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AAAE CM Test Questions > Module 4 > Flashcards

Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Part 150 contains the basic requirements and procedures for approval of noise surrounding an airport as described in what model?

A

Integrated Noise Model (INM)

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2
Q

What are the uses of the Noise Exposure Map (NEM) (2 items)

A

Clearly identify present and future

1) Noise patterns
2) Land Uses which are not compatible with the noise impacts

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3
Q

Which deliverable is the standard reference for anyone proposing noise-sensitive development in the vicinity of an airport?

A

Noise Exposure Map (NEM)

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4
Q

Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) prohibits the use of _____ as evidence in lawsuits seeking damages from noise that the FAA has accepted since the development of the ______ (same word)

A

Noise Exposure Map (NEM)

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5
Q

Noise Exposure Models are required to show unabated noise exposure in terms of the yearly what?

A

Day-Night Sound Level (DNL)

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6
Q

What years is the Noise Exposure Model (NEM) supposed to show unabated noise exposure in terms of yearly Day-Night Sound Level (DNL)

A

The Current Year and the 5th year following submission of the document

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7
Q

The Noise Exposure Map (NEM) must show which items?

4 items

A

1) Noise sensitive or incompatible land use
2) a discussion of forecasted aviation activity
3) Present underlying assumptions upon which the noise contours are based
4) An analysis of ambient noise

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8
Q

What is considered Noise Exposure Map (NEM) ambient noise? (2 items)

A

1) Noise generated by sources other than aviation

2) Background community noise

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9
Q

According to Part 150 what is true regarding incompatible land affected by high levels of ambient noise?

A

Incompatible land affected by high levels of ambient noise do not have the same adverse standing as those affected by aircraft noise alone

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10
Q

Who is the Noise Exposure Model (NEM) document submitted to for review and approval?

A

FAA

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11
Q

Under what law does the approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) limit the ability of residents near an airport to recover damages from noise exposure?

A

Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979

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12
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA), if a resident moves in to their home after a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) has been created it constitutes _____________ of the existence of that NEM

A

Constructive Knowledge

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13
Q

A person who acquires interest in a property within the 65 DNL contour after the approval of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) cannot recover damages unless he can show __________ has occurred since the map was prepared?

A

A significant change

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14
Q

A significant change can be the result of one of 4 things

A

Change in the

1) Type and frequency of airport operations
2) Airport Layout
3) Flight Patterns
4) Nighttime operations

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15
Q

Is 62 dB to 64 dB considered a significant change?

A

No, below the 65 DNL contour

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16
Q

Is 55-64 dB considered a significant change?

A

No, below the 65 DNL contour

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17
Q

Is 66 to 67 dB considered a significant change?

A

No less than the 1.5 dB threshold for significant change

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18
Q

Is 64 to 65.5 dB considered a significant change?

A

Yes. The new level is above 65 and it was a 1.5 dB change

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19
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) a local newspaper has published a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) 2 times. Is that constructive knowledge?

A

No. Must be published 3 times in a local newspaper or furnished to the property purchaser at time of purchase

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20
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) O’Hare airport is making a change and the LA times has published a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) 3 times. Is that constructive knowledge?

A

No. Must be published 3 times in a local newspaper or furnished to the property purchaser at time of purchase

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21
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) O’Hare airport is making a change and the Chicago Tribune has published a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) 3 times. Is that constructive knowledge?

A

Yes. Must be published 3 times in a local newspaper or furnished to the property purchaser at time of purchase

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22
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) O’Hare airport is making a change and no newspaper record of a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) exists, but the property purchaser was furnished a copy at the time of property acquisition. Is that constructive knowledge?

A

Yes. Must be published 3 times in a local newspaper or furnished to the property purchaser at time of purchase

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23
Q

According to the Aviation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) O’Hare airport is making a change and the Chicago Tribune has published a Noise Exposure Map (NEM) 3 times, but the homeowner never saw it. Is that constructive knowledge?

A

Yes. Must be published 3 times in a local newspaper or furnished to the property purchaser at time of purchase. This is regardless of the homeowners seeing it

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24
Q

What program subsidizes air service to 141 communities in the US?

A

Essential Air Service (EAS)

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25
Q

What program provides grants to help small communities achieve sustainable air service?

A

Small Community Air Service Development Program (SCASDP)

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26
Q

Congress originally sought to ensure air service to small communities throughout the US with what law?

A

Federal Aviation Act of 1958

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27
Q

Congress added section 419 regarding minimum level of service required for each Essential Air Service community to what bill?

A

Air Deregulation Act of 1978

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28
Q

Section 419 of the Air Deregulation Act of 1978 allows the FAA to determine _______ for each community eligible for Essential Air Service (EAS)

A

The minimum level of service

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29
Q

The minimum level of service for Essential Air Service (EAS) is determined by what factors? (5 answers)

A
  1. Specifying what hub a community is linked through
  2. Minimum number of round trips
  3. # of available seats that must be provided to the hub
  4. Certain characteristics of the airplane to be used
  5. Max permissible # of intermediate stops
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30
Q

What does Essential Air Service (EAS) offer to air carriers when providing service to communities that would not otherwise receive it?

A

Compensation

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31
Q

What organization determines the minimum level of service required at each community eligible for Essential Air Service (EAS)

A

FAA

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32
Q

What law expanded the Essential Air Service (EAS) program creating both Basic and Enhance EAS?

