Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AAAE CM Test Questions > Module 2 > Flashcards

Module 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) announcements include the following information (15 Items)

A 
Airport Identifier
Time
Wind Direction and Speed
Visibility
Ceiling
Temperature
Dew Point
Altimeter Setting
Instrument Approaches and Runways in use
NOTAMs applicable to landing
Weather Advisories
Braking Action Report
Wind Shear Reports
Construction Activity
Other Information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) broadcasts their messages over which 2 items?

A

AWOS

Separate Assigned Frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS) is updated how frequently (2 answers)

A

Every hour or

as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

who updates Automated Terminal Information Services (ATIS)? 1 answer

A

Air Traffic Control Tower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who has legal responsibility regarding the hazardous waste? (4 Choices)

A

Generates the waste
Transports the waste
Owns the facility for storage, treatment or disposal of the waste
Operates the facility for storage, treatment or disposal of the waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A substance is considered hazardous when either listed on what? (Name the CFR) or possesses 1 of 4 characteristics (Name the 4 characteristics)

A 
CFR Part 261
Ignitability
Toxicity
Corrosiveness
Reactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define Ignitablity

A

Ignitability is how easily combustible or flammable the material is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define Toxicity

A

Toxicity means high concentrations of pesticides or heavy metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define Corrosiveness

A

Corrosiveness is if the waste burns the skin or dissolves metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Reactivity

A

Reactive chemicals are unstable and go through rapid or violent chemical reactions with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hazardous Waste Generators are classified into 3 categories based on volume, name them

A

Large Quantity Generator >1000 KG/Month
Small Quantity Generator 100-1000 KG/Month
Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generator <100 KG/Month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you determine what classification in hazardous waste generation an airport is (1 answer)

A

Total the weight of all the hazardous material the airport generates in a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens depending on your category of hazardous waste generation?

A

If the airport i Small quantity generator or Large Quantity generator (>100 KG/ Month), the airport must get an EPA ID #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why does one select a Runway Design Code?

A

To establish the planned Level of Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A Runway Design Code is made up of which 3 criteria

A
  1. Aircraft Approach Category
  2. Airplane Design Group
  3. Approach Visibility Minimums
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three types of approach a runway is certified to operate?

A
  1. Visual
  2. Non Precision Instrument
  3. Precision Instrument
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Aircraft Approach Category based on? (1 item)

A

Speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the airplane design group (ADG) based on? 2 items

A
  1. Tailheight

2. Wingspan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is considered “substantial use” of a runway? (1 of 2 things)

A
  1. 500 or more annual itinerant operations

2. The Largest scheduled commercial service aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The design aircraft approach speed translates into time and distance factors that identify which 3 criteria?

A
  1. Runway Length
  2. Visibility Requirements
  3. Approach Aids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is an aircraft’s wingspan important for design characteristics? 2 reasons

A

Indicative of:

  1. Weight Bearing Capacity
  2. Physical Size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The design aircraft dictate requirements for what two reasons

A
  1. Pavement strength

2. separation standards for wingtip and other clearances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Airfield design should be developed with the intent of preventing what 1 thing?

A

Runway Incursions

Safety is the highest priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

FAA requirements for federally funded projects must take into account what six factors?

A
  1. Safety
  2. Increased Capacity
  3. Reducing Delays
  4. Economic Viability
  5. Noise Reduction
  6. Environmental Protection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the Runway Design Code signify?

A

The design standards to which the runway is to be built

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The first step to designing an airport is to choose what regarding the airport?

A

The Runway Design Code (RDC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the composite of several different aircraft composed of the most demanding characteristics of each?

A

The Design Aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The Design Aircraft is a combination of what 3 criteria?

A
  1. Airport Approach Category (AAC)
  2. Airplane Design Group (ADG)
  3. Taxiway Design Group (TDG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the design aircraft at an airport with multiple runways

A

Each runway has its own design aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The Airport Approach Category, Airplane Design Group, and Taxiway Design Group will specify which two criteria regarding how airports are built?

A
  1. Strength

2. Dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aircraft Approach Category A is what approach speed?

A

< 91 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Aircraft Approach Category B is what approach speed?

A

91-121 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aircraft Approach Category C is what approach speed?

A

121-141 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aircraft Approach Category D is what approach speed?

A

141-166 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Aircraft Approach Category E is what approach speed?

A

> 166 Knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Airplane Design Group 1 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

< 20’ Tail, <49’ Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Airplane Design Group 2 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

20-30 Tail, 49-79 Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Airplane Design Group 3 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

30-45 Tail, 79-118 Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Airplane Design Group 4 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

45-60 Tail, 118-171 Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Airplane Design Group 5 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

60-66 Tail, 171-214 Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Airplane Design Group 6 has a tail height and wingspan of what size?

A

66-80 Tail, 214-262 Wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Is the Airplane Design Group measured by the tailheight, or the wingspan?

A

Whichever is most restrictive
For instance, a 35’ Tail (ADG 3) and 120’ Wing (ADG 4)
use ADG 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Instrument Flight Visibility Category is expressed in what values?

A

Runway Visual Range (RVR) values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which is most restrictive? Not lower than a mile or Lower than 1/4 Mile

A

Lower than 1/4 Mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the definition of the Airport Reference Code?

A

A designation that signifies the airport’s highest Runway Design Code minus the visibility component of the RDC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the Airport Reference Code used for?

A

Planning and design purposes only, it does not limit aircraft operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When must an airport incorporate a new design standard?

A

Any new construction after the effective date of a new design standard requires incorporation of that standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Airport management cannot permit any changes to its facility that might adversely affect (3 things)

A
  1. Safety
  2. Utility
  3. Efficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What must a modification to a design standard prove to be used as an alternative design?

A

That an equivalent level of safety and efficiency will be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the design considerations for a new runway? (5 items)

A
  1. ARC
  2. Weather
  3. Surrounding Environment
  4. Topography
  5. Volume of air traffic expected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Runway alignment is predicated on attempting to achieve a direction in which critical aircraft can use the runway within its max crosswind component what percent of the year?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If 95% wind coverage isn’t possible for a runway, what is the suggestion?

A

A crosswind runway should be considered as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the items that affect runway layouts? (8)

A
  1. Availability of airspace
  2. Existing/planned instrument approaches
  3. Missed approach procedure
  4. departure procedures
  5. control zones
  6. special use airspace
  7. restricted airspace
  8. Traffic patterns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 4 basic runway configurations

A
  1. Single
  2. Open V
  3. Parallel
  4. Intersecting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How many operations per hour can a single runway handle? Visual and Instrument

A

Visual: 99/Hr
Instrument: 42-53/Hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 4 kinds of parallel runways?

A
  1. Close
  2. Intermediate
  3. Far Parallel
  4. Dual Lane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the distance for a close parallel runway?

A

<2,500’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the distance for an intermediate parallel runway?

A

2,500 -4,300’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the distance for a Far Parallel runway?

A

> 4,300’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the definition of a dual-lane runway

A

Pairs of parallel runways separated by 4,300’ or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Two runways that diverge at an angle but do not intersect is called what kind of orientation?

A

An Open V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

At what kind of runway do operations drop by up to 50% depending on the wind, and why?

A

Open V if wind forces operations to both land towards the closed end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When two or more runways cross they are considered

A

Intersecting Runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which runway configuration uses the most land?

A

Intersecting Runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many runways will be in use with intersecting runways if there is strong winds?

A

Only 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The capacity of intersecting runways greatly depends on what? (2 things)

A
  1. Location of the intersection.

2. The way the runways are operated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the typical runway cross slope?

A

1% - 1.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the typical runway shoulder cross slope?

A

1.5% - 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is one characteristic of runway shoulders to prevent erosion from runoff or jet blast?

A

They must be stabilized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What material is a runway shoulder?

A 
They can be paved (especially for large aircraft)
or Grass (especially for small aircraft)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In an Open V runway configuration, if takeoffs and landings are made towards the closed end, the number of operations per hour can be reduced by what percent?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which runway configuration is best for relatively strong prevailing winds that change over the course of the year?

A

Intersecting Runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which is the primary agency responsible for nationwide enforcement of environmental regulations

A

Environmental Protection Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who can the EPA delegate environmental regulations to? (2 answers)

A
  1. FAA

2. State environmental agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Federal environmental regulations state that an the airport or an individual can be liable for what two exposures in the case of violations?

A
  1. Criminal

2. Civil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The outcomes of breaking an environmental regulation include what two outcomes?

A
  1. Imprisonment

2. Fines or other financial penalties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Mr. Smith a resident nearby catches the airport breaking an environmental regulation. He presses charges claiming negligence and says he wants the airport operator in jail. Can Mr. Smith press criminal charges?

A

No. Citizens can seek civil redress only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mr. Smith a resident nearby catches the airport breaking an environmental regulation. He claims negligence and says he is going to sue. Can Mr. Smith bring a civil suit?

A

Yes. ordinary citizens can seek civil redress under certain environmental statutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What does it mean that environmental statutes carry strict liability provision

A

It means that an airport executive can be convicted of a crime even if there was no intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How often can one be penalized for an environmental infraction that ends up with a civil penalty?

A

Each day the infraction continues to exist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the definition of enforcement with regards to environmental law?

A

Covers all efforts to ensure compliance with environmental laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the definition of compliance with regards to environmental law?

A

The condition that exists when a person or company fully obey the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the fundamental aim of enforcement with regards to environmental law

A

to convince those who are regulated that compliance is preferable to an enforcement action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What three basic factors determine whether a given public or private employee is personally liable with regards to environmental law?

A
  1. Ability to make timely discovery of the problem
  2. The power to direct activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the problem
  3. The ability to prevent and abate the damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What four options does the EPA use to respond to an environmental violation?

A
  1. informal notice of non-compliance letter
  2. Formal administrative legal order that may require corrective action within a time frame
  3. Civil judicial response (lawsuits brought in federal court)
  4. Criminal judicial response (when a person or company knowingly and willfully violated the law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What agencies investigate a criminal judicial case with regards to environmental law? (2 answers)

A
  1. EPA criminal investigation agents

2. FBI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

After a judicial decision in their favor, what does the EPA typically look for as a result of enforcement action with regards to environmental law? (2 answers)

A
  1. Remedy

2. Penalty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the 5 basic remedies for an EPA enforcement action with regards to environmental law?

A
  1. Require the violator to comply with the law
  2. Require the violator to carry out a supplemental project for an environmental benefit
  3. Impose Penalties
  4. Place the offender on the EPA list of violating facilities
  5. Imprison violators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What happens when an offender is placed on the EPA list of violating facilities? (3 answers)

A

The offender is suspended from receiving federal

  1. Grants
  2. Contracts
  3. Loans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What part of the Airport Master Plan explains how to implement the findings and recommendations of the planning effort?

A

Facilities Implementation Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The Facilities Implementation Plan is sometimes fused with what other part of the Airport Master Plan Process?

A

Financial Feasibility Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does a Facilities Implementation Plan suggest?

A

It suggests projects to include in the future Capital Improvement Plan (CIP) also known as a Transportation Improvement Plan (TIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Is an airport Capital Improvement Plan the same as the FAA’s Airport Capital Improvement Plan?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the FAA’s Airport Capital Improvement Plan?

