Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

term “seizure” refers to a

A

sudden change in behavior caused by abnormal, synonymous electrical activity within the brain. Seizures can be provoked by an underlying medical condition or unprovoked.

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2
Q

Causes of provoked seizures include

A

febrile-related seizure in infancy, trauma, hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hypocalcemia, drug abuse, and alcohol withdrawal. Provoked seizures are most often generalized tonic-clonic seizures

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3
Q

Epilepsy, by definition, is

A

a condition in which an individual is predisposed to seizures and has had two or more unprovoked seizures during their lifetime

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4
Q

Status epilepticus is defined as a

A

seizure lasting longer than 30 minutes or multiple seizures without return to baseline in a 30-minute period. This is a medical emergency

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5
Q

seizure body changes

A

Motor activity—jerking or stiffening of a limb

*Autonomic function—tachycardia or sweating

*Vision—seeing colored shapes

*Olfaction—smelling strange odors

*Language—aphasia

*Psychological feeling—déjà vu

*Sensation—paresthesias in one area of the body

*Consciousness

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6
Q

focal seizure definition

A

affects only one part of brain

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7
Q

generalized seizure

A

affects entire brain

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8
Q

Focal onset seizures are typically caused by

A

an underlying focal lesion or abnormality in the brain that acts as an epileptogenic seizure focus. A seizure focus can lie in any area of the cerebral cortex and thus, different patients’ seizures can vary quite dramatically from one another, depending on the area of brain affected

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9
Q

focal onset seizure is further classified on the basis of whether

A

consciousness is impaired during the attack

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10
Q

most common seizure in adults with epilepsy

A

focal seizure with impaired awareness (previously called partial seizures)

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11
Q

focal seizure, impaired awareness

A

pts appear awake, not aware of their surroundings

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12
Q

automatisms examples

A

, such as chewing, lip smacking, repeating words, or gestures

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13
Q

generalized onset seizures

A

associated with childhood onset generalized epilepsy syndromes

both hemispheres involved

consciousness briefly impaired

motor manifestations bilateral

EEG shows bilat hemisphere activity

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14
Q

absence seizure is a

A

nonmotor seizure that causes a sudden interruption of ongoing activities, typically with a blank stare. If the patient is speaking, speech will be slowed or interrupted; if the patient is walking, he or she will stand transfixed; if eating, the food will be stopped on the way to the mouth. The attack typically lasts a few seconds

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15
Q

most frequently encountered generalized seizures

A

tonic-clonic (Previously called grand mal)

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16
Q

tonic-clonic seizures

A

sudden, tonic stiffening of muscles, often associated with stridor or an ictal cry, and the patient falls to the ground in the tonic state. The patient lies rigid; during this state, tonic contraction inhibits respiration and cyanosis may occur. The tongue may be bitten, and urine may be voided involuntarily. The tonic stage then leads to clonic convulsive movements lasting a variable period of time. At the end of this stage, deep respiration will occur and all muscles will relax.

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17
Q

in the postictal period (the stage following a tonic-clonic seizure), the patient will have

A

a depressed level of conscious. The individual frequently goes into a deep sleep and may have a significant headache when awakened

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18
Q

Myoclonic jerks are

A

sudden, brief, shock-like contractions, which may be generalized or confined to the face and trunk or to one or more extremities. They may occur predominantly during sleep and are associated with certain generalized epilepsy syndromes.

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19
Q

Atonic seizures cause

A

a sudden loss of muscle control

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20
Q

Tonic seizures cause

A

sudden muscle stiffening.

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21
Q

drop attacks

A

associated with atonic and tonic seizure, causes sudden falls without warning

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22
Q

PNES

A

paroxysmal seizure-like events that arise from psychological disturbances rather than abnormal electrical brain activity.

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23
Q

Up to 80% of PNES are associated with

A

early sexual abuse, especially in females.