A

Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987

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33
Q

Define Enhanced Essential Air Service (EAS)

A

Provides higher level of service if communities agree to subsidy-sharing or risk loss of basic service if the government funded enhanced service failed to meet agreed upon levels of passenger use

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34
Q

What is considered acceptable levels of Essential Air Service (EAS)

A
  1. Reasonably scheduled round trips
  2. 6 days a week
  3. Minimum 15 passenger twin engine plane
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35
Q

If Decatur airport (Non Hub) has a flight to Quincy Airport (Non Hub) that is reasonably schedule round trips 6 days a week on a minimum 15 passenger twin engine plane, does that constitute Essential Air Service (EAS) for Decatur?

A

No. The # of available seats must be calculated from the EAS airport to a hub.

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36
Q

The Essential Air Service (EAS) designation exists for what airports?

A

Airports that received air carrier service prior to the start of deregulation

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37
Q

Pickneyville airport started service in 1982 in a small town, is it eligible to be an Essential Air Service (EAS) airport?

A

No. It didn’t start air carrier service before the Air Deregulation Act of 1978

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38
Q

The Essential Air Service (EAS) program puts what restrictions on air carriers? 3 answers

A 
Can't:
1. Terminate
2. Suspend
3. Reduce 
Air service to a community designated an EAS service point
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39
Q

FAR Part 323 requires air carriers to serve notice to ________ and ______ if they intend to terminate, suspend, or reduce Essential Air Service (EAS).

A
  1. Department of Transportation

2. The community the airport is in

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40
Q

United Airlines has served notice to the community of Yazoo City an Essential Air Service (EAS) airport community and the Department of Transportation that they intend to suspend service, what is the next course of action from both Yazoo City and the DOT. (2 things)

A
  1. Yazoo City may file a letter of objection

2. DOT can prohibit an air carrier from leaving until a replacement is found

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41
Q

What are the two levels of Essential Air Service (EAS)

A
  1. Basic

2. Enhanced

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42
Q

What size airport does Basic Essential Air Service (EAS) constitute?

A
  1. Service to a medium or large hub
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43
Q

How many seats must an aircraft have to fulfill Basic Essential Air Service (EAS)

A

15 passenger seats

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44
Q

How many intermediate stops are allowed to get from an Essential Air Service (EAS) airport to a medium or large hub airport?

A

1 Intermediate Stop

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45
Q

Muscle Shoals an Essential Air Service (EAS) city has service to Huntsville Alabama (small hub) twice a day in an airplane with 15 seats and 11 enplanements. Is this considered eligible for EAS?

A

No. Basic EAS constitutes service to a medium or large-hub airport, with no more than one intermediate stop, in an aircraft having at least 15 passenger seats, and averaging more than 11 passenger enplanements a day with pressurized aircraft and at reasonable times.

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46
Q

Sault Ste Marie, an Essential Air Service (EAS) city has service to Detroit airport (Large hub) twice a day in an airplane with with 8 passenger enplanements. Is this considered eligible for EAS?

A

No. Basic EAS constitutes service to a medium or large-hub airport, with no more than one intermediate stop, in an aircraft having at least 15 passenger seats, and averaging more than 11 passenger enplanements a day with pressurized aircraft and at reasonable times.

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47
Q

To get Enhanced Essential Air Service (EAS) a community must meet 4 criteria, what are they?

A
  1. Received Air Carrier Service prior to 1978
  2. It is more than 50 miles from a small hub airport
  3. It is more than 150 miles from the nearest hub airport
  4. State/Local govt contributes 25% of the cost
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48
Q

What is the definition of Enhanced Essential Air Service (EAS)?

A

Enhanced EAS is scheduled air transportation of a quality and need greater than basic service.

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49
Q

Escanaba, an Essential Air Service (EAS) city is 40 miles from Grand Rapids Airport a small hub airport and 120 miles from Detroit Airport a Large hub airport. Is Escanaba eligible for Enhanced Essential Air Service?

A

No.

  1. Received Air Carrier Service prior to 1978
  2. It is more than 50 miles from a small hub airport
  3. It is more than 150 miles from the nearest hub airport
  4. State/Local govt contributes 25% of the cost
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50
Q

Muskegon, an Essential Air Service (EAS) city is 60 miles from Grand Rapids Airport a small hub airport and 140 miles from Detroit Airport a Large hub airport. Is Muskegon eligible for Enhanced Essential Air Service?

A

No.

  1. Received Air Carrier Service prior to 1978
  2. It is more than 50 miles from a small hub airport
  3. It is more than 150 miles from the nearest hub airport
  4. State/Local govt contributes 25% of the cost
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51
Q

Smaller communities may not have passenger demand for air carrier service for what 3 reasons?

A
  1. Population
  2. employment
  3. Income Levels
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52
Q

Why might there be enough demand for smaller communities to receive air carrier service?

A

Lack of viable travel alternatives

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53
Q

For every $5,000 in per capita income a community received X times more jet and Y times more turboprop departures per week

A

Jet: 3.3x
Turboprop: 12.7x

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54
Q

For every additional 25,000 jobs in a community and communities with over $250,000 in manufacturing earnings, the airport received an average of nearly X more jet departures per week

A

5 additional jet departures per week

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55
Q

What constitutes the challenges for small community air service development? (2 items)

A
  1. Runway characteristics (length/strength)

2. Proximity to legacy carrier hubs

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56
Q

What law provides the basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports?