A

The federal government’s national listing of projects eligible for AIP funding at a particular airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) addresses all of the airport’s planned capital projects to ensure there’s enough _______ and ______ resources are available and that it fits _______________ wise? (3 items)

A
  1. Fiscal
  2. Staff
  3. Scheduling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) balances what 6 items?

A
  1. Funding Constraints
  2. Project Sequencing
  3. Environmental Processing Considerations
  4. Tenant Approvals
  5. Contracts and Leases
  6. Sponsor Preferences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) must address all of what from the airport?

A

All of the airports planned capital projects (even those not included in the master plan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) should provide information regarding key activities such as?
(8 items)

A
  1. Board Approvals
  2. Coordination with Tenants
  3. Environmental Considerations
  4. Design Considerations
  5. Funding Sources
  6. Land Acquisition Activities
  7. Community Activities
  8. Coordination with regulatory agencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) may change year to year? True or False

A

True. A Facilities Implementation Plan (FIP) may change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

An airport Capital Improvement Plan (CIP) might change based on demand with specific improvements identified based on _______________

A

When specific milestones occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What FAR Part provides the operator with detailed regulations relating to managing objects that may interfere with aircraft flying in the airport area?

A

FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

In genral FAR Part 77 includes the following areas

5 answers

A
  1. Establishes standards for determining obstructions in navigable airspace;
  2. Sets forth the requirements for notice to the Administrator of certain proposed construction or alteration;
  3. Provides for aeronautical studies of obstructions to air navigation to determine their effect on the safe and efficient use of airspace;
  4. Provides for public hearings on the hazardous effect of proposed construction or alteration on air navigation; and
  5. Provides for establishing antenna farm areas.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Any natural growth, terrain, permanent, or temporary construction or alteration is defined as

A

Object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Is a tree’s leaves considered an object?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Is a temporary construction crane considered an object?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Is a helicopter in the air considered an object?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Is an airplane hangar considered an object?

A

Yes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Is stockpiled earth considered an object?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The FAA develops an approach to a runway and includes safety margins to account for? (4 items)

A
  1. Pilot Deviations
  2. Instrument Errors
  3. Terrain
  4. Obstacle Conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

If terrain prevents an approach from meeting approach criteria then what are the options?

A
  1. Displaced Threshold
  2. If Displaced Threshold makes the runway too short, then the normal decision height can be raised to allow the aircraft to use the full runway
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the normal decision height?

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the impact of raising a decision height?

A

It affects the number of successful approaches and landings made due to weather conditions at the airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Name the principal imaginary surfaces:

5

A
  1. Primary surfaces
  2. Transitional surfaces
  3. Approach surfaces
  4. Horizontal surfaces
  5. Conical surfaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

This surface starts 200 feet from the runway end and extends outward for up to 50,000 feet for a precision approach runway (less for others)

A

Approach Surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the horizontal distance of the conical surface?

A

4,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which imaginary surfaces go up at 20:1 Slope?

A
  1. Conical Surface

2. Approach Surface for visual runways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

At what height is the Horizontal surface a level plane?

A

150’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the range of the width of the primary surface

A

250’ - 1000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How far past the runway does the primary surface extend?

A

200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The slope of the approach surface depends on what?

A

The type of approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the slope of the transitional surface?

A

7:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

This imaginary surface is intended to accommodate for the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle to land or missed approaches?

A

Horizontal Surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the width of the Horizontal Surface? (2 answers)

A

5,000’ for visual approaches

10,000’ for instrument approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

This type of surface has a 40:1 Slope?

A

The Approach surface for Non precision instrument approaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What FAR Part defines obstruction and requirements to file notification as intending to sponsor a construction or alteration?

A

FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What organization does a sponsor of construction or alteration need notify if it is required to under FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace

A

The FAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

If construction is taller than what height is it required to contact the FAA according to FAR Part 77 Safe, Efficient use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace?

A

200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Lawrence, Kansas airport has 2 runways, 5700’ and 3900’ respectively. A building is being built 15,000’ from the airport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?

A

Yes.

a. Within 20,000 feet of a public-use or military airport that exceeds a 100:1 surface from any point on the runway of each airport with at least one runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Scott airport in Kansas is an airport with one runway that is 2145’ Long. A building is being built 15,000’ from the airport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?

A

No.

b. Within 10,000 feet of a public-use or military airport that exceeds a 50:1 surface from any point on the runway of each airport with its longest runway no more than 3,200 feet in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Carlisle is a heliport in Kansas. A building is being built 4,000’ from the heliport. At a point that is in the surface and exceeds 100:1 but is less than 25:1. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?

A

No.

c. Within 5,000 feet of a public-use heliport that exceeds a 25:1 surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Construction on airport at O’Hare is being done in a remote area on airport land. It is construction of a sound berm 15,000’ away from the nearest runway but is below 100:1 surface. Does this construction need to be reported according to Part 77?

A

Yes.

  1. Any construction or alteration located on a public-use airport or heliport regardless of height or location.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

If notification needs to be made by the airport operator or other entity regarding construction what form needs to be filled out?

A

Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Who conducts the Part 77 study after a Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration is submitted

A

FAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What are the 3 choices the FAA might answer with as a result of a Part 77 study?

A
  1. Resist
  2. Oppose
  3. Recommend
    Against the presence of objects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The FAA insists on what to promote compatible uses and also to protect the FAA’s investment in airports and the airways?

A

Land Use Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The FAA will issue a Determination of Hazard to Air Navigation if the aeronautical study concludes that the proposed construction will what? (2 items)

A
  1. Not exceed any of the obstruction standards

& 2. Would not be a hazard to air navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

If an object exceeds obstruction standards, does the FAA always oppose it?

A

No. The FAA can decide it is not a hazard to air navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

If an object exceeds obstruction standards, but the FAA decides it is not a hazard to air navigation, what might the FAA do? (3 answers)

A
  1. Might ask for temporary construction equipment
  2. supplemental notice requirements
  3. marking and lighting recommendations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What happens if the FAA determines that a proposed construction will interfere with operations of air navigation systems? (2)

A
  1. FAA will seek modifications to the application

or 2. Will change operational use of the affected airport or airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What are examples of operational changes the FAA might ask for if it determines a proposed construction will interfere with operations of air navigation systems?
(3 answers)

A
  1. Displacing a Threshold
  2. Raising approach minimums or visibility requirements
  3. Raising the aircraft minimum descent altitude in the area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What might an operational change requested by the FAA having to do with a Part 77 obstruction do to an airport? (2 answers)

A

It may reduce

  1. capacity or
  2. operational capability.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Prior to construction, what must the airport executive have to ensure safe operational practices during flight operations and for the duration of the project?

A

Construction Safety Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

For guidance on creating a Construction Safety plan, airport operators can look in what Advisory Circular?

A

AC 5370-2C Operational Safety on Airports During Construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Who has the overall responsibility to plan, schedule, and coordinate construction activities?

A

Airport Operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What steps regarding an Airport construction safety plan must an airport operator take to ensure safety of a construction project? (2 steps)

A
  1. Develop or approve a safety plan

2. Require contractors to submit plans how they intend to comply with safety requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What steps regarding entities involved with an airport construction project must an airport operator take to ensure safety of a construction project? (2 steps)

A
  1. Meet with all entities

2. Ensure accurate contact info for all entities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What entities should be contacted regarding airport construction projects? (4 entities)

A
  1. Airport Operations
  2. Airport Maintenance
  3. Contractors
  4. Tenants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

When collecting accurate contact information for entities involved in a construction project, what is particularly important contact information to receive

A

Contractor’s after hours point of contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What information must an airport operator disseminate to contractors regarding a construction project ?

A
  1. Ensure that construction personnel know of any changes in procedures, such as flight or vehicle ground operation, bad weather, or low visibility, that may affect their work;
  2. Ensure that contractors are trained in the determined safety plan, which may include airfield driver training, security processes interaction with ATC, airport signs, marking and lighting, vehicle operation, and communication;
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Regarding ARFF, what must an airport operator do before or during a construction project to ensure safety?

A
  1. Notifying ARFF personnel of construction activities that may affect response routes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What responsibilities does a contractor have regarding construction safety? (3)

A
  1. Providing safety compliance plans
  2. Providing a safety officer point of contact
  3. Restricting movement of construction vehicles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

In what ways does the contractor restrict the movement of vehicles? (4)

A
  1. Flagging
  2. Barricades
  3. Temporary Fencing
  4. Escorts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

A construction safety plan should focus on what procedures? (4)

A
  1. Protecting the RSA, and TSA
  2. Protecting Object Free Areas (OFAs)
  3. Protecting Obstacle Free Zones (OFZs)
  4. Threshold siting criteria
  5. Protecting Navaids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

At any time during construction what items may dictate more stringent safety measures? (4)

A
  1. Aircraft operations
  2. Weather
  3. Security
  4. Local Airport Rules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Airport operators need to ensure that both general and specific safety requirements are coordinated with what two stakeholders?

A
  1. ATCT

2. Tenants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Who should be coordinated with on all bid documents, construction plans, and specifications with regards to airport construction projects?

A
  1. ATCT

2. Tenants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

General safety provisions regarding construction are in what sections of AC 150/5370-10 Standards for Specifying Construction on Airports?

A
  1. 40-05 Maintenance of traffic
  2. 70-08 Barricades, Warning Signs, & Hazard Marking
  3. 80-04 Limitation of Operation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

A comprehensive construction vehicle plan should include what information? (6)

A
  1. Marking vehicles
  2. vehicle operator training
  3. escort requirements
  4. Marking procedures for access roads
  5. Radio Communication
  6. Procedures to address violations of the safety plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Open trenches and excavations are not permitted within what distance (or area) from the runway? (2)

A
  1. 200’

or 2. Runway Safety Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

For construction safety purposes, excavations must be prominently ___________ and when appropriate _________

A

Marked &

Lighted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

During construction, hazards and displaced threshholds including closed portions of a taxiway or runway must be appropriately ____________ (3 answers)

A
  1. Marked
  2. Lighted
  3. NOTAM issued
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Why must care be taken with construction stockpiles with regards to safety? (3)

A 
To ensure stockpiles are not within 
1) Object Free Areas
2) Obstacle Free Zones
and 
3) Stockpiles must be secured from the wind
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Many hazardous construction practices can be mitigated with what 2 things?

A
  1. Effective Communication

2. Development of an enforceable safety plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What Advisory Circular lists hazards to watch for during construction on airfields?

A
  1. AC 5370-2E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What 4 audiences are there to consider with terminal design?

A
  1. Passengers
  2. Airlines
  3. Airport Operators
  4. Community
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Which audience in the terminal is invested in providing facilities in the terminal that generate revenue?

A

Airport Operators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which audience in the terminal places importance on effective orientation graphics and signs?

A

Passengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which audience in the terminal wishes for provisions of efficient and effective security?