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24
Q

PNES are often comorbid with

A

epilepsy and can be considered to be a type of conversion disorder. It can cause significant morbidity including repeated hospitalizations and intensive care unit admissions

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25
Q

highest frequency seizures

A

young children, persons older than 65

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26
Q

disorders that initiate seizures

A

drug OD
drug withdrawal
head trauma
stroke
infection
tumor

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27
Q

systemic problems that cause hyperexcitable neurons

A

hypocalcemia
hypoglycemia
hyponatremia
hypoxia

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28
Q

antiepileptic drugs reduce

A

hyperexcitability of neuro cell membranes by slowing activation of sodium channels

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29
Q

GABA agonist MOA

A

counteract person’s tendency to have seizures
benzos

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30
Q

during seizure, brain metabolism

A

accelerates in affected area
increase in o2 use, glucose, lactate levels

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31
Q

Todd’s paralysis,

A

which is a transient hemiparesis following some seizures

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32
Q

seizure dx labs

A

ecg, cbc, cmp, UA, drug screen

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33
Q

seizure imaging

A

1st time- CT or MRI to eval for lesion
EEG

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34
Q

In adults presenting with a first-time unprovoked seizure, the risk of recurrent seizure is greatest in

A

the first 2 years after the seizure (21%–45%)

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35
Q

1st seizure tx

A

workup performed, antiepileptic therapy not required unless pt experiences recurrent activity

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36
Q

structural lesions associated with recurrent seizures

A

brain tumor
AVM

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37
Q

if a patient has uncontrolled epilepsy requiring multiple antiepileptic drugs,

A

consultation with a neurologist should be considered.

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38
Q

antiepileptic drugs have possible increased risk of

A

suicidality

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39
Q

seizure precaution

A

take showers, not baths
swim only with partner
cook with microwave or back burners
avoid climbing ladders

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40
Q

Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is

A

a progressive, neurodegenerative condition and the most common form of dementia
sixth leading cause of death overall, fifth leading cause of death for individuals older than 65 yrs

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41
Q

AD is characterized by an

A

insidious onset; slow, progressive cognitive decline; and an array of emotional and behavioral problems that result from cognitive decline

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42
Q

The cognitive decline in AD manifests as an

A

impaired ability to learn new information or recall previously learned information and one or more additional cognitive disturbances in language (aphasia), function (apraxia), perception (agnosia), or executive function

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43
Q

The incidence of the sporadic form of AD in the general population increases rapidly with

A

age

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44
Q

additional alzheimer’s risk factors

A

lower educational and occupational levels, family history, head injury, Down syndrome, and vascular disease

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45
Q

For 60- to 70-year-old individuals with AD, the average life expectancy is

A

7 to 10 years after diagnosis.

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46
Q

The rare familial form of AD typically has

A

an earlier onset. Inheritance is autosomal dominant

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47
Q

Neurons that use the neurotransmitter ________ are especially susceptible to the alzheimers

A

acetylcholine

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48
Q

Pathologic changes seen in brains of patients with AD include

A

neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

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49
Q

Each plaque has a core of

A

beta-amyloid, an insoluble peptide

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50
Q

One major protein in these tangles is an aberrant form of

A

tau protein (which, in its normal form, stabilizes microtubules), and patients with AD have elevated concentrations of tau proteins in their cerebrospinal fluid.

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51
Q

often AD symptoms initially presented by

A

family members before pt

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52
Q

80% of AD pts in nursing homes have

A

behavioral problems

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53
Q

An easily administered bedside test for cognition is

A

the Montreal Cognitive Assessment

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54
Q

refer to memory disorder center

A

if atypical presentation, severe impairment, complex comorbidities

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55
Q

AD diagnostic tests

A

CBC, CMP, TSH, B12

MRI, CT, PET

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56
Q

two categories of serum biomarkers being studied to determine relevance to diagnostic criteria

A

beta-amyloid accumulation

biomarkers indicating level of injury

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57
Q

may be the most effective way to prevent the development of excess disability

A

Maintaining as much normalcy as possible in relationships and everyday activities

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58
Q

Treatment with this med for AD should be considered at the time of diagnosis

A

cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, reminyl, exelon)

doesn’t prevent progression, seems to slow rate of decline

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59
Q

Federal regulations require that if antipsychotic agents are used in nursing homes,

A

an effort should be made to reduce the dosage at least every 6 months.