A

Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

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57
Q

FAR Part 150 Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning was created due to what law?

A

Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

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58
Q

Part 150 regulations govern the development and review of an integrated plan to achieve noise control objectives by encouraging compatible land uses in and around airports through the development of what two things?

A
  1. Noise Exposure Map

2. Noise Compatibility Planning

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59
Q

What did the passage of the Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) direct the FAA to do?

A

Develop and establish procedures for noise and land compatibility planning

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60
Q

The design of the Part 150 regulation and planning process are due to two programs previously established

A
  1. Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatibility (ANCLUC)

2. Department of Defense Airport Installation Compatibility Use Zones (AICUZ)

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61
Q

What five objectives must any noise compatibility measure meet

A
  1. Achieve the goal of reducing non-compatible land
  2. Not derogate safety or efficiency
  3. Not unjustly discriminate
  4. Not create undue burden on interstate commerce
  5. Not adversely affect other responsibilities of the FAA
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62
Q

What is the most effective control measure for reducing noise impact is ______

A

Land Acquisition

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63
Q

What allows the airport the legal right to allow aircraft to make noise over their property?

A

Avigation Easement

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64
Q

What are the options for mitigating noise under Part 150? (10)

A
  1. Land Acquisition
  2. Sounproofing
  3. New landing/takeoff procedures
  4. Implementing preferential runway system
  5. Noise Barriers
  6. Engine Run Up provisions
  7. Off airport land use control
  8. Noise Monitoring systems
  9. Installation of specific Navaids
  10. Airport use restrictions
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65
Q

What are the 5 Airport use restrictions associated with mitigating noise under Part 150

A
  1. Denial of the use of aircraft that don’t meet noise standards
  2. Capacity Limitations (noise budget)
  3. Noise abatement takeoff or approach procedures
  4. Curfew
  5. Time of day differential landing fees
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66
Q

If federal funds are being used for land acquisition in noise mitigation, the airport operator is governed by the procedures in what FAR Part?

A

Part 24 Uniform Relocation and Real Property Acquisition Policies Act

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67
Q

In addition to fair market value, what does Part 24 promise those residents being relocated due to eminent domain?

A

Relocation benefits

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68
Q

What are voluntary land acquisition programs known as when residents want to move to relocated outside of noise affected areas?

A

Purchase Assurance Programs

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69
Q

What program tries to reduce aircraft noise levels in residences through replacement of windows and doors?

A

Soundproofing

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70
Q

When is soundproofing eligible? (4)

A
  1. Within the existing or future 65 dnl
  2. It is within a noise contour determined to be non-compatible under local noise/land use guidelines
  3. Structures are non compatible under Part 150 or local guidelines
  4. Satisfactory interior noise reduction can be achieved
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71
Q

What decibel level is sound insulation intended to meet?

A

50 dBA in the 65 DNL

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72
Q

What is the goal noise reduction for noise insulation projects

A

30-35 dBA

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73
Q

What is the average and maximum decibel level design objective for non-compatible public use buildings?

A

Avg: 45 dBA
Max: 55 dBA

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74
Q

James Madison’s home is within the 65 DNL contour near DFW airport. They are installing soundproofing and reduce his home’s noise level from 70 dBA to 55 dBA. Is this acceptable? What are next steps?

A

This is not acceptable. It is intended to meet 50 dBA

Next step is to buy an avigation easement from Mr Madison

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75
Q

This structure is erected to help attenuate ground level noise from airport operations.

A

Noise Barriers

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76
Q

The implementation of a preferential runway use system is exclusively the authority of what organization?

A

FAA

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77
Q

Preferential Runway Use programs can be either _________ or ________, but if _________ must have a letter of agreement in which the airlines and FAA outline the conditions of the program

A

Informal or Formal

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78
Q

What are the wind/weather limitations of preferential runway use?

A
  1. Wind must be within 90 degrees

2. Wind must not exceed 15 knots on runways clean and dry

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79
Q

What are the airspace limitations of preferential runway use?

A

Cannot adversely affect:

1) Terminal Airspace Capacity
2) Routing and sequencing
3) Potential encroachment into adjacent airspace

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80
Q

What might limit new flight procedures in an effort to mitigate noise with Part 150

A

Whether the aircraft are physically capable of performing noise abatement flight maneuvers in a safe and efficient manner

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81
Q

Departure and arrival procedures changed for Part 150 include which two procedures and must be reviewed by the FAA

A

Modified Standard Instrument Departure

Standard Terminal Arrival

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82
Q

Airport Use Restrictions include:

A
  1. Establishment of single event noise limit
  2. Establishment of a noise contour for the airport
  3. Requirement of specific stage of aircraft allowable
  4. Noise based operating fees
  5. Limits on # and type of operation
  6. Training restrictions
  7. Runway use restrictions
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83
Q

What is the FAA’s primary concern with a voluntary airport use restriction program?

A

1) Whether the program actually produces benefits

2) Whether the program is truly voluntary

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84
Q

What airport development measures are most common under Part 150

A
  1. Runway Extensions
  2. New Runways
  3. Taxiway Development
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85
Q

Proposed as part of a 150 study, these have been approved to facilitate preferential runway-use systems, preferred flight tracks, or other measures related to noise compatibility as long as the Part 150 documentation clearly and reasonably relates a why this helps noise compatibility measures

A

Navigational Aids

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86
Q

Who is typically responsible for zoning and land use policies?