A

Airlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Which audience in the terminal wants coordination with the intermodal transportation system

A

Community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which audience in the terminal wants convenient access, personal comforts such as a variety of concessions and comfortable lounges, minimal walking distances, entertainment or business support options (Wi-Fi, charging stations, etc.), and children’s play areas. They desire minimal landside congestion, sufficient close-in parking (and extended parking options), access to rental car facilities, and effective orientation graphics and signs. Passengers also desire that their trips be completed without delay at reasonable cost and maximum convenience

A

Passengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which audience in the terminal wants airport that accommodate the existing and future airline fleets, provide efficient means of passenger and baggage flow, and have provisions for efficient and effective security.

A

Airlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which audience in the terminal are focused on maintenance issues, heating ventilation and air-conditioning cost, and providing facilities that generate revenue from concessionaires and other sources.43 They also want to provide a modern facility that is economically efficient and in harmony with the expectations of the community

A

Airport Operators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Which audience in the terminal desires that the airport provide a positive image of the community, harmony with the architectural elements of the total terminal complex, and coordination with the intermodal transportation systems

A

Community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which audience in the terminal are concerned with on-time performance, efficient allocation of personnel, airport operating costs, and profitability

A

Airlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What are the two major passenger categories?

A

Business and Leisure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Which type of passengers want close-in car rental, short distances to aircraft boarding, and airline travel clubs,

A

Business travelers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Which type of passengers desire curb-side access, economy parking, and seating areas?

A

Leisure Travelers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What items in a terminal are typically used by both kinds of travelers?

A

Restaurants and retail stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

For this kind of passenger you might need separate passenger holding and security areas, duty-free stores, and currency exchanges

A

International travelers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Airport with international travelers have higher or lower peak hour activity?

A

Higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

International travel comes with higher peak hour activity for what reasons? (3 reasons)

A
  1. Time zone changes
  2. Airport Operating Restrictions
  3. Trans-oceanic route availability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

How long are international airplane turn around times typically?

A

2-3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

In addition to passengers, what two groups of visitors must an airport be able to accommodate?

A
  1. Meet and Greeters

2. Service and Delivery personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Airports with limited landside access and limited parking typically have what to accommodate travelers who are being picked up?

A

Cell phone lots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What grant assurance requires the airport sponsor to keep the Airport Layout Plan (ALP) up to date at all times

A

Grant Assurance 29 - Airport Layout Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What item is used to graphically depict existing and proposed airport land, terminal, and other facilities and structures owned by the airport, protection zones, and approach areas?

A

Airport Layout Plan (ALP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Which Advisory Circular has standards for Airport Layout Plans?

A

150/5070-6 Airport Master Plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

An Airport Layout Plan (ALP) has a narrative featuring what items? (5)

A
  1. Basic Aeronautical Forecasts
  2. Basis for proposed items of development
  3. Rationale for unusual design features or Mod to Standards
  4. Environmental features that might influence airport ops
  5. A summary of various stages of airport development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

A standard Airport Layout Plan (ALP) has what drawings included?

A
  1. Cover sheet
  2. ALP Sheet
  3. Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)
  4. Airspace Drawings
  5. Inner Portion of the Approach Surface Drawing
  6. Terminal Area Plan
  7. Land Use Drawing
  8. Runway Departure Surfaces Drawing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Is an Airport Layout Plan (ALP) approved or accepted by the FAA

A

ALP is approved and is a legal document

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What FAA order provides supplemental guidance for preparation of an Airport Layout Plan (ALP)

A

FAA Order 5100.38 Airport Improvement Program Handbook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What does FAA’s approval of an Airport Layout Plan (ALP) signify and not signify? (2 of each)

A

+ 1. FAA concurrence in the conformity of the plan to design standards
+ 2. Agreement between FAA and sponsor regarding proposed allocation of airport areas for specific operational/support functions
- 1. FAA release of any federal obligated land or property
- 2. FAA approval to use land for non-aeronautical purposes (this requires separate approval)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

At West Jordan airport the airport manager added added hangars not show on the ALP and within the Building Restriction Line. What happens now?

A
  1. The FAA determines if it will affect safety, utility, or efficiency of any federally owned/leased on/off airport property
  2. If yes, FAA may require airport to eliminate the adverse effect or bear the cost of rectifying the situation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

What are the 5 primary functions of an ALP?

A
  1. FAA approved document for airport to receive AIP funding and continue to receive PFCs
  2. Blueprint for development
  3. Working tool for airport ops and maintenance
  4. Public document for community reference
  5. Enables the FAA and sponsor to plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

How far in advance does FAR part 157 require airports to notify the FAA regarding construction or change in use of an airport?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Notification of construction or alteration on an airport is provided on FAA Standard form _______?

A

FAA Standard Form SF-7460-1—Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Notification of construction or alteration of a landing area is provided on FAA Standard form _______?

A

FAA Standard Form SF-7480-1—Notice of Landing Area Proposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

How often should an ALP be reviewed and validated?

A

Every 2-7 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

When is it advised that an ALP update may be necessary? (5)

A
  1. When existing projects can’t handle forecasted aeronautical need
  2. Existing facilities do not meet airport design standards
  3. When many physical changes have happened at the airport
  4. When many “pen and ink” changes have been made to an existing ALP
  5. When the Airport Capital Improvement Plan needs an update
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

An ALP is turned into to what FAA office?

A

Airport District Office (ADO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What do grant assurances require to be kept up to date regarding the ALP?

A
  1. Exhibit A
  2. Location of all existing and proposed Non aviation areas on airport property
  3. Location and nature of all existing and proposed facilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

A community may use an ALP for what reasons? (3 items)

A
  1. Land use proposals
  2. Budgeting
  3. Resource Planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What is the name of the electronic ALP system the FAA now uses?

A

eALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What platform allows airport executives to share accurate airport data in an integrated environment?

A

eALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What ALP drawing is intended to show all FAR Part 77 imaginary surface

A

Airport Airspace Drawings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

What ALP drawing includes the existing and future airfield layout and facilities

A

ALP sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What ALP drawing is essentially a closer look at the facilities located on an airport

A

Facilities Layout Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What ALP drawing depict existing and recommended uses of all land within the ultimate airport property line and within the vicinity of the airport at least to the 65 DNL contour?

A

On airport / Off airport land use drawings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What ALP drawing contains airport and runway tables and wind rose?

A

Data Sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What ALP drawing show a profile view that presents all runway approaches and the locations of the objects as they affect approach.

A

Inner portions of the approach surface Drawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What ALP drawing depicts major routes and modes of transportation that serve the airport?

A

Airport Access Plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

What ALP drawing depicts the airport terminal and its surrounding facilities.

A

Terminal Area Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

On the ALP sheet lines depicting what areas are typically shown? (8 items)

A
  1. RSA
  2. OFAs
  3. OFZs
  4. RPZs
  5. Property Line
  6. Building Restriction Line
  7. Runway Visibility Line
  8. Location of the ATCT and other facilities (ARFF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What ALP drawing depicts the location of sewer, and electric, and cable lines in and around the airport?

A

Utility Drawing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What ALP drawing depicts how various tracts of land were acquired?

A

Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

What ALP drawing displays the legal interest and ownership of land that makes up the airport

A

Airport Property Map (Exhibit A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What ALP drawing shows the ground access to the airport terminal area along with major highways routes from the airport to the Central Business District. Rail and water are sometimes shown as well

A

Terminal Area Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

FAA approves ALPs to ensure that all existing and proposed airport development will fit in with 3 terms

A
  1. Safe
  2. Efficient
  3. Useful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

In terms of ALP development, what does safe mean?

A

Airport meets design standards and provides for safe operation of aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

In terms of ALP development, what does efficient mean?

A

Planned capacity is sufficient for forecast demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

In terms of ALP development, what does useful mean?

A

In relation to airport purpose. Making the best use of land while minimizing off airport structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What three levels of approvals does the FAA give regarding ALPs?

A
  1. Unconditional
  2. Conditional
  3. Mixed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs is proposed development requiring environmental processing have received environmental approval?

A

Unconditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs means near term projects depicted in the ALP have completed the NEPA reviews?

A

Mixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Which level of FAA approval regarding ALPs means that environmental processing has not been completed for all of the items of proposed development requiring it?

A

Conditional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Bryce Canyon airport has a Mixed Approval ALP. They want to construct a new Taxiway R that has received conditional approval but their airport sponsor is nervous because the entire ALP is not unconditionally approved. Is this ok?

A

Yes, In a Mixed Approval, those elements that are unconditionally approved can be implemented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

What term does the FAA use for near term projects with regards to an ALP?

A

“Ripe for decision”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What are the two primary types of radar facilities in the United States?

A

Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)

Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Who staffs Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) and Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facilities?

A

FAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What is the primary purposes of Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) and Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facilities?

A

Providing sequencing and separation to pilots in US airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) link the ________ to the _______ structure of the National Airpspace System

A

Departure Airport

En Route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

How high does terminal airspace typically extend?

A

10,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

How far out from the facility does terminal airspace typically extend?

A

30 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) typically exist around what size of airport?

A

Large-Hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What are the controller positions typically found in a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) ? (4)

A

Approach Control
Departure Control
Clearance Delivery
Flight Data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Which position in the Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) or Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) is responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft out of terminal airspace and into en route navigation?

A

Departure Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What is the primary function of Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC)?

A

To separate participating aircraft traveling in en route airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) typically work with what kind of traffic?

A

Traffic on an IFR Flight plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What is a radar system comprised of? (4)

A

Transmitter
Antenna
Receiver
Display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

What are the primary types of Radar? (5)

A 
Air Surveillance Radar (ASR)
Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)
Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

This type of RADAR is used by the US Military and provides both vertical and lateral guidance

A

Precision Approach Radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

This type of RADAR has a long range and is used by Air Route Traffic Control Centers (ARTCC) for en route flight separation and identification

A

Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What range does Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR) have?

A

100-250 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

This short range RADAR is used by ATCT to augment and confirm information and vehicle position reporting

A

Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

This type of short range RADAR is used for separating and identifying traffic in and around airports

A

Air Surveillance Radar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What RADAR equipment is used by ATC to detect potential runway conflicts by providing detailed coverage of taxiway and runway movement?

A

ASDE-X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

How far out can Air Suveillance Radar detect?

A

60 NM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

This type of RADAR is used by the TRACON in conjunction with Air Suveillance RADAR (ASR) and can receive transponder signals

A

Automatic Radar Terminal System (ARTS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

This type of RADAR is used for accurate airport use and allows inbound use of two parallel runways to be closer that 4,300’

A

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What is the name of the restricted area between two approach corridors as used by Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)

A

No Transgression Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

How far away from the airport can ASDE-X equipment provide surveillance?

A

5 Miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE) works together with ________________ to alert pilots that a runway is active or that a potential conflict with another aircraft exists

A

Airport Movement Area Safety System (AMASS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

A beacon device installed on an aircraft and used to send data on the aircraft’s position and altitude is known as?

A

Transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Pilots can “Squawk” emergency codes on their transponder. What are 3 important ones

A

7700 - Aircraft Emergency
7600 - Radio Failure, Communication Issue
7500 - Hijacking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Mode C transponder has what kind of encoding capability

A

Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) just received a squawk of 7500 from a nearby plane. What does that mean?

A

Hijacking!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

What altitude increment can a Mode S transponder report in

A

25’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) just received a squawk of 7600 from a nearby plane. What does that mean?