60
Q

The failure to institute timely pharmacologic management in patients with AD may result in

A

a more rapid need for institutionalization, an increase in aggression, further difficulty with ADLs, and further cognitive decline.

61
Q

Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a

A

chronic, progressive, degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia in the CNS. The disease usually begins insidiously and eventually leads to disability.

62
Q

Parkinsonian syndrome is

A

any disorder that manifests symptoms of parkinsonism, which include rest tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability, flexed posture, and freezing

63
Q

Parkinsonism-plus syndromes are caused by

A

degeneration of multiple systems and are characterized by neurologic signs and symptoms in addition to parkinsonism. Examples in this category include progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple systems atrophy, and corticobasal degeneration.

64
Q

Secondary parkinsonism is parkinsonism that is

A

symptomatic of an underlying cause of the disorder, such as cerebrovascular disease, drugs, infections, trauma, or exposure to toxins. Common causes of secondary parkinsonism include exposure to dopamine-blocking medications, such as antipsychotics or certain antiemetics

65
Q

hereditary causes of parkinsonism

A

wilsons dx

66
Q

parkinson age

A

mean age- 57
middle to later life

67
Q

greatest risk factor PD

A

age

68
Q

persons with PD die from

A

secondary complications (pneumonia, injury from fall), not PD

69
Q

neuro effects PD

A

tremor at rest, muscular rigidity, slow movements, difficulty maintaining steady posture

70
Q

PD causes abnormal accumulation of

A

Lewy bodies and degenerated of pigmented dopaminergic cells of substantia nigra

71
Q

six cardinal features of PD

A

tremor at rest
rigidity
bradykinesia
flexed posture
loss of postural reflexes
freezing phenomenon

72
Q

TRAP

A

tremor
rigidity
akinesia
postural disturbance

73
Q

may be reason pt first seeks care for PD

A

tremor

74
Q

classic rest tremor of PD is

A

a low-frequency tremor that appears distally in the extremities when the extremity is motionless and at rest. It can mimic the motion of rolling an object between the thumb and forefinger fingers and because of this is also called a “pill-rolling tremor.” This resting tremor disappears with action but reemerges as the limbs maintain a posture. A resting tremor is most common in the hands but can also be present in the jaw and feet.

75
Q

bradykinesia can be evaluated by

A

assessing finger and toe tapping

76
Q

although postural instability is a feature of parkinsonism, it is

A

not part of the diagnostic criteria for PD because it is typically a later manifestation and its presence early in the disease process suggests a parkinsonism-plus disorder

77
Q

pull test

A

examiner stands behind the patient; gives a sudden, firm pull on the patient’s shoulders; and checks for retropulsion.

78
Q

camptocormia

A

extreme truncal flexion

79
Q

freezing

A

typically occurs when pt starts to walk
attempts to turn when walking
approaches destination

80
Q

other common manifestations of PD

A

drooling
dysphagia
excessive perspiration
constipation
urinary urgency
“masklike” face

81
Q

Parkinson disease diagnosis

A

requires the presence of parkinsonism (bradykinesia plus rigidity and/or rest tremor) and absence of exclusion criteria,

82
Q

Red flags for PD that indicate an alternative diagnosis include

A

rapid progression of gait impairment, absence of progression over years, severe early bulbar dysfunction, severe early autonomic failure, recurrent early falls, and symmetric signs

83
Q

Patients with PD usually have improvement in rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor with

A

levodopa, whereas patients with other forms of parkinsonism are less likely to respond

84
Q

wilsons disease signs

A

gray-green Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea, chronic hepatitis, and increased concentrations of copper.