A

Local Government Bodies

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87
Q

What are some examples of administrative measures and studies for Part 150 Noise Mitigation?

A
  1. Noise advisory Committees
  2. Publications for residents and users
  3. Capital improvement policies
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88
Q

Any noise benefits derived from an airport use restriction need to be _________

A

Quantified

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89
Q

What is an example of an indirect benefit you could impose from a Noise Compatibility Program?

A

Noise based operating fees.

The fees you collect can be used to pay for soundproofing or land acquisition

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90
Q

A single event sound limit is expected to use what publication?

A

FAA Advisory Circular 36-3 Re-estimated Airplane Noise Levels in A-Weighted Decibels

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91
Q

In a Part 150 program the airport operator is expected to analyze ___________

A

the anticipated burden on commerce for any airport use restriction

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92
Q

________ may not enact or enforce any law relating to regulation of rates, routes, and services of an air carrier

A

Local or state government

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93
Q

Most Part 150 recommendations involve voluntary or mandatory prohibition of what?

A

Engine maintenance runups at certain hours of the night or specified locations

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94
Q

Zoning should preclude residential property within ________ DNL contour

A

65

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95
Q

It is recommended the airport own all land within ______ DNL contour

A

75

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96
Q

Allowable uses for land with high noise levels include (4)

A
  1. Parking facilities
  2. Transportation Facilities
  3. Agriculture
  4. Low personnel exposure purposes
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97
Q

Why is the FAA interested in noise monitoring?

A

To determine whether any special demands on FAA equipment or ATC workload exist

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98
Q

Sensitive Security Information is discussed in what Aviation Regulation?

A

Title 49 CFR Part 1520

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99
Q

To protect individuals _____________ under Title 49 CFR Part 1520, a board may go into executive session

A

Sensitive Security Information

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100
Q

_________ Session are usually to discuss legal or personnel issues.

A

Executive

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101
Q

What role communicates essential information to the airport and community stakeholdes?

A

Public Information Officer

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102
Q

How do most airport directors get their job?

A

Appointed

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103
Q

What are the 3 areas an airport executive must immediately investigate to determine their level of authority

A
  1. Agreements
  2. Personnel
  3. Purchasing
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104
Q

A written motion adopted by a vote of the governing authority is called a

A

Resolution

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105
Q

A bundle of items that are voted on without discussion as a package is known as?

A

Consent Agenda

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106
Q

This allows topics to be discussed in a public forum before the governing body votes on it

A

Regular Agenda

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107
Q

These type of meetings allow the Airport Executive the opportunity to explain an issue in more detail, receive public feedback, and answer questions from the governing body

A

Public Discussion

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108
Q

This person is speaks to the media and needs to know the limits of information that can be commented on

A

Airport Spokesperson

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109
Q

Air carriers typically meet once a month at what meeting?

A

Station Managers meeting

110
Q

In addition to a station managers meeting, what other meetings typically occur at airports that have air carriers? (2)

A
  1. Concession meeting

2. Security Meeting

111
Q

Many GA airports will have what kind of meeting

A

Tenant Meeting

112
Q

Public participation should be focused on building __________ ___________ and recognizing the needs and desires of those potentially affected

A

Informed Consent

113
Q

The guiding objectives of for a public agency regarding citizen participation are

A
  1. Legitimacy of the agency and project
  2. Identify potentially affected interests
  3. Generate Alternate Solutions
  4. Credibility of the governing body
  5. Depolarize potentially affected interests
114
Q

The goal of the policy makers in building informed consent is not necessarily to make everyone happy about the project but instead to increase _______ ___________ to accept the project.

A

general willingness

115
Q

focuses on following legislation at the federal, state, or local level, and, in some cases, attempts to garner support for certain projects and programs.

A

Intergovernmental Relations

116
Q

The _____________ __________ function or role focuses on attending regional and economic development planning meetings, developing position papers on legislative and policy issues, representing the airport in regional forums with federal, state, and local government officials, and preparing talking points and presentations for board members and the Airport Executive

A

Governmental Affairs

117
Q

An _________ or _________, such as a lobbyist, is often helpful in providing insight into the details of legislation and the legislative process.

A

An attorney or legislative specialist

118
Q

Intergovernmental affairs personnel may be called upon to help resolve issues including (3):

A
  1. airport and regulatory agencies
  2. Help promote special programs such as PreCheck or GlobalEntry
  3. Reduce Legal Fees by assessing airport decisions
119
Q

The two largest meetings AAAE holds each year are:

A
  1. Russel Hoyt National Airports Conference

2. AAAE Annual Conference

120
Q

When AAAE Members need assistance interpreting or advocating for a position on pending or existing legislation, the __________ provides strong and effective representation for America’s airport system on Capitol Hill

A

AAAE legislative affairs team - Airport Legislative Alliance

121
Q

What are the Airport Legislative Alliance teams three primary services?