A

Communications Error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

In response to the global concern of sustaining compliance with environmental regulations and policies, airport administrations are now utilizing comprehensive _______________

A

Environmental Management Systems (EMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What FAA Advisory circular provides guidance on establish methods for Environmental Management Systems (EMS)

A

AC 150/5050-B Environmental Management Systems for Airport Sponsors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What are the 6 main steps for developing a sufficient Environmental Management Systems (EMS)

A
  1. Establish a position on environmental compliance
  2. Communicate compliance goals to stakeholders
  3. Audit current level of compliance
  4. Establish programs to gain compliance
  5. Create processes to correct & maintain compliance
  6. Implement strategies to build environmental capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Three Key activities for maintaining environmental compliance are?

A
  1. Employee /tenant training
  2. Audits of airport EMS programs
  3. Sound record keeping processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Environmental Management Systems (EMS) benefits include (5)

A
  1. increased efficiency
  2. reduced costs and liability
  3. increased employee awareness of environmental responsibility
  4. improved community relations
  5. Increased accountability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What are the 5 components of the Environmental Management System (EMS)

A
  1. Commitment and Environmental Policy
  2. Management Review
  3. Planning
  4. Implementation and Operation
  5. Checking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What is the basis for effective decision making in airport planning with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)

A

Forecasting of future levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What is the expectation of forecasts with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)

A
  1. Based on current data

2. Forecasts are expected to be realistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What is the length of short term, medium term, and long term forecasting effort with regard to the Airport Master Plan (AMP)?

A

Short: < 5 Years
Medium: 6-10 Years
Long: > 10 Years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What forecasts are available for use in developing Master Plan Forecasts (8)

A
  1. Terminal Area Forecast
  2. Historical Data
  3. National Aerospace forecasts
  4. FAA Long Range Aerospace Forecasts
  5. State Aviation System Plans
  6. Official Airline Guide (OAG)
  7. FAA Form 5010
  8. Airport Master Record
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Who publishes the National Aerospace forecasts and the FAA Long Range Aerospace Forecasts?

A

FAA’s Office of Aviation Policy and Plans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Define and Aircraft Operation

A

A takeoff or landing at an airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Loa Airport had 200 itinerant departures per year, 400 itinerant arrivals this year, and 1000 touch and go from student pilots this year. How many aircraft operations did they have?

A

2,600.
An aircraft operation is defined as a takeoff or a landing at an airport. The definition includes “touch and go” operations, which count as two sequential operations—one landing and one takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Operations are classified as one of what two kinds?

A
  1. Local

2. Itinerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Halls Crossing Airport has an operation from a student doing flying the pattern at the airport. What kind of operation is this?

A

Local Operation

274
Q

ATCT routinely keeps record of what kind of operaton?

A

Itinerant

275
Q

Moab airport just had a low pass happen at its airport. Does the tower record that as an operation?

A

Yes, it is considered a local operation

276
Q

A forecast of __________ is needed for planning or upgrading navaids and landing systems?

A

Annual Instrument Approaches

277
Q

What are the 5 required aviation demand elements for an Airport Master Plan

A
  1. Local Operations
  2. Itinerant Operations
  3. Enplanements
  4. Based Aircraft
  5. Aircraft Mix
278
Q

What is the radius for local training areas to be considered a local operation

A

20 NM

279
Q

A forecast of Annual Instrument Approaches is needed for planning or upgrading what two things?

A
  1. NAVAIDS

2. Landing Systems

280
Q

What are the 5 categories of itinerant operations

A
  1. Air Carrier
  2. Commuter
  3. Air Taxi
  4. General Aviation
  5. Military
281
Q

Define an enplanement (3 terms)

A
  1. Paying Passenger
  2. Departing
    on a
  3. Commercial Aircraft
282
Q

What type of passenger is not included as an enplanement

A

Non revenue Passengers

283
Q

Who is a non revenue passenger?

A
  1. Airline employee

2. Thru-passengers

284
Q

What is a thru-passenger?

A

Departing on aircraft with the same flight number that they arrived and not requiring re-boarding

285
Q

Cedar City airport has 400 originating passengers. 300 transfer passengers. and 500 thru passengers, and 100 Air Taxi passengers. How many enplanements are there?

A
  1. Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
    Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers
286
Q

Ogden Airport has 1000 originating passengers. 600 transfer passengers. 100 thru passengers. 2000 charter passengers. 100 air taxi passengers. 600 private general aviation passengers. How many total enplanements are there?

A

3700.
Enplaned passengers are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers

287
Q

St George Airport has 300 originating passengers. 0 Transfer Passengers. 100 thru passengers. 500 charter passengers. 500 air taxi passengers. 1000 private GA passengers. and 100 airline non-paying airline reps. How many total enplanements are there?

A

1300.
Enplaned passengers are the total number of paying passengers who are departing on commercial aircraft.
Originating and transfer passengers are included as are air taxi or charter passengers.
Not included are non-revenue passengers such as airline employees or thru-passengers

288
Q

Salt Lake City airport carried 1000 tons of priority cargo. 1500 tons of non priority cargo. 500 tons of foreign mail, and 800 tons of passenger baggage on Monday. What is the total tonnage of enplaned cargo?

A

3000 tons.
includes the total tonnage of priority, non-priority, and foreign mail, express, and freight (property other than baggage accompanying passengers) departing on aircraft at an airport to include originations, stopovers, and transfer cargo

289
Q

What does the aircraft mix refer to?

A

The categories of aircraft

290
Q

The categories of aircraft is defined as?

A

Aircraft Mix

291
Q

What are the sizes of airplanes typically defined in the aircraft mix? (3)

A

< 12,500 lbs
12,500 - 60,000
>60,000

292
Q

Aviation Demand forecasts typically identify (2)

A
  1. Airport’s design aircraft

2. Fleet Mix

293
Q

Aviation Demand Forecasts at commercial service airports usually include?

A

Number of passenger enplanements

294
Q

Aviation Demand Forecasts at GA airports usually include?

A

Forecasts for based aircraft

295
Q

Aviation Demand Forecasts at cargo airports usually include?

A

Forecasts of cargo tonnage

296
Q

Knowing hourly peaks is critical at what kind of airports

A

Commercial service airports that service as hubs or have substantial international traffic

297
Q

What factors are used to forecast the demand for individual airport Master Plans

A
  1. Economic Characteristics
  2. Demographics Characteristics
  3. Geographic Characteristics
  4. Aviation Related Factors
  5. Other Factors
298
Q

Economic characteristics are especially important in connection with what 3 groups?

A
  1. Business Travelers at Commercial Airports
  2. Business Travelers at GA
  3. Cargo Traffic
299
Q

Manufacturing, service industries, primary and resource businesses, agricultural flying, instructional flying, and aircraft sales account for which one of the forecast demand factors in the Master Plan?

A

Economic Characteristics

300
Q

Fuel price fluctuations, changes in items such as the regulatory environment, the levels and types of taxes, fees, and currency restrictions, business activities, industry trends, mergers, consolidations, and new marketing agreements are all which demand factor in the Master Plan?

A

Aviation Related Factors

301
Q

Minneapolis Airport just got a new international route to Zagbreg. When accounting for this in a master plan, what factor is this considered?

A

Aviation Related Factor

302
Q

Park City has an airport that gets a lot of tourist clientele due to its proximity to the mountains. Which demand factor in the Airport Master Plan does this best relate to?

A

Geographic Factors

303
Q

Economic fluctuations such as fuel price changes, currency and trade restrictions, political developments, international tension, changing regulations, and environmental impacts are all examples of what kind of demand factor in the Airport Master Plan?

A

Other Factors

304
Q

An airport community’s population and growth rate are examples of what kind of demand factors in the Airport Master Plan?

A

Demographic Factors

305
Q

What FAA Order describes the Priority system for discretionary funds to determine which projects receive funding?

A

FAA Order 5100.39A

306
Q

Highest Priority discretionary fund projects relate to the following goals (3)

A

1) Safety and security
2) Increasing Capacity
3) Improved compatibility with surrounding community

307
Q

Discretionary funds are decided for use by what?

A

National Priority System (NPS)

308
Q

Discretionary Funds using the National Priority System (NPS) use values from ______ to ______?

A

0 - 100 Points

309
Q

How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get for being a Large or Medium Hub airport?

A

5 Points

310
Q

How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get for being a Small or non-Hub airport?

A

4 Points

311
Q

How many National Priority System (NPS) points do you get as a reliever or GA airport?

A

Depends on # of annual operations

312
Q

What 3 categories are used for determining points in the national priority system other than airport size?

A

Purpose
Component
Type

313
Q

What are some examples of purpose points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)

A
  1. Capacity
  2. Safety
  3. Security
  4. Reconstruction
314
Q

What are some examples of Component points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)

A
  1. Land
  2. Planning
  3. Apron
  4. Building
315
Q

What are some examples of Type points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)

A
  1. Bond Retirement
  2. Construction
  3. Fuel Farm Development
  4. RWY/TWY Signs
316
Q

In the Purpose Category what projects get the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Safety/Security - 10 Points

317
Q

In the Purpose Category what projects get 9 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Statutory Emphasis Projects - 9 Points

318
Q

In the Purpose Category what projects get 8 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Reconstruction, Planning, and Environmental Projects - 8 Points

319
Q

In the Purpose Category what projects get 6 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Capacity and Standards - 6 Points

320
Q

In the Purpose Category what projects get 4 points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Other Projects - 4 Points

321
Q

In the Component Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Runways - 10 Points

322
Q

In the Component Category what projects gets the most points AFTER runways for the National Priority System (NPS)?

A

Helipads and Seaplane Bases

323
Q

In the Component Category what projects gets the most points after runways, helipads, and seaplane bases for the National Priority System (NPS)? (2)

A

Taxiways and equipment

324
Q

What are lowest in the component category for what projects gets the most points in the National Priority System (NPS)? (4)

A
  1. Land
  2. Public Buildings
  3. Planning Projects
  4. Residential or noise related projects
325
Q

In the Type Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS)? (2)

A
  1. Obstruction Removal

2. Construction and Noise in 75 DNL

326
Q

In the Type Category what projects gets the most points for the National Priority System (NPS) after obstruction removal and construction and noise in the 75 DNL? (3)

A
  1. Snow Removal Equipment
  2. Weather Reporting Equipment
  3. Safety-Zone Projects
327
Q

Define Take off Distance Available

A

Available unobstructed airspace

328
Q

Define Take off run available

A

Distance available for take off on pavement

329
Q

Define Airport Reference Point

A

Latitude and Longitude of the geometric center of the runwaya

330
Q

Define Landing Distance Available

A

Available pavement for landing

331
Q

Define Airport Elevation

A

Highest elevation on a usable runway

332
Q

Define Accelerate-Stop Distance

A

Distance the aircraft has to stop in the case of an aborted take-off

333
Q

What is the width of the Object Free Area?

A

250-800’

334
Q

How far past the runway end does the Object Free Area extend?

A

240’-1000’

335
Q

What is the ceiling for the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)

A

150’

336
Q

Define Obstacle Free Zone

A

airspace above the runway at any point but below the 150’ floor of the horizontal surface

337
Q

How far does the Obstacle Free Zone extend past the runway end?