85
Q

In early PD when symptoms are mild and not disrupting daily activity,

A

treatment may be deferred

86
Q

most efficacious med for PD

A

levodopa

87
Q

Once levodopa therapy is started, the rule of thumb is to administer the

A

lowest dosage that controls symptoms.

88
Q

“on-off” phenomenon

A

2 to 5 years of treatment, more than 50% of patients experience fluctuations in their response to levodopa with dyskinesia (extra hyperkinetic choreiform movements) at peak doses and recurrence of parkinsonism as the medication wears off

89
Q

anticholinergic agents for PD

A

usually prescribed for those under 70

tremor is dominant clinical feature

cognitive function preserved

90
Q

UPDRS

A

he UPDRS is a comprehensive evaluation tool that assesses mental, historical, and motor features and the complications of dopaminergic therapy

91
Q

ALS

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a progressive neurologic disorder that involves destruction of motor neurons

92
Q

ALS risk factors

A

age, family history, tobacco use

93
Q

ALS mortality

A

universally fatal, median survival of 2-5 years

94
Q

ALS symptom presents

A

typically start in one limb or region in the spinal cord

95
Q

diagnostic criteria ALS

A

*Signs of degeneration of lower motor neurons (spinal cord and brainstem)

*Signs of degeneration of upper motor neurons (brain)

*Progressive spread of signs

*Other disease processes excluded

96
Q

The only medication that has been shown to improve survival in ALS is

A

riluzole

97
Q

Stroke, also referred to as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), causes

A

acute onset of neurologic deficits caused by decreased blood flow or bleeding in a localized area of brain tissue

98
Q

two types of strokes

A

hemorrhagic (20%)
ischemic (80%)

99
Q

TIA

A

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a temporary episode of focal cerebral ischemia that resolves spontaneously and does not leave permanent damage. People who have had a TIA are at higher risk for future stroke.

100
Q

fifth leading cause of death in USA

A

stroke

101
Q

nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke

A

age, sex, race, ethnic origin

102
Q

young African americans have

A

2-3x greater risk of stroke than white

103
Q

For people older than age 55 years, the incidence of stroke more than

A

doubles in each successive decade

104
Q

modifiable risk factors for stroke

A

htn
cardiac disease
dm
hypercholesterolemia
smoking
illcit drug use
lifestyle factors

105
Q

stroke risk increases by ____x if BP over 160/95

A

4

106
Q

stroke risk increases by ____x if a. fib

A

3-5x

107
Q

Neurons will stop functioning after less than

A

10 seconds of insufficient blood flow, but they can recover fully if circulation is restored promptly

108
Q

Ischemia can be subdivided into three subtypes:

A

thrombosis, embolism, and hypoperfusion.

109
Q

thrombosis

A

Thrombosis refers to local obstruction of an artery

atherosclerosis

110
Q

embolism

A

Embolism refers to fragments of debris that travel downstream and occlude smaller arteries and arterioles, producing areas of ischemia.

111
Q

The two most common emboli are

A

cardioembolic and artery to artery.

112
Q

Paradoxical embolism occurs when

A

a venous thromboembolism passes through a PFO to enter the arterial system.

113
Q

hypoperfusion stroke causes

A

shock, cardiac arrest

cause watershed areas

114
Q

watershed areas

A

Watershed areas are located at the border between the areas supplied by the anterior cerebral artery and medial cerebral artery (MCA) as well as between the MCA and posterior cerebral artery (PCA) territories. Watershed infarcts are often bilateral and affect the brain more diffusely.