A
  1. Washington Insider Videos - updates on industry related developments
  2. Hearing Reports - insight on capitol hill hearings
  3. Airport Alerts - up-to-date on legislation
122
Q

The AAAE ________ team is dedicated to representing the views of Airport Executives before key agencies of the federal government that deal with aviation security and homeland security

A

Transportation Security Policy

123
Q

The Transportation Security Policy (TSP) team provides ____________ which provide info to members on pending or existing TSA related news

A

Security Policy Alerts and Notices

124
Q

The Transportation Security Policy (TSP) team provides the _____________ a free daily email with latest security trend news

A

AAAE Security Smartbrief

125
Q

How ofter does the AAAE Security Smart Brief come out?

A

Daily

126
Q

Who oversees the accreditation and certification programs for AAAE

A

The Board of Examineers

127
Q

AAAE has _________ that cover all sectors of the airport industry including Academic Relations, Airline Economics, Air Service, Audit, Board of Examineers, among others

A

Committees

128
Q

What AAAE program provide the fundamentals for Part 139?

A

Basic Airport Safety and Operations Specialist School

129
Q

What AAAE program provide the fundamentals for Part 1542?

A

Airport Security Coordinator

130
Q

What AAAE program allow operations personnel to work on case studies and problem solving exercises to better develop Part 139 knowledge?

A

Advanced Airport Safety and Operations Specialist School

131
Q

In addition to certificate programs, AAAE offers higher level expertise programs called _________ programs

A

Airport Certified Employee (ACE) programs

132
Q

AAAE IET _______ builds on the experience of the original Interactive Employee Training system currently used at 100 airports

A

Learning Suite

133
Q

The ______________ video training system has been providing airport employees with on demand video tranining in every aspect needed to run an airport

A

Airport News and Training Network (ANTN Digicast)

134
Q

What is the premier location to explore, discuss, and launch innovations for airports?

A

Airport Innovator Accelerator

135
Q

What two periodicals does AAAE publish?

A
  1. Airport Report Today

2. Airport Magazine

136
Q

What law was the catalyst for public awareness on noise issues?

A

NEPA 1969

137
Q

NEPA 1969 requires what for major projects?

A

An assessment of noise effects for airports undertaking major projects

138
Q

A noise assessment as outlined by NEPA 1969 included….(2)

A
  1. Identifying the effect a proposed project had on noise levels in the surrounding area
  2. developing a program of mitigation
139
Q

For a NEPA 1969 approval in addition to identifying the effect of a proposed project on noise in the area and developing a mitigation program, what else was typically part of the approval process?

A

Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)

140
Q

What law was passed in 1976 that made clear the responsibilities of the FAA, air carriers, executives, and local communities in dealing with aircraft noise exposure?

A

Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

141
Q

What did Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976 make clear for the FAA? (3)

A
  1. Reducing noise at its source
  2. Promulgating safe operating procedures to abate impact of noise on populated areas
  3. promoting positive land use
142
Q

What is the airport operator’s primary responsibility with regards to Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

A

Plan and implement actions designed to reduce effect of noise on nearby residents

143
Q

What is the state and local government primary responsibility with regards to Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

A

Providing Compatible Land Use planning and development

144
Q

What is the airline’s primary responsibility with regards to Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

A

Retirement/retrofit of older jets that don’t meet federal noise standards

145
Q

What is the air traveler/shippers primary responsibility with regards to Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

A

Bearing the cost of noise reduction through money paid to the Aviation Trust Fund

146
Q

What is the residents near the airport primary responsibility with regards to Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP) 1976

A

Investigating noise problems and taking steps to minimize its effect on people:
Prospective residents should be aware of the effect of noise on their quality of life

147
Q

Schaumburg created a noise ordinance that disallows planes to take off on runway 10C at O’Hare airport from 10 PM - 7 AM. Does the court allow this law?

A

No. Courts have consistently disallowed attempts by local governments not operating an airport to regulate aircraft noise

148
Q

Levels of aircraft noise are regulated under what?

A

FAR Part 36 Certificated Airplane Noise Levels

149
Q

What did Part 36 establish?

A

Noise certification standards for turbojet and transport aircraft

150
Q

Where does Part 36 help eliminate noise?

A

At its source

151
Q

Effective Perceived Noise Level was regulated for takeoff, sideline, and approach with what regulation?

A

FAR Part 36 Certificated Airplane Noise Levels

152
Q

FAR Part 36 Certificated Airplane Noise Levels regulated effective perceived noise levels for what areas? 3

A
  1. Takeoff
  2. Approach
  3. Sideline
153
Q

What is the loudest and quietest stage engine?

A

Stage 1 Loudest

Stage 4 Quietest

154
Q

Define a Stage 1 enginer

A
  1. Aircraft meets no noise standard
155
Q

The Bombardier 780 has never been tested for noise but claims to be the quietest plane ever built. What Stage aircraft would it be?

A

Stage 1 - it has never been tested or shown to meet any noise standard.

156
Q

The Concorde has met the noise standards set in 1969. What Stage aircraft is this?

A

Stage 2

157
Q

Embraer 590 Meet the noise standards set in 1977. What Stage aircraft is this?

A

Stage 3

158
Q

What Effective Perceived Noise Level reduction below stage 3 makes an airplane a Stage 4 airplane?

A

10 EPNdB

159
Q

What is the correlation between stage 2 aircraft and stage 2 helicopter?

A

There is no correlation

160
Q

What law provided a basis for a great majority of noise abatement planning at airports?