A

200’

338
Q

What is the range of the width of the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)

A

120’-400’

339
Q

What does the size of the Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ) depend on? (2)

A
  1. Visibility Requirements

2. Aircraft Size

340
Q

With regards to maximum take off weights, what is the border between large and small aircraft?

A

12,5000 lbs

341
Q

What shape is a stopway and a clearway?

A

Rectangle

342
Q

Define a Clearway

A

Area off the departure end of a runway suitable for use in calculating aircraft take off performance

343
Q

Clearway is factored into how much ___________ is available

A

Take off distance (TODA)

344
Q

Define a Stopway

A

Area off the departure end of a runway used to support and minimize damage in case of an overrun

345
Q

A Clearway and Stopway are both on which side of a runway?

A

Departure end

346
Q

What shape is a Runway Protection Zone?

A

Trapezoid

347
Q

The Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) starts how far off the end of a runway?

A

200’

348
Q

What does the size of an Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) vary with?

A
  1. Design Aircraft

2. Approach Minimums

349
Q

What is the variance of length for a Runway Protection Zone (RPZ)

A

1,000 - 2,500’

350
Q

What is the size of the smallest width of the trapezoid? (Not a number)

A

Width of the primary surface

351
Q

What is the range in size of a Runway Safety Area?

A

120’ - 500’

352
Q

What is the range in size of a Taxiway Safety Area?

A

49’ - 262’

353
Q

What are the 5 attributes of effective wayfinding signage?

A
  1. Conspicuous
  2. Concise
  3. Comprehensible
  4. Legible
  5. Location
354
Q

Effective Wayfinding begins with _________

A

Airport Layout

355
Q

What is regulatory airspace?

A
  1. A,B,C,D,E airspace
  2. Restricted Areas
  3. Prohibited Areas
356
Q

What is non-regulatory airspace?

A
  1. Warning Areas
  2. Alert Areas
  3. Controlled Firing Areas
  4. Military Operation Areas
357
Q

How far out from shore does a warning area begin?

A

3 Miles

358
Q

Warning areas denote airspace over __________

A

International Waters

359
Q

________________ exists over the capitol, White House, and surrounding areas

A

Flight Restriction Zone

360
Q

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) are areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar services and typically overlay what airspace?

A

Class D

361
Q

What are the two shelf sizes of Class C airspace?

A
  1. 5 NM Core up to 4,000’

2. 10 NM radius shelf from 1,200’ -4,000’

362
Q

What are the heights of Class E Airspace (2)

A
  1. Up to 18,000’

2. 60,000’ to limits of space

363
Q

These areas are where participating pilots can receive additional radar services and typically overlay Class D Airspace

A

Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA)

364
Q

What is another name for Class C towers?

A

IFR towers or Radar towers

365
Q

_____________exist at airports without a control tower but that have an on-field FAA FSS in operation

A

Airport Advisory Areas

366
Q

When a tower is not operational at an airport with Class D airspace, what does that airspace become?

A

Class E or Class G

367
Q

If a pilot cannot remain clear of a Parachute Jump Area, what should they do?

A

Monitor the frequency of the aircraft carrying the skydivers

368
Q

_______________ are for transitioning around, under, or through complex airspace

A

Published VFR Routes

369
Q

This airspace are corridors that are identified as federal airways. They are designated to serve a variety of terminal or en route purposes including help to provide separation of VFR and IFR traffic.

A

Class E

370
Q

Where can one find a published VFR Route?

A

VFR Sectional area chart

371
Q

This airspace is generally from the surface to 4000’ surrounding airports with an operational ATCT

A

Class C

372
Q

Why are civil aircraft allowed in Controlled Firing Areas?

A

They are not depicted on aeronautical charts

373
Q

What is one example of an alert area?

A

Pensacola Florida where naval aviators are trained, so civilian pilots are notified of high volumes of traffic

374
Q

What is a military transition route?

A

One-way, high speed routes for traffic flying below 10,000 MSL

375
Q

What are Military Operations Areas for?

A

Separating high speed military traffic from GA/Commercial Traffic

376
Q

Below what height are Military Transition Routes?

A

10,000 MSL

377
Q

What height does Class D airspace go to?

A

Surface - 2,500’

378
Q

In what areas have there been many cases of aircraft colliding with military aircraft

A

Military Transition Routes

379
Q

_____________ denote airspace that may be used for hazards that are visible to aircraft, such as aerial gunnery, guided missiles, or artillery firing.

A

Restricted Areas

380
Q

Who is authorized in a restricted area?

A
  1. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan
381
Q

What should a VFR pilot do about a restricted area?

A

Should ensure the restricted area is not active prior to entering that airspace

382
Q

__________ are airspaces in which an unusual activity is taking place. _________ are used to advise pilots of potential conflicts, but these areas have no special rules

A

Alert Areas

383
Q

What areas are imposed to preclude aircraft from entering the area in which an incident or event is occuring?

A

Temporary Flight Restrictions

384
Q

______________ are published locations where parachute activities occur.

A

Parachute Jump Areas

385
Q

What height does Class A airspace exist?

A

18,000’ - 60,000’

386
Q

_________ contain airspace in which aicraft flight is not allowed - typically for national security

A

Prohibited Areas

387
Q

______________ consist of airspaces of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established at locations where increased security and safety of ground facilities is necessary.

A

National Security Areas

388
Q

________________ contain activities that could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft, but the activities are immediately suspended when spotter aircraft, radar, or a ground lookout indicates that an aircraft may be approaching.

A

Controlled Firing Areas

389
Q

When IFR operates below 18,000’ it is considered ________________

A

Controlled Airspace

390
Q

These areas exist around all borders of the United States and Washington D.C.

A

Air Defense Identification Zone

391
Q

What airports does Class E airspace exist at?

A
  1. No control tower

2. Published Instrument Procedure

392
Q

What height is generally Class B airspace?

A

Surface to 10,000’

393
Q

What is required for aircraft to operate in Class B airspace?

A

ATC clearance

394
Q

What is the VFR requirements for entering Class B airspace?

A
  1. Clear of Clouds
  2. Operable 2-way radio
  3. Altitude reporting Mode C Transponder
395
Q

_______________ consist of controlled airspace extending out from the end of the radius of controlled airspace around Class B and C airspace. These allow for the ascent or descent of IFR aircraft into those areas.

A

Transition areas

396
Q

What refers to the area above 14,500’ overlaying the 48 contiguous states?

A

Continental Control Area

397
Q

_________ is the sum total of all airports, navigational aids, air traffic control, and airspace in the United States

A

National Airspace System (NAS)

398
Q

Anytime a vehicle moves from a non-controlled area to a controlled area, it is entering the Movement Area; it must have clearance from whom in the ATCT?

A

Ground Controller

399
Q

Pilots operating from a towered airport require 2 things

A
  1. Two-way communication with the tower

2. Acknowledgement of tower instructions when given

400
Q

the ____________ delineates those areas under the control and responsibility of the ATCT, and those under the airport’s control (i.e. the Movement and Non-Movement areas).

A

Memorandum of Understanding/ Letter of Agreement

401
Q

The Memorandum of Understanding for an ATCT outlines the following responsibilities (6)

A
  1. Hours of operation
  2. Emergency notification responsibility
  3. Authorized Vehicles
  4. Type of Communication Equipment
  5. Call signs to be used
  6. Areas where ATC clearance is required
402
Q

Non-towered airport procedures and communication practices for operating on the airport are found in the _________________

A

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

403
Q

Some large-hub airports have control personnel staffed by the airport or airlines called

A

Ramp Control

404
Q

What is the difference between CTAF and UNICOM

A
  1. UNICOM may offer weather, wind direction, and recommended runway
  2. Often staffed by an FBO or Flight Service Station (FSS)
405
Q

A ______________ has the responsibility of managing all aircraft and vehicular activity on the airport’s taxiways

A

Ground controller

406
Q

Aurora airport’s ATCT operates from 8 AM - 4 PM Monday - Friday. On Saturday is Aurora airport a towered airport

A

NO! A towered airport has an OPERATING control tower

407
Q

Pilots should use UNICOM or CTAF whenever they are in these three places

A
  1. Runways
  2. Taxiways
  3. Traffic Pattern
408
Q

A __________ is responsible for handling arriving and departing aircraft on the active runways and within the assigned airports airspace

A

Tower (or Local) controller

409
Q

At a small airport the Tower controller and Ground controller may be the same person but they will operate _____________

A

on different frequencies

410
Q

Who has right of way at a non-towered airport?

A

Landing Aircraft

411
Q

The general concept of ____________ is used at non-towered airports

A

See and Avoid

412
Q

What are the two devoted position in an ATCT?

A
  1. Ground Control

2. Tower Control

413
Q

Why are air traffic patterns established? (2)

A
  1. To maintain visual separation

2. To provide orderliness for aircraft using an airport.

414
Q

What is typically the traffic pattern altitude?

A

600’ - 1500’

415
Q

A standard traffic pattern is what direction

A

Left Hand Pattern

416
Q

What are the 6 legs of a typically traffic pattern

A
  1. Departure
  2. Crosswind
  3. Upwind
  4. Downwind
  5. Base Leg
  6. Final Approach
417
Q

Which leg is considered the most important of the legs in the traffic pattern

A

Final Approach Leg

418
Q

When does the departure leg begin and end?

A

The point the airplane leaves the ground and continues until the 90 degree turn onto the crosswind leg

419
Q

Describe the base leg

A

Transitional part of the traffic pattern between the downwind leg and the final approach leg.

420
Q

Which leg should a pilot typically enter the pattern for a landing

A

The downwind leg

421
Q

When does the Final Approach leg terminate?

A

At Touchdown

422
Q

If a pilot takes off and intends to stay in the pattern what should they do? (2)

A
  1. Commence a turn towards the crosswind leg beyond the departure end of the runway
  2. Stay within 300’ of pattern altitude
423
Q

Describe the crosswind leg

A

part of the rectangular pattern that is horizontally perpendicular to the extended centerline of the takeoff runway and is entered by making approximately a 90° turn from the upwind leg.

424
Q

Describe the final approach leg

A

descending flight path starting from the completion of the base-to-final turn and extending to the point of touchdown

425
Q

What would be the two reasons to use the upwind leg

A
  1. Straight in approach

2. Go around (aborted landing)

426
Q

Describe a downwind leg (2)

A
  1. Parallel to the landing runway

2. Opposite direction of landing

427
Q

Mike Smith is being brought to court for a near-miss near non-towered Olney airport. The allegation is that he used a right hand pattern instead of left that almost caused the incident. Is Mr. Smith liable?

A

No. The FAA recommends the standard traffic pattern for all non-towered airports, but the recommended pattern does not have the force of a regulation; pilots can fly any pattern they desire as long as turns are made in the proper direction.

428
Q

What do pilots use to visualize an air traffic pattern?

A

Segmented Circle

429
Q

What are two major reasons a flight pattern might be modified?