115
Q

epidural hematomas

A

caused by severe head injuries

drowsy, lethargic then nerve palsy, enlarged pupil, hemiplegia

116
Q

subdural hematoma

A

caused by blunt trauma that knocks brain against skull

117
Q

one of the most common causes of intraparenchymal hemorrhage

A

HTN

118
Q

subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

ruptured arterial aneurysms most common source

LP shows CSF with RBC

119
Q

A stroke should be suspected when a patient presents with

A

sudden onset of focal neurologic signs and symptoms

120
Q

Unilateral weakness or numbness in a stroke is caused by damage to

A

the opposite side of the brain that controls those functions

121
Q

A common cognitive change seen in a stroke affecting the right brain hemisphere, particularly in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery, is

A

left-sided neglect. With this, patients lose awareness of the left side of their bodies. They may not realize they have weakness or numbness on the left side of their body. In severe cases, they may not be able to recognize their own left hand

122
Q

Lesions in the left middle cerebral artery territory commonly cause

A

aphasia (language difficulty) in addition to right-sided weakness.

123
Q

strokes in the brainstem tend to cause

A

cranial nerve (CN) abnormalities (such as double vision from extraocular movement abnormalities) in addition to weakness and/or numbness on one side of the body.

124
Q

Strokes in the PCA territory,

A

which supplies the occipital lobes, can cause an isolated visual field deficit.

125
Q

a severe headache of abrupt onset (“thunderclap headache”), possibly with a decreased level of consciousness, raises concern for

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage.

126
Q

The only definite way to differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes is with

A

brain imaging, typically computed tomography (CT) of the head

127
Q

to differentiate TIA from a stroke, the patient should undergo

A

brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which will indicate whether permanent damage to the brain has occurred

128
Q

Aphasia typically localizes to the

A

left middle cerebral artery territory.

129
Q

left-sided neglect typically localizes to

A

the right middle cerebral artery territory.

130
Q

CN affected if difficulties with eye movement

A

III, IV, VI

131
Q

CN affected if difficulty with facial sensation, chewing

A

CN V

132
Q

difficulty with facial weakness involving upper and lower face CN

A

CN VII

133
Q

difficulty with vertigo or impaired hearing CN

A

CN VIII

134
Q

difficulty with dysphagia and absent gag reflex CN

A

CN IX and X

135
Q

impaired tongue movement CN

A

CN XII

136
Q

eval for IV tissue plasminogen activator

A

ital signs, NIHSS, blood glucose level, head CT, and assessment of contraindications. Ideally, a neurologic consultation should also be available within 30 minutes of the patient’s arrival.

137
Q

Practice guidelines of the American Heart Association Stroke Council recommend the use of

A

noncontrast CT of the head in patients with suspected acute stroke to exclude a nonvascular lesion as the cause of the signs and symptoms and to assess for an intracranial hemorrhage

138
Q

basic stroke work up for pts with ischemic stroke includes

A

ECG, brain MRI, vessel imaging, echo

139
Q

vessel imaging test of choice3

A

angiography

140
Q

in prehospital setting, special attention paid to _____ if stroke occuring

A

oxygen status via pulse ox

141
Q

Aggressive treatment of hypertension with stroke in the prehospital setting is

A

not done in patients with known ischemic disease, because lowering the BP may precipitate hypoperfusion and injury

142
Q

thrombolytic therapy carries risk of

A

intracerebral hemorrhage

143
Q

Contraindications to thrombolytic therapy include

A

recent head trauma in the last 3 months, previous intracranial hemorrhage, recent intracranial or intraspinal surgery, active internal bleeding, known brain tumor or intracranial vascular malformation, seizure at stroke onset, evidence of intracranial bleed on CT scan, international normalized ratio greater than 1.7, and a platelet count of less than 100,000

144
Q

malignant stroke

A

Edema in large territory infarcts can lead to herniation and be life-threatening

145
Q

secondary stroke prevention

A

antiplatelet or anticoag

146
Q

Carotid endarterectomy should not be considered for symptomatic patients with

A

less than 50% stenosis.

147
Q

The recommended dosage of clopidogrel for stroke prevention is

A

75 mg daily