A

Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

161
Q

Following the passage of Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA), Congress directed the FAA to establish _____________

A

Land Use compatibility programs at airports

162
Q

What FAR Part was adopted as a result of Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

A

Part 150

163
Q

Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) and Part 150 encourage noise control objectives through ________________

A

Land Use Planning

164
Q

Airport Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA) and Part 150 encourage land use planning through the development of what two items?

A

Noise Exposure Maps (NEM) and Noise Compatibility Programs (NCP)

165
Q

What FAR Part provides incentive for airports and the surrounding community to work together to reduce the adverse effects of airport related noise and to discourage non-compatible uses?

A

Part 150

166
Q

The design of Part 150 owed much to what two previously established programs?

A

ANCLUC Airport Noise Control and Land Use Compatiblity and AICUZ Department of Defense Airport Installation Compatible Use Zone

167
Q

As a part of what law were airports prohibited from adopting overly restrictive anti-noise ordinances

A

Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA)

168
Q

Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA) created what Federal Regulation?

A

FAR Part 161 Notice and Approval of Airport Noise and Access Restrictions

169
Q

Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA) created a cap on what stage aircraft?

A

Stage 2

170
Q

Failure to follow the provisions in Part 150 or Part 161 can result in what? (2)

A
  1. Loss of AIP Funds

2. Loss of PFC authorization

171
Q

What are the three primary goals of Airport Noise and Capacity Act of 1990 (ANCA)?

A
  1. Limits on Local User Restrictions
  2. Non-restrictive noise abatement and land use actions
  3. Phase out noisier aircraft
172
Q

The Airport and Airway Safety, Capacity, and Noise Improvement Transportation Act (1992) required the FAA to study social, economic, and health effects of airport noise at what 3 decibel levels?

A
  1. 65
  2. 60
  3. 55
173
Q

What DNL was the standard that was set as acceptable?

A

65 DNL

174
Q

What is Noise?

A

Unwanted sound

175
Q

Attitudes that affect individual’s reaction to sound are?

A
  1. Apprehension based on safety
  2. Belief the noise was preventable
  3. Awareness of non-noise environmental problems
  4. General sensitivity to noise
  5. Perceived economic importance of the noise
176
Q

What is the physical unit most commonly used to describe sound levels?

A

Decibel

177
Q

What is the definition of a decibel?

A

A ratio of sound compared to a reference sound pressure

178
Q

What is the scale of decibels?

A

0-130

179
Q

Threshold of pain in the human ear is how many decibels?

A

130

180
Q

The decibel rating is a ___________ scale

A

Logarithmic

181
Q

How many more times energy does 20 decibels have than 1 decibel?

A

100 times

182
Q

How many times more energy does 60 decibels have than 30 decibels?

A

1000 times

183
Q

At what scale does perceived loudness double on the Sound Level Comparison Chart

A

Every 10 decibels

184
Q

What is the difference in perceived loudness between 70 decibels and 60 decibels?

A

Twice as Loud

185
Q

What is the difference in perceived loudness between 80 decibels and 60 decibels

A

4x as loud

186
Q

What is the difference in perceived loudness between 60 decibels and 30 decibels?

A

8x as loud

187
Q

What is the difference in perceived loudness between 70 decibels and 80 decibels?

A

1/2 as loud

188
Q

What is the equal energy rule with regards to sound?

A

Over a given period of time people respond most predictably to the total noise energy they receive than to the characteristics of a single noise event

189
Q

What is people’s biggest critique of using Day/Night Average (DNL)

A

it is an average rather than noise from a loud single event like a plan

190
Q

What is the hour average used for DNL?

A

24 Hours

191
Q

Define DNL mathematically

A

24 hour average sound level for the period midnight to midnight after adding 10 decibels to sound levels between 10 PM and 7 AM

192
Q

When is the 24 Hour average for DNL

A

Midnight to Midnight

193
Q

What are the precise hours where you add 10 decibels?

A
  1. 12 AM - 7 AM

2. 10 PM-12AM

194
Q

What are some examples of revenue from an air carrier? (6)

A
  1. Landing Fees
  2. Ticket counter leasing
  3. Gate Fees
  4. Baggage handling rental
  5. Administrative area rentals
  6. Revenue from passengers
195
Q

Air service development includes (7)

A
  1. Attraction or expansion of existing service
  2. Retention of Service
  3. Adding new service destinations
  4. Lowering Fares
  5. Improving Service
  6. Reliability
  7. Upgrading Aircraft
196
Q

Airports and communities can help airline make decisions about where to locate new service by providng: (3)

A
  1. Demographics
  2. Local economic conditions
  3. Other
197
Q

More established cities often have what goal for Air Service Development?

A

Expansion of available air service

198
Q

What is the challenge for smaller communities with regards to air service development?

A

Balancing limited passenger demand with the right amount of capacity while keeping operating costs down

199
Q

What are some key issues for air carriers? (2)

A
  1. Runway Length

2. Adequately sized terminal facilities

200
Q

If an airport is trying to attract air service but does not have the facilities, funding is typically unlikely to come from __________ but is available through the ______

A

Air Carriers

FAA

201
Q

If the FAA supports adding or expanding air service, funding for enhanced facilities may be available through ________________

A

Capital Improvement Program

202
Q

Market Research should be conducted to determine _____________ and if consumers are subject to ______________

A

Route Deficiencies

Artificially High Airfares

203
Q

What is the term which is a measure of when passengers choose to fly from another competing airport in the region?