A
  1. Obstacles

2. Noise abatement

430
Q

What are the two primary benefits of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A
  1. Safety

2. Reduced Flight Disruption

431
Q

What type of guidance does an Instrument Landing System (ILS) provide? (2)

A
  1. Vertical

2. Horizontal

432
Q

The components of Instrument Landing System (ILS) give __________, _________, __________ information during an approach to land

A
  1. Azimuthal (Horizontal)
  2. Elevaton
  3. Range (Distance)
433
Q

What are the components of an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? (5)

A
  1. Localizer
  2. Glide Slope
  3. Outer Marker
  4. Middle Marker
  5. FAA Determined Decision Height
434
Q

What policy has establishment criteria for Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

FAA Policy APO-83-10 Establishment and Discontinuance Criteria for Precision Landing Systems

435
Q

How does an airport become eligible for an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

an Economic analysis that includes the establishment formula and cost-benefit factors

436
Q

What are the 3 key establishment criteria for an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A
  1. Annual Instrument Approaches
  2. Number of non-precision approach minimums on the candidate runway
  3. Probability of IFR weather at the airport
437
Q

What would an Instrument Landing System (ILS) cost benefit analysis consider? (6)

A
  1. Value of air travel time
  2. Value of the equipment’s statistical life
  3. Unit cost of injuries
  4. Unit cost of damaged aircraft
  5. Aircraft capability and utilization factors
  6. Variable Operating Cost
438
Q

An airport may earn an ILS with exemptions from meeting the criteria for reasons such as what three ways?

A
  1. unique terrain
  2. severe weather areas
  3. Highly congested area
439
Q

Any Instrument Landing System (ILS) installation must meet FAA design standards found in _________ and have an airspace allocation and flight route capability determined to be acceptable under __________

A

AC 5300-13, Airport Design

FAA Order 8260.3 Terminal Approach Procedure

440
Q

What end of the runway is the localizer located?

A

Departure end

441
Q

How far past the end of the runway is the localizer located?

A

1000’

442
Q

What kind of beam is a localizer based on?

A

RF beam

443
Q

A localizer provides _____________ to the pilot in order to align the aircraft with the runway centerline

A

Lateral positioning guidance

444
Q

How far is the line-of-sight distance for a localizer?

A

10 NM

445
Q

What is the focused range in degrees for a localizer?

A

35 degrees left of right of the centerline

446
Q

Aircraft approach an airport under ILS guidance must follow the localizer path in ____________ (2)

A
  1. Single File

2. Spaced at intervals dictated by horizontal separation

447
Q

What 5 typical airfield items greatly affect the RF signal of a localizer?

A
  1. Other aircraft
  2. Vehicles
  3. Terrain
  4. Buildings
  5. Power lines
448
Q

What is the size and shape of a localizer critical area?

A

250’ in diameter extending 2,000’ down the runway

449
Q

Because of the localizer critical area when must maintenance and inspection be done? (2)

A
  1. During VFR conditions

2. with ATCT approval

450
Q

The normal operation and use of a localizer result in what is known as a ____________

A

Front course approach

451
Q

Due to localizer siting issues, a __________________________ can be used for approach guidance, but it doesn’t align with the centerline of the runway

A

Localizer Directional Aid (LDA)

452
Q

What is the 2nd component of the Instrument Landing System (ILS)

A

Glide Slope

453
Q

What is the typical offset for a glide slope in an Instrument Landing System (ILS)

A

250’ from the side (NOT the centerline)

454
Q

In the longitudinal direction, where is the Glide Slope?

A

1,000’ from the runway threshold

455
Q

What kind of guidance does a Glide Slope provide?

A

Vertical Guidance

456
Q

What slope does a glide slope typically portray?

A

3 degree from the runway touch down zone

457
Q

How does a glide slope work?

A

By reflecting or bouncing the electronic signal off the ground in front of the antenna

458
Q

Because the glide slope works by reflecting or bouncing the electronic signal off the ground in front of the antenna, what is associated with its installation?

A

A Critical Area

459
Q

What is the typical size of the Glide Slope Critical area

A

500’ wide x 1200’ long in front of the antenna

460
Q

What factors are important that will affect the reflectivity of a glide slope signal?

A
  1. Water accumulation
  2. Piled snow
  3. Uneven terrain
  4. Objects (construction, aircraft, vehicles)
461
Q

What Instrument Landing System (ILS) component is located along the localizer approach path at fixed distances?

A

Marker Beacons (MB)

462
Q

What is the purpose of marker beacons in the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

To convey to the pilot approximate distances from the runway threshold

463
Q

Category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS) use which marker beacons?

A

Outer Marker
Middle Marker
Inner Marker

464
Q

What is the shape of the marker beacons signal?

A

Cone/Fan shaped

465
Q

The marker beacon gives approximate distance to what item in the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?

A

The runway threshold

466
Q

What are the distances from the runway threshold for the 3 types of marker beacons

A

Outer: 4-7 NM
Middle: 2,000 - 6,000’
Inner: 1,000’

467
Q

Where is the actual distance to the runway threshold found to give an exact distance for each marker beacon?

A

Instrument Approach Plate

468
Q

Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS) do not have which of the three marker beacons?

A

Inner

469
Q

What is the typical decision height for a runway approach in Instrument Landing System (ILS)

A

200’

470
Q

In a category I Instrument Landing System (ILS), what altitude is a plane typically flying at the middle marker?

A

200’

471
Q

What color flashes on the plane’s instrument panel at the outer marker?

A

Purple

472
Q

John Jenkins is on approach towards a Category I ILS. He reaches the middle marker and cannot see the runway environment. What happens?

A

The pilot must abort the landing and execute a missed approach

473
Q

What is the standard Instrument Landing System (ILS) category?

A

Category I

474
Q

What are Instrument Landing System (ILS) approaches rated on? (3)

A
  1. System Configuration
  2. Equipment on board the aircraft
  3. Special Pilot Training
475
Q

What color flashes in the cockpit at the middle marker?

A

Amber

476
Q

What happens at the decision height?

A

A pilot is required to have the runway environment in view

477
Q

What is the distinction between Instrument Landing System (ILS) categories? (2)

A
  1. Difference in Decision Heights

2. Visibility Requirements

478
Q

How is the current landing visibility determined? (2)

A
  1. Runway Visual Range

2. Trained observers

479
Q

What are the 4 items of a Category I Instrument Landing System (ILS)

A
  1. Outer Marker
  2. Middle Marker
  3. Localizer
  4. Glide Slope
480
Q

For category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS), can the decision height be higher or lower than 200’ when located at the Inner Marker?

A

Lower

481
Q

What is the most stringent and precise Instrument Landing System (ILS) ?

A

Category III C

482
Q

What is special about a category III C Instrument Landing System (ILS) ?

A

It allows a properly equipped aircraft and certified pilot to land in 0 visibility

483
Q

Category II and III Instrument Landing System (ILS) require what items/equipment (6)

A
  1. Outer Marker
  2. Middle Marker
  3. Inner Marker
  4. Localizer
  5. Glide Slope
  6. Runway Visual Range
484
Q

What is the name of the older type of Runway Visual Range equipment (RVR)

A

Transmissometer

485
Q

How far apart are the two devices of the transmissometer work? (2)

A

1) at least 500’

2) 250’ feet apart on either side of the runway outside the safety area

486
Q

Runway Visual Range (RVR) transmissometer equipment measures readings from _____ to _____

A

600 - 3000 RVR

487
Q

What increments does a Runway Visual Range (RVR) transmissometer read?

A

200’ increments

488
Q

What new systems are replacing the old transmissometers?

A

Scatter-effect RVR System

489
Q

What are the benefits of scatter-effect RVR systems over the old transmissometers?

A
  1. Lower maintenance costs
  2. Eliminate steel structures on the airport
  3. RVR readings as low as 0’
490
Q

What increment does a scatter effect RVR report in? (3)

A
  1. 100’ increments up to 800’
  2. 200’ increments from 800’ - 3,000’
  3. 500’ increments from 3,000’ - 6,500’
491
Q

How many RVRs are required per runway for Cat I, II, III

A

Cat I: 1 RVR

Cat II, III: 2-3 RVRs depending on visibility minimums

492
Q

Where would the three RVRs for a Cat II, III runway be located?

A
  1. Touchdown point
  2. Rollout Point
  3. Midpoint of runway (if necessary)
493
Q

Which categories of Instrument Landing System (ILS) require a Runway visual range?

A

Category II and Category III

494
Q

If a category I Instrument Landing System (ILS) has a Runway Visual Range (RVR) where is it located?

A

At the midpoint of the runway

495
Q

Landside planning takes into account what?

A

The number of users who arrive and depart from the airport using various ground transportation modes

496
Q

What ground transportation modes are taken into account with landside planning? (6)

A
  1. Private Car
  2. Courtesy Car
  3. Limo
  4. Taxi
  5. Public Rail
  6. Public Busing
497
Q

This is determined by the type and volume of ground vehicular traffic anticipated in the peak time on the design day

A

Curb Length

498
Q

At some airports, a third-level terminal is used to segregate international arriving passengers to a separate level of the concourse/terminal facility, to keep them separate from domestic passengers until they are processed through the ______________

A

Federal Inspection Services

499
Q

Curb length is determined by the type of ground vehicular traffic anticipated in the _____________ on the _____________

A

Peak Time

Design Day

500
Q

What is the typical curb length for

  1. Cars
  2. Taxis
  3. Limos
  4. Public Buses
A

Cars - 25’
Taxis - 20’
Limos -30’
Buses - 50’

501
Q

How long are dwell times at the arrival lane and departure lane?

A

Arrival: 1-2 min
Departure: 2-4 Min

502
Q

How long are dwell times in the public transportation line?

A

5-15 minutes

503
Q

Curb length is determined by what in the peak time on the design day? (2)

A
  1. Type
  2. Volume
    of ground vehicular traffic
504
Q

How many vehicles should an outer access road be able to accomodate?

A

1200-1600 vehicles/hr/lane

505
Q

Just outside the terminal building, how many vehicles can be accomodated?

A

600-900 vehicles/hr/lane

506
Q

What percent of the individual parking at an airport is considered short term parking?

A

80%

507
Q

Typically what is closer to the terminal, short term parking or long term parking?

A

Short Term Parking

508
Q

Typically what has the longest dwell time, public transportation, arrivals, or departures

A

Public Transportation

509
Q

How many park spaces do you need for every 1 million originating passengers?

A

1,000 - 1,400

510
Q

Typically what has the longest dwell time arrivals or departures

A

Departures

511
Q

In the environmental sense, who is responsible for careful and thorough planning of airport facilities?

A

The Airport Operator

512
Q

As the lead federal agency for airport projects, the FAA complies with ___________ for all federal actions

A

NEPA

513
Q

With regards to environmental compliance with NEPA. The FAA is responsble for

A
  1. Determining if an airport action is a categorical exclusion
  2. reviewing environmental assessments prepared by the airport
  3. Ensuring EA’s meet FAA requirements
  4. Preparing Environmental Impact Statements
514
Q

The _____________ includes all efforts to comply with NEPA and other federal environmental laws, regs, executive orders, and DOT orders that may apply to a proposed project

A

Environmental Review Process

515
Q

What FAA order provides guidance for airport operators who are conducting development on airports with regards to environmental considerations

A

FAA Order 5050.4B National Environmental Policy Act: Implementing Instructions for Airport Projects

516
Q

What law requires the preparation of environment of environmental statements for all major federal airport development actions that significantly affect the quality of the environment

A

Airport and Airway Development Act of 1970

517
Q

Who is in charge of determining if an airport action is a Categorical Exclusion?

