adverse reaction(s) include(s):
    I. Fluid retention
    II. Hypertension
    III. Diabetes
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. I and II only
    D. II and III only
    E. I, II and III.
A

E. I, II and III.

142
Q

142.Tamoxifen has proved to be extremely useful for the treatment of breast cancer. Most frequent side effect of Tamoxifen is:
A. Hot flushes
B. Nausea
C. Fluid retention
D. Alopecia

A

A. Hot flushes

143
Q

143.Predominant form of leukemia in childhood and the most common form of leukemia in children.
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
C. Hairy cell leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

144
Q

144.First metastatic cancer cured with chemotherapy
A. Breast cancer
B. Testicular carcinoma
C. Choriocarcinoma of the uterus
D. Thyroid carcinoma

A

C. Choriocarcinoma of the uterus

145
Q

145.Metastatic melanoma is one of the most difficult neoplasms to treat. Most active cytotoxic agent(s) for this
include(s)
I. Dacarbazine
II. Cisplatin
III. fluorouracil
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

C. I and II only

146
Q

146.Chronic myelogenous leukemia arises from a chromosally abnormal hematopoetic stem cell. Patients who
are not eligible for bone marrow transplantation may make use of the ff. to provide temporay improvement:
I. Alpha-interferon
II. Mercaptopurine
III. Cisplatin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

C. I and II only

147
Q

147.Current treatment of choice for Stages II and IV of Hodgkin’s disease includes the combination
chemotherapy of:
I. Vinblastine
II. Doxorubicin
III. Bleomycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

E. I, II and III.

148
Q

148.Current treatment of choice for carcinoma of the ovary includes:
A. Cisplatin and paclitaxel
B. Progestins and tamoxifen
C. Vincristine and vinblastine
D. Chlorambucil and prednisone

A

A. Cisplatin and paclitaxel

149
Q

149.An enzyme that is isolated from various bacteria used to treat childhood acute leukemia
A. Asparaginase
B. Topoisomerase I
C. Topoisomerase II
D. Aromatase

A

A. Asparaginase

150
Q

150.This anthracene compound whose structure resembles the anthracycline ring was recently approved for
treatment of refractory acute leukemia
A. Mitomycin
B. Mitoxanthrone
C. Mitotane
D. Mitotaxin

A

B. Mitoxanthrone

151
Q

151.What is the safest 1st generation sulfonylurea for elderly diabetics
A. Chlorpropramide
B. Tolbutamide
C. Tolazamide
D. None of the above

A

B. Tolbutamide

152
Q

152.Which among the ff. insulin is the most recently developed long acting insulin analog that has a dosedependent onset of action of 1-2 hours and duration of action of more than 24 hours.
A. NPH insulin
B. Insulin glargine
C. Insulin detemir
D. None of the above

A

B. Insulin glargine

153
Q

153.The ff. is/are true about Type 4 Diabetes Mellitus
I. It is defined as any abnormality in glucose levels noted for the first time during pregnancy.
II. The designation refers to multiple other specific causes of an Elevated blood glucose: nonpancreatic diseases and drug therapy etc.
III. It is characterized by tissue resistance to the action of insulin combined with a relative deficiency in insulin secretion.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

A. I only

154
Q

154.Which among the ff. sulfonylureas achieves blood glucose lowering at the lowest dose
A. Tolbutamide
B. Glyburide
C. Glipizide
D. Glimepiride

A

D. Glimepiride

155
Q

155.These are drugs which are ligand of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR-gamma)
A. Thiazolidinediones
B. Meglitinides
C. Sulfonylurea
D. None of the above

A

A. Thiazolidinediones

156
Q

156.Which among the ff. is/are the cause/s of hypoglycemia with patients under tight glycemic control?
I. delay in taking meal
II. inadequate carbohydrate consumed
III. unusual physical exertion
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III.

A

E. I, II and III.

157
Q
  1. What is the first incretin therapy to become availabe in the treatment of diabetes.
    A. Sitagliptin
    B. Pramlintide
    C. Exenatide
    D. Rosiglitazone
A

C. Exenatide

158
Q
  1. It is a 69-amino acid peptide which contains the glucagon sequence interposed between peptide extensions
    A. Glicentin
    B. Pepsin
    C. Glucagon-like peptides
    D. Phosphodiesterases
A

A. Glicentin

159
Q
  1. Which among the ff. is available in inhaled form of rapid acting insulin
    A. insulin aspart
    B. Insulin lispro
    C. Human insulin recombinant
    D. Insuline glulisine
A

C. Human insulin recombinant

160
Q
A

PACOP BLUE (2 decks)

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