A

Leakage

204
Q

What is the term for people who assess market size and forecast other elements such as demand from frequent flyers?

A

Route Planners

205
Q

The formula for a profitable route for route planners is based on these elements (6)

A
  1. Economic Data (per capita Income, employment, etc.)
  2. Airport Operating Costs
  3. Congestion at air carrier existing facilities
  4. Incentives
  5. Gate Limits
  6. Runway Availability
206
Q

Relating to air service development and passenger demand, an air carrier is concerted with these two important aspects

A
  1. Volume of Passengers

2. Revenue

207
Q

_______ can attempt to influence air carriers by providing accurate information on the local market and sharing the risk of starting a new service

A

Communities

208
Q

Information on Air Service Development may be gathered by community members such as whom? (3)

A
  1. Large Business Employers
  2. Local Tourism Boards
  3. Economic Development Agencies
209
Q

Air carrier incentive programs serve to ______________

A

Add or Increase commercial service at an airport

210
Q

What is the only kind of revenue eligible to be used for incentives for additional air service?

A

Non aeronautical revenue

211
Q

Why is only non aeronautical revenue allowed for use for incentives for additional air service

A

FAA believes it’s not fair to require incumbent airlines to compete against themselves

212
Q

Can an airport tell an interested carrier they don’t want them using their incentive?

A

No. An incentive must be open to all interested carriers

213
Q

What is one limitation that an airport can put out regarding incentives?

A

They can make it first come, first served

214
Q

What does the FAA say about direct cash for marketing and advertising of new air service?

A

The FAA Encourages this

215
Q

An airport sponsor must make incentives ______________

A

Available to all similarly situated air carriers

216
Q

Can incentive levels be tiered?

A

Yes. They may vary based on the category of service offered, but the program must identify incentives available for each tier

217
Q

Bangor airport wants to incentivize air carriers to create service to Chicago. Are they allowed to offer incentives to a specific destination?

A

Yes, an airport can discriminate between service targets, but cannot choose a specific carrier

218
Q

The Bangor chamber of commerce wants to offer incentives to their favorite airline Southwest to offer service to Boston. Is this allowed?

A

Yes. a non-airport entity can offer incentives how they choose

219
Q

Knox regional airport is offering an indefinite period incentive. Is this allowable?

A

No. Incentives must last for a pre-defined promotional period

220
Q

How long is a typical promotional period for incentives?

A

2 years

221
Q

Why is 2 years the typical promotional period?

A

The FAA feels that by the end of 2 years, the air service should be self sustainable

222
Q

In Kansas the state funds an Affordable Airfares program that gives open ended subsidies to airlines, is this allowed?

A

Yes. The FAA has no jurisdiction over a state program

223
Q

In Missouri Lambert airport wants to offer an affordable airfares program that gives open ended subsidies to airlines, is this allowed?

A

No. It is not permissible for an airport itself to provide an open ended incentive

224
Q

__________ cannot be used to promote any tye of general economic development (destination marketing program)

A

Airport revenue

225
Q

Airport Revenue is defined as (4)

A
  1. Fees
  2. Charges
  3. Rents
  4. Other Payments received
    from operations at the airport
226
Q

Airport revenue may be used in marketing to promote (4)

A
  1. Airport competition
  2. Public/industry awareness of airport facilities
  3. Providing new air service
  4. Promotional expenses (marketing) to increase travel at the airport
227
Q

_______ is a direct payment of airport revenue to a carrier, or any provider of goods and services to that carrier, in exchange for additional service by the carrier

A

Subsidy

228
Q

_______ is a fee reduction/waiver or use of airport revenue for acceptable promotional costs to encourage air carriers to increase service at the airport

A

Incentive

229
Q

What are on the list of unacceptable incentives? (10)

A
  1. Subsidies
  2. Providing aircraft parts
  3. Free fuel
  4. Interest Free loans
  5. Pay for service
  6. Paying for leased property on behalf of the air carrier
  7. Direct payments to the air carrier
  8. Dictating ticket prices
  9. Cash incentives to passengers
  10. Promising to purchase a set number of tickets
230
Q

Noise abatement is addressed throughout grant assurances and is included in

A 
GA 5 Preserving Rights and Powers
GA 19 Operations and Maintenance
GA 21 Compatible Land Use
GA 22 Economic Nondiscrimination
GA 26 Reports and Inspections
GA 31 Disposal of Land
231
Q

Noise abatement action has been accomplished through what 3 general means?

A
  1. Reduction of Noise at the Source
  2. Relocation of the noise in space and time
  3. Acoustical Changes to the area of noise exposure
232
Q

What are some primary reasons noise abatement projects are deemed ineligible for funding? (3)

A
  1. No capital costs
  2. Eligible grant recipients couldn’t implement the program
  3. Noise abatement measures couldn’t be approved
233
Q

FAA review of a Part 150 study was designed to achieve what dual objectives?

A
  1. To place substantial review authority at the regional level
  2. To retain enough oversight at the national level to ensure consistency with Part 150 determinations
234
Q

A Noise Compatibility Program should NOT: (3)

A
  1. Degrade Safety
  2. Adversely affect efficient use of airspace
  3. Adversely affect powers of the FAA
235
Q

A Part 150 study is voluntary, but is most appropriate if which of the four general conditions apply?

A
  1. Significant amounts of noise affected incompatible land use
  2. Receipt of serious noise complaints
  3. Threat of urban development creates pressure to create incompatible land
  4. Introduction of major airport changes cause a likely shift in noise patterns
236
Q

What information must be contained in a Part 150 Noise Compatibility Plan (9)

A
  1. Noise Exposure Map
  2. Categorization of parties responsible for implementation
  3. Development of noise compatibility program that meets Part 150 standards
  4. Actual/anticipated effect of program on noise
  5. Description of how recommendations may change previously adopted actions
  6. Schedule of implementation
  7. Cost of implementation
  8. Provision for revising the program if needed
  9. Description of public participation in the program
237
Q

Huntington Airport is developing a Part 150 Noise Compatibility Program and has suggested night restrictions on air carriers as an alternative. What is the #1 question the FAA might ask?

A

Does Huntington Airport already have flights during nighttime hours. If not, this is an inappropriate alternative when no current or forecasted night operations exist

238
Q

After the regional administrator recommendations regarding a Part 150 program, who at the national level looks at it?

A
  1. FAA Associate administrator for airports
  2. Associate administrator for policy
  3. Chief Counsel
239
Q

Final decisions regarding a Part 150 approval or disapproval rest with what individual?

A

The FAA Administrator

240
Q

Final decisions regarding a Part 150 approval or disapproval are recorded where?

A

The Federal Register

241
Q

Are revenue guarantees considered a subsidy?

A

No

242
Q

Can airport revenue be used for a revenue guarantee?

A

No the FAA expressly prohibits it

243
Q

What are revenue guarantees designed to do

A

Reduce an airline’s risk in launching service on a new route by covering the start up phase of service

244
Q

Can revenue guarantees come from the Small Community Air Service Development program?

A

Yes

245
Q

What is a pre-purchased ticket program?

A

The community or a business entities pre-buys seats and the seats are then bought off of the entity to guarantee revenue

246
Q

Does the FAA support using airport revenue for marketing and advertising?

A

Yes

247
Q

What restrictions do airports have in using revenue for marketing and support?

A

1) amount of cash is pre-determined

2) timeframe for the program is disclosed

248
Q

Can airport marketing and advertising be placed out of market?

A

Yes as a way to push passengers on the other end of the service to the new destination

249
Q

Can airport marketing be placed by the airline?

A

Yes either the airline or the airport to promote new service

250
Q

Does the FAA allow fee waivers in support of new service?

A

Yes

251
Q

For how long does the FAA allow fee waivers in support of new service?

A

Up to 2 years

252
Q

What is an example of a fee that might be waived?

A

Landing Fees or fuel flowage fees

253
Q

Does the FAA permit an airport to provide a new carrier with start up cost offsets?

A

Yes

254
Q

In some cases an airline will not want to hire its own staff to launch a new station. Some airports have had success in offering __________

A

Airport Provided Ground Handling

255
Q

Is revenue sharing a model that is approved by the FAA as an acceptable incentive?

A

Yes, but the revenue must be shared equally among all carriers serving an airport

256
Q

What is the list of incentives acceptable to the FAA to use airport revenue?

A
  1. Marketing and Advertising Support
  2. Fee Waivers
  3. Start up-cost offsets
  4. Airport provided ground handling
  5. Revenue Sharing
257
Q

What is the term for all the charges paid by the airline to the airport divided by the number of passengers that board flights?

A

Cost Per Enplanement

258
Q

A ____________ includes notification lists of key personnel, contact information, and the immediate steps that should be taken in the event of a crisis

A

Crisis Communication Plan

259
Q

What are the 3 parts included in a crisis communication plan?

A
  1. List of key personnel
  2. Key personnel contact info
  3. Steps to be taken in the event of a crisis
260
Q

In the case of a crisis what key personnel should be identified that employees direct media inquiries to?

A

Airport Spokesperson

261
Q

Is the airport executive the airport spokesperson?

A

Preferably not. Airport executive should be handling the crisis

262
Q

In the NIMS incident command system the ___________ serves as the conduit for information to internal and external stakeholders

A

Public Information Officer (PIO)

263
Q

The function of the Public Information Officer (PIO) is to __________ , __________ ,________ to the public

A
  1. Collect
  2. Verify
  3. Disseminate information
264
Q

How many Public Information Officer (PIO) should be designated for an incident?

A

1

265
Q

Who must release all incident information for the Public Information Officer (PIO) to disseminate?

A

NIMS Incident Commander

266
Q

To coordinate the release of emergency information and other public affairs functions, a ______________ may be established under NIMS

A

Joint Information Center (JIC)

267
Q

A pre-established __________ should be set up with phones, computer hookups, fax machines, wi-fi and/or other internet access

A

Media Center

268
Q

A crisis communication plan should be included in which document?

A

Airport Emergency Plan

269
Q

The Transportation Security Policy team provides what two periodicals?

A
  1. Security Policy Alerts and Notes

2. AAAE Security Smart Brief

270
Q

What does the AAAE Security Smart Brief include?

A

A daily free email providing the latest in trending security news

271
Q

What does the AAAE Security Policy Alerts and Notes provide?

A

Information for members on pending or existing TSA related actions or news

AAAE CM Test Questions (5 decks)

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