A

The FAA

518
Q

Who is in charge of preparing an Environmental Assessment

A

The Airport operator and its consultants

519
Q

Who is in charge of preparing an Environmental Impact Statement

A

The FAA

520
Q

What FAA office oversees actions that affect the environment

A

FAA Office of Airports

521
Q

What are the FAA’s responsibilities with regards to an Environmental Assessment

A
  1. Reviewing the environmental assessment

2. Ensuring the EA meets FAA requirements

522
Q

The current Runway Safety Area (RSA) standards are based on what percent of overuns being contained?

A

90%

523
Q

What is bigger, Runway Safety Areas (RSA) or Taxiway Safety Areas (TSA)

A

RSA

524
Q

The Runway Safety Area (RSA) is a defined area of a runway and the surrounding surfaces that are prepared for ___________

A

Reducing risk of damage to aircraft

525
Q

Runway Safety Areas reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft in the event of (4)

A
  1. Undershoot
  2. Overshoot
  3. Excursion from the runway
  4. Unintentional Departure from the runway
526
Q

A Runway Safety Area (RSA) includes what elements adjacent to a runway? (4)

A
  1. Structural Pavement
  2. Shoulders
  3. Blast Pads
  4. Stopways
527
Q

The _____________ begins and ends with the intermodal connections to the community that surround the airport

A

Access Interface

528
Q

The access interface includes what entities (6)

A
  1. Curb Frontage for unloading passengers
  2. Parking
  3. Public Transit
  4. Taxi and Limo Services
  5. Pedestrian Walkways
  6. Service Roads for fire lanes that provide access for maintenance/vendors/air freight etc.
529
Q

Socioeconomic factors in the Airport Master Plan include ____________? (9)

A
  1. Demography
  2. Disposable personnel per capita income
  3. Economic Activity
  4. Status of Industries
  5. Geographic Factors
  6. Competitive Position
  7. Sociological Factors
  8. Political Factors
  9. Community Values
530
Q

What is the number one factor in locating an ARFF facility?

A

Lowering Emergency Response Times

531
Q

What are the factors for determining ARFF location (7)

A
  1. Efficient Utilization of firefighting personnel
  2. Direct access to the airfield and terminal areas
  3. Non-interference what ATC line of sight or NAVAID interference
  4. Maximum surveillance of the airfield
  5. Compliance with Building Restriction Lines
  6. Availability of utilities
  7. Personnel Access
532
Q

For operating and cost efficiencies sometimes ARFF’s share their facility with (2)

A
  1. Snow Removal Equipment

2. Structural Fire Equipment

533
Q

If dual functions occur at an ARFF facility, what does the FAA still recommend

A

Having the ARFF vehicle room separate from the other facilities

534
Q

Why does the FAA prefer having a separate vehicle room from other facilities in a shared facility? (2)

A
  1. Avoid emergency vehicle delays

2. Operational conflicts (ensures accountability of fed $)

535
Q

The basic requirements for a Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building is what? (3)

A
  1. Provide a warm, sheltered area for equipment repair/service
  2. Protect equipment from moisture, contaminants
  3. Provide centralized facility for airport maintenance personnel
536
Q

Where is an Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building typically located?

A

Where access to the Airport Operational Area (AOA) is direct and convenient

537
Q

What are some factors in siting a Snow Removal Equipment (SRE) building (5)

A
  1. How will employees and service vehicles gain access without compromising security or crossing RWYs and TWYs
  2. Avoid interference with airport fire lane
  3. Avoid Aircraft Operational Areas
  4. Building Restriction Lines
  5. ATCT visibility or Navaid operation
538
Q

An inner approach obstacle free zone and inner transitional obstacle free zone exists for runways having ____________ or __________

A
  1. An approach lighting system

2. Visibility minimums less than 3/4 mile

539
Q

A pilot in command must be familiar with which items by using the Airport Facility Directory? (3)

A
  1. Runway Lengths
  2. Airport Elevation
  3. Runway Slope
540
Q

The Airport Facility Directory links the ______________ and the ________________________?

A

The actions of the airport operator

conditions of the airport

541
Q

Detailed information regarding requirements of the reporting program for the Airport Data Record can be found in what AC?

A

AC 150/5300-19 Airport data and Information Program

542
Q

Once the 5010 form is updated, what temporary item can be canceled?

A

NOTAM

543
Q

To update the Airport Facility Directory, what item is filled out?

A

The Airport Data Record 5010 form

544
Q

If a runway has an approach lighting system or visibility minimums lower than 3/4 miles, what must be designated? (2)

A
  1. Inner approach OFZ

2. Inner Transitional OFZ

545
Q

What does the Airport operator fill out that the FAA uses to update the Airport Facility Directory?

A

The Airport Data Record 5010 Form

546
Q

Airports can be classified by dominant type of passenger traffic. What are they called? (3)

A
  1. Origination/destination
  2. Transfer
  3. Through
547
Q

At an Origination/destination airport, what % or passengers begin or end their travel at the airport?

A

70-90%

548
Q

Typically at a transfer airport, what % of enplaned passengers are transferring from one flight to another?

A

> 50%

549
Q

What kind of airport has a relatively high amount of originating passengers and a relatively low percentage of originating flights?

A

Through Airports

550
Q

What kind of airport involve a high percentage of local passengers and turnaround flights?

A

Origination/destination

551
Q

Airports where airlines conduct hub operations are frequently considered what kind of airport?

A

Transfer Airports

552
Q

Because a large percentage of passengers remain on the aircraft at a through airport the _______ for amenities is _______ than other types of airports

A

Demand

Less

553
Q

A transfer airport typically has ground servicing times that average ________ to ________

A

30 - 60 minutes

554
Q

What is the typical aircraft turnover rate at a transfer airport?

A

1.3-1.5 aircraft / gate /hr

555
Q

Which type of airport will have significant space requirements for ticket counters, curb length, parking spaces, and all elements of the passenger processing system?

A

Origination/destination

556
Q

Which type of airport has less landside ground transportation, lower requirement for curb frontage, less need for airline counter positions and baggage check in, and smaller baggage claim areas?

A

Transfer Airports

557
Q

Which type of airport tends to have short aircraft ground times in order to minimize delay?

A

Through Airports

558
Q

Which kind of airport has lower levels of activity, parking, curb, gate hold rooms, and have fewer space requirements?

A

Through Airports

559
Q

Which kind of airport requires more space for inter/intraline baggage, more concessions, and increased need for centralized security?

A

Transfer Airports

560
Q

What is the turnaround time at the gate for an Origination/destination airport?

A

1-3 Operations/Hr/Gate

561
Q

Aircraft mix refer to the different ______, _____, _____ of aircraft

A

Sizes, Types, Styles

562
Q

Terminals serving wide body aircraft need the ability to accommodate _____________

A

Large Passenger Surges

563
Q

What shape is a runway protection zone (RPZ)?

A

Trapezoidal

564
Q

What is the purpose of a runway protection zone (RPZ)?

A

To enhance protection of people and property on the ground

565
Q

Must the runway protection zone (RPZ) be owned by the airport?

A

No. It must be under the control of the airport through ownership of easement

566
Q

How far from the end of the runway does the RPZ begin?

A

200’ from the end of a runway area that is usable for takeoff or landing

567
Q

What type of ownership does the FAA suggest for a runway protection zone (RPZ)?

A

Fee simple ownership

568
Q

What does the size of the runway protection zone (RPZ) vary with?

A
  1. Design Aircraft

2. Visibility Minimums

569
Q

What is the length of the runway protection zone (RPZ)?

A

1,000 -2,500’

570
Q

List the phases of the master plan?

A
  1. Pre planning
  2. Public Involvement
  3. Environmental Considerations
  4. Existing Conditions
  5. Aviation Forecast
  6. Facility Requirements
  7. Alternatives to development
  8. Facilities Implementation Plan
  9. Financial Feasibility Analysis
571
Q

What does an ASOS report that is more than an AWOS?

A
  1. Temperature
  2. Dew Point
  3. Present Weather
  4. Sea-Level Pressure
572
Q

Where is the ASOS typically located on an airport?

A

Near the touchdown zone of the primary instrument runway

573
Q

What are the 3 components of a terminal system?

A
  1. Access Interface
  2. Passenger Processing
  3. Flight Interface
574
Q

This terminal component includes the concourses and connections to the other concourses to accommodate transferring passengers, departure lounge areas, etc.

A

Flight Interface

575
Q

This terminal component includes areas the passengers typically don’t see such as baggage sorting areas, underneath the terminal building, airport admin offices, etc.

A

Passenger Processing System

576
Q

Which terminal component includes vendor storage space to maintain stock for concessionaires?

A

Flight Interface

577
Q

This terminal component begins and ends with the intermodal connections to the community that surround the airport

A

Access Interface

578
Q

This terminal component includes airline ticket counters, baggage claim areas, flight display screens, concessions, and public lobbys

A

Passenger Processing

579
Q

This terminal component includes service roads and fire lanes to provide access for airport maintenance, vendor deliveries, and airfreight

A

Access Interface

580
Q

The security-screening checkpoint is in what terminal component?

A

Passenger Processing

581
Q

In essence what is included in the flight interface? (3)

A
  1. Concourses
  2. Departure Lounges
  3. Jet Bridges
582
Q

Is VOR greatly affected by atmospheric interference or terrain?

A

No

583
Q

Is VOR restricted to visual line of sight

A

Yes

584
Q

What type of approach is a VOR on an airport typically used for

A

Instrument Approach

585
Q

Terminal VORs typically have how large of a range?

A

25 NM

586
Q

What is the typical radius protection zone for a terminal VOR?

A

750’ - 1000’ radius

587
Q

Airfield Capacity is affected by a number of airfield characteristics such as (9)

A
  1. Runway length
  2. Runway configuration
  3. Distribution of arrivals vs departures
  4. Fleet mix
  5. Share of touch-and -go
  6. Location and type of exit taxiways
  7. Types of NAVAIDS
  8. Availability of Radar Coverage
  9. Weather Conditions
588
Q

If parallel runways have a minimum spacing of 2,500’ what is allowed under VMC and IMC?

A

Simultaneous departure and arrival conditions

589
Q

At what spacing can runways operate completely independent of each other?

A

4,300’

590
Q

Do staggered thresholds increase or decrease capacity for simultaneous operations?

A

It depends on where the arriving aircraft is approach the near or far runway threshold

591
Q

A single runway can handle how many operations annually?

A

200,000

592
Q

What affects gate capacity? (3)

A
  1. Gate Type/size
  2. Gate Mix
  3. Gate Occupancy Time
593
Q

If Gary airport applies for a grant for a 2nd runway because operations warrant it, what will the FAA want to confirm?

A

That their landside facilities and terminal can also accommodate the increased traffic

594
Q

What does Gate Mix mean?

A

Percentage of wide versus non-wide bodied jets

595
Q

What does gate occupancy time mean?

A

Length of time it takes to cycle an aircraft through the gate

596
Q

What are the 4 traffic management initiatives used to limit the volume of traffic into an airport or airspace?

A
  1. Mile in trail
  2. Minute in Trail
  3. Ground Delay
  4. Ground Stop
597
Q

What governs the capacity and delay characteristics of an airport? (4)

A
  1. Aircraft separation rules
  2. Runway occupancy
  3. Spacing of arrivals/departures
  4. Use of Parallel or converging runways
598
Q

What is the name of the software packages that assist the management of aircraft traffic at and around airports?

A

Traffic Management Systems

599
Q

What are the two least disruptive , but also least accurate traffic management initiative?

A
  1. Minute in Trail

2. Mile in Trail

600
Q

If airport traffic is expected to approach capacity at an airport, _____________ are the primary tools for limiting the number of arrivals

A

Ground Delay Programs

601
Q

What traffic management tool is a last resort because it holds aircraft on the ground for varying periods?

A

Ground Stop

602
Q

___________ Is designed to match the arrival of aircraft to the ability of the airport to handle that volume

A

Metering

603
Q

________ is the volume an airport is able to handle

A

Acceptance Rate

604
Q

What two ways typically satisfy metering?

A
  1. Adjusting flight path

2. Adjusting Speed

605
Q

Traffic reroutes are typically used for what two reasons?

A
  1. Avoid Weather

2. Push traffic to an instrument approach runway with more capacity

606
Q

Separation standards due to heavy jets can be from 4-8 minutes to avoid the leading aircraft’s ________

A

Wake

607
Q

__________ entails specifying the exact order in which aircraft takeoff or land

A

Sequencing

608
Q

Sequencing takes into account what four things?

A
  1. Operational Safety
  2. Uniformity of Traffic Flow
  3. Efficiency of Runway Use
  4. Weather conditions
609
Q

______ Involves establishing and maintaining the appropriate interval between successive aircraft

A

Spacing

610
Q

Airports must appoint an individual as the _____________ to ensure appropriate procedures are carried out in the event of a hazardous waste emergency

A

Emergency Coordinator

611
Q

What document is drafted to reduce or eliminate oil discharges to navigable waters of the United States?

A

Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasures Plan

612
Q

A spill plan includes what information? (2)

A
  1. Points of contact in the event of a spill

2. Facility layout and location of spill items such as drainage, treatment, storage

613
Q

Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasures Plan (SPCC) include what? (4)

A
  1. training of personnel in handling a spill
  2. security
  3. spill reporting procedures
  4. container specific information
614
Q

What is a non emergency spill considered?

A

One in which the spill does not reach the storm water system

615
Q

Any release of hazardous substances in quantities equal or greater than their specified reportable quantities must be immediately reported to whom?

A

National Response Center

616
Q

Who is the primary communications center for reporting major chemical and oil spills and other hazardous substances into the environment?

A

National Response Center

617
Q

The FAA has several options in mitigating an object penetrating a runway threshold siting requirement or approach slope surface (4)

A
  1. Relocating a threshold
  2. Asking the airport operator to remove the object
  3. Raising approach minimums
  4. Raising the aircraft minimum descent altitude for the area
618
Q

Airport terminal facilities are planned on the basis of ___________

A

Activity Forecasts

619
Q

What annual forecast information do planners use to plan a terminal? (3)

A
  1. Passenger Enplanements
  2. Passenger Originations
  3. Aircraft Movements (by size)
620
Q

To get annual forecasts for terminal sizing sources for that information are found where? (4)

A
  1. Current Airport Master Plan
  2. FAA Published Terminal Area Forecasts (TAF)
  3. Forecasts Developed by Airlines 4 America
  4. Forecasts developed by the airlines serving that airport
621
Q

For air carrier airports what are the two key factors in airport terminal design?

A
  1. Annual Passenger Volume

2. Peak Hourly Demand

622
Q

The heaviest concentrations at certain times of the day are know as the ______________

A

Peak Hour Demand

623
Q

Is the Peak Hour Demand a clock hour?

A

No it is the peak hour activity based on an elapsed hour

624
Q

The peak hour may occur at different times for what 3 options

A
  1. Enplaning
  2. Deplaning
  3. Total
625
Q

__________ are derived from projections of passenger forecasts which determine the duration and use of parking and curb frontage

A

Peak Hour Vehicle Volumes

626
Q

What is used to determine the preliminary size of the terminal building?

A

The Annual Passenger Volume

627
Q

For terminal design, what factor is used?

A

Peak Hour Demand

628
Q

How do you relate Annual Passenger Volume to Peak Hourly Volume?

A

The peak hourly volume is usually 3-5% of the annual passenger volume

629
Q

Where is the unit terminal typically found?

A

At high capacity airports

630
Q

When multiple airlines share a common building the concept is known as

A

Combined-unit terminal buildings

631
Q

When separate buildings were constructed for each airline with each building becoming its own unit terminal that concept is known as _________

A

Multiple Unit Terminal

632
Q

Centralized terminal process is what?

A

Where all passenger processing is conducted in one building

633
Q

What is a decentralized terminal process? (3)

A
  1. Passenger processing is separated into multiple buildings
  2. Certain processes are in one facility and aircraft loading in a separate facility
  3. Separating linear terminal buildings connected by landside circulation roads through an Automated People Mover
634
Q

What happens with an Environmental Assessment if the implementing or reviewing agency believes the environmental impacts won’t be significant

A

Finding of No Significant Impact (FONSI)

635
Q

The FAA can issue a ________ when the ______ indicates that the selected alternative would not cause any significant environmental consequences

A

FONSI

Environmental Assessment

636
Q

The issuance of a FONSI may be dependent upon what?

A

The Airport sponsor taking certain mitigation actions

637
Q

Another option is if the proposed mitigation actions involve certain elements, such as when an action is similar to one normally requiring an EIS, an action without precedent, actions redefined to include mitigation necessary to reduce potential significant impacts below significance thresholds, or actions that are highly controversial, the FAA may issue a FONSI with a __________

A

Record of Decision

638
Q

Record of Decisions are linked with ________ for _________

A

FONSI

Environmental Assessments

639
Q

If a FONSI is not given does that mean an EIS is automaticall triggered?

A

No

640
Q

Can a FONSI be given with a Record of Decision

A

Yes

641
Q

Are FONSI issued with CATEX?

A

No, with Environmetnal Assessments

642
Q

Can FONSI’s be conditional?

A

Yes with the sponsor taking certain mitigating actions

643
Q

What happens if an airport no longer needs airport land for aeronautical purposes? (2)

A

They may request that the FAA release the land for

  1. Sale
  2. Long-term lease for non aeronautical uses
644
Q

Is releasing property typically a CATEX, EA, or EIS?

A

Catex

645
Q

If releasing a property does not receive a Categorical Exclusion it may require an __________ in accordance with the provisions of FAA Order ______

A

Environmental Assessment

5050.4B

646
Q

_____________ are treated similarly to sales of land with regard to environmental requirements

A

Long Term Leases

647
Q

What agency established National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?

A

EPA

648
Q

What does compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) mean?

A

Ambient outdoor levels of these air pollutants are safe for human health and the environment

649
Q

Who is responsible for designating areas that are attainment, nonattainment, and maintenance for each air pollutant?

A

States

650
Q

What percent of airports are located in nonattainment areas?

A

25%

651
Q

Airports are responsible for what % of emissions in some areas?

A

10%

652
Q

Through National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) the airport must conform to what?

A

State Implementation Plans

653
Q

What is part of a State Implementation Plan?

A

Conducting an inventory of all airport emission sources.

654
Q

To obtain regulatory approval for air quality in non attainment areas, airports must what? (2)

A
  1. Show that growth will conform to air quality plans for the region and
  2. That enforceable programs will be established to offset increases in pollution
655
Q

What does Voluntary Airport Low Emissions (VALE) allow airports to receive?

A

Credits for emission reductions that can be used for development projects to comply with clean air acts.

656
Q

What percent of the earth is freshwater?

A

3%

657
Q

What percent of water is available for human use?

A

1%

658
Q

Contamination of surface and groundwater occurs when what happens?

A

Precipitation leaches pollutants from products or waste on the surface

659
Q

What is the best way to protect groundwater?

A

To prevent contaminants from reaching the critical acquifer

660
Q

________ discharge often represents the most prolific source of water pollution at airports.

A

Storm Water

661
Q

A ____________ are the only people allowed to apply pesticides and fungicides

A

Certified Applicator

662
Q

________ are areas of land saturated by surface or ground water.

A

Wetlands

663
Q

What law established the stormwater regulatory program

A

Clean Water Act of 1987

664
Q

What permitting program regulates discharges of potentially conatminated wastewater into waters of the US?

A

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)

665
Q

_________ is the means for regulatory compliance for point source discharges at airports

A

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES)

666
Q

To receive a National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit, an airport operator must have what?

A

Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP)

667
Q

What does a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) require an airport manager to do? (3)

A
  1. Monitor all discharges
  2. Maintain records
  3. Make reports of unusual discharges
668
Q

What is a Stormwater Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) designed to do? (2)

A
  1. Identify and evaluate sources of pollutants associated with industrial activities that may affect the quality of storm water discharges
  2. Identify and implement best management practices to reduce or prevent pollutants associated with industrial activities
669
Q

Non Point Source pollution results from ____________ rather than a specific single location? (3)

A
  1. Land Runoff
  2. Precipitation
  3. Seepage into a body of water
670
Q

Non point source pollution is commonly associated with runoff from _________

A

agriculture

671
Q

What are the 4 types of storm water permits?

A
  1. General
  2. Individual
  3. Multi-sector
  4. Construction
672
Q

What are the 3 types of stormwater permits related to operations and facilities at an airport?

A
  1. General
  2. Individual
  3. Multi-sector General
673
Q

This stormwater permit relates to rehabilitiation or expansion activities that disturb 1 or more acres on an airport

A

Construction

674
Q

Is a stormwater permit an eligible AIP cost?

A

Yes

675
Q

What is the minimum amount of disturbed land to need an NPDES permit?

A

1 Acre

676
Q

The SWPPP is used to implement __________

A

Best Management Practices (BMPs)

677
Q

Can the EPA and states require tenants to be co-permitees for an NPDES permit?

A

yes

678
Q

Best Management Practices (BMPs) emphasize _______ over ________ and are generally more cost effective

A
  1. Prevention

2. Treatment

679
Q

What are a list of Best Management Practices (BMPs) for stormwater management? (6)

A
  1. Good Housekeeping
  2. Inspections
  3. Preventative Maintenance
  4. Spill Prevention and Response
  5. Personnel Training and Awareness
  6. Record Keeping and Internal Reporting
680
Q

To fulfill Best Management Practices (BMPs) for stormwater permits, how often should inspections occur?

A

2 inspections per week on days the facility is staffed

681
Q

What is good housekeeping with regards to Best Management Practices (BMPs)

A

Keeping work and floor areas cleaning, storing materials correctly, etc.

682
Q

Best Management Practices (BMPs) procedures should consider __________ of products used on airfield and what those products effect on health and environment may be.

A

Safety Data Sheets

AAAE CM Test Questions (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions