Module 3.1 - The Periodic Table Flashcards

1
Q

Describe how the English chemist, John Newlands first tried to arrange a table of elements?

A

In 1863, he noticed that if he arranged the elements in order of mass, similar elements appeared at regular intervals - every eighth element was similar. He called this the law of octaves and he listed the known elements in rows of 7, so that similar elements lined up in columns, but the pattern didn’t always work such as with the transition metals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who was the Russian chemist that created the first accepted version of the periodic table?

A

Dmitri Mendeleev.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe how Dmitri Mendeleev produced a better table?

A

In 1869, he arranged all the known elements by atomic mass but left gaps in the table where the next element didn’t fit so he could keep elements with similar chemical properties in the same group. He predicted the properties of these undiscovered elements that would go in the gaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Was Mendeleev’s predictions and leaving gaps beneficial?

A

When elements were later discovered (e.g. germanium, scandium, gallium) with properties that matched his predictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What did Henry Moseley in 1914 arrange the elements by in the modern periodic table?

A

Increasing atomic (proton) number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do elements in the same period have in common with each other?

A

They have the same number of electron shells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is periodicity?

A

The repeating trends in the physical and chemical properties of the elements across each period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do elements within the same group have in common?

A

Have the same number of electrons in their outer shell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If an element is in the s-block what does this mean?

A

If an element is in the s-block it means that its outer shell electrons will be in the s orbital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name an example of a group in the p-block?

A

Group 7.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give a definition of first ionisation energy?

A

The first ionisation energy is the energy needed to remove 1 mole of electrons from 1 mole of gaseous atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Is ionising an atom or molecule an exothermic or endothermic process?

A

Endothermic process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 3 factors that affect ionisation energy?

A

Nuclear charge, atomic radius and shielding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how atomic radius affects the 1rst ionisation energy?

A

Attraction falls off very rapidly with distance and atomic radius decreases as you go across the period as nuclear charge increases pulling the shells closer. An electron close to the nucleus will be much more strongly attracted than one further away.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe how shielding affects the 1rst ionisation energy?

A

As the number of electrons between the outer electrons and the nucleus increases, the outer electrons feel less attraction towards the nuclear charge. This lessening of the pull of the nucleus by inner shells of electrons is called shielding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why does ionisation energy decrease as you go down the group?

A

> Elements further down a group have extra electron shells compared to ones above and these extra shells means that the atomic radius is larger, which greatly reduces their attraction to the nucleus.
The extra inner shells shield the outer electrons from the attraction if the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the reason for the drop in ionisation energy between Groups 2 and 3?

A

Due to sub-shell structure:
>The outer electron in Group 3 elements is in a p orbital rather than an s orbital.
>A p orbital has a slightly higher energy than an s orbital in the same shell, so the electron is, on average, to be found further from the nucleus.
>The p orbital also has additional shielding provided by the s electrons.
>These factors override the effect of the increased nuclear charge, resulting in the ionisation energy dropping slightly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the reason for the drop in ionisation energy between Groups 5 and 6?

A

Due to orbital repulsion:
>In the Group 5 elements, the electron is being removed from a singly-occupied orbital.
>In the Group 6 elements, the electron is being removed from an orbital containing 2 electrons.
3)The repulsion between 2 electrons in an orbital means that electrons are easier to remove from shared orbitals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When you remove additional electrons, it’s called the.?

A

Successive ionisation energies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do successive ionisation energies increase as each electron is removed?

A

This is because electrons are being removed from an increasingly positive ion, and there’s also less repulsion amongst the remaining electrons so are held more strongly by the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What structure does diamond, graphite and graphene all have?

A

Giant covalent lattices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are different forms of the same element in the same state called?

A

Allotrope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

State and explain the properties of diamond?

A

Because of it’s lots of strong covalent bonds:
>Has a very high melting point.
>Extremely hard.
>Vibrations travel easily through the stiff lattice, so it’s a good thermal conductor.
>Can’t conduct electricity - all the outer electrons are held in localised bonds.
>Won’t dissolve in any solvent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe diamond’s structure?

A

In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms. The atoms arrange themselves in a tetrahedral shape - its crystal lattice structure. Its the hardest known substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe silicon’s structure?

A

Also forms a crystal lattice structure with similar properties to carbon. Each silicon atom is able to form 4 strong covalent bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why graphite used as dry lubricant and in pencils?

A

The weak forces between the layers in graphite are easily broken, so the sheets can slide over each other and therefore, graphite feels slippery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How come electric current can flow in graphite?

A

The ‘delocalised’ electrons in graphite aren’t attached to any particular carbon atom and are free to move along the sheets.

28
Q

Why is graphite used in sport equipment?

A

The layers are quite far apart compared to the length of the covalent bonds, so graphite is less dense than diamond and is used to make a strong and lightweight.

29
Q

Describe and explain 2 other properties of graphite?

A

> Very high melting points - strong covalent bonds in the hexagon sheets.
Insoluble in any solvent - the covalent bonds in the sheets are too strong to break.

30
Q

Name two properties of a single layer of graphene?

A

Transparent and light.

31
Q

Describe metallic bonding?

A

The metal cations are electrostatically to the delocalised negative electrons. They form a lattice of closely packed cations in a sea of delocalised electrons.

32
Q

How are metals malleable and ductile?

A

As there are no bonds holding specific ions together, the metal ions can slide past each other when the structure is pulled so can be hammered into sheets (malleable) or drawn into wire (ductile).

33
Q

Why do the noble gases have very low and melting points?

A

Because they exist as individual atoms (monatomic), resulting in very weak induced dipole-dipole forces.

34
Q

How does the number of atoms in a molecule affect the induced dipole-dipole forces?

A

The more atoms in a molecule means stronger induced dipole-dipole forces

35
Q

Why does reactivity increase down Group 2?

A

The ionisation energies decrease and therefore, the easier it is to lose and electron and the more reactive it is. This is due to the increasing atomic radius and shielding effect.

36
Q

What does a Group 2 metal and water react to produce?

A

Hydroxides.

37
Q

What does a Group 2 metal and dilute acid react to produce?

A

A salt (metal chloride for example with HCI) and hydrogen.

38
Q

What does a Group 2 metal and oxygen react to produce?

A

Oxides.

39
Q

How are oxides and hydroxides of Group 2 metals similar to alkalis?

A

They are bases and soluble in water.

40
Q

What are common compounds of Group 2 metals or alkaline earth metals used for?

A

Neutralising acid.

41
Q

What can calcium hydroxide be used for?

A

Used in agriculture to neutralise acidic soils.

42
Q

What can magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate be used for?

A

Are used in some indigestion tablets as antacids.

43
Q

How do the metal oxides react with water as you go down the group?

A

The oxides form more strongly alkaline solutions as you go down the group, because the hydroxides get more soluble. Magnesium is an exception to the trend.

44
Q

Why are halogens described as oxidising agents?

A

Halogen atoms react by gaining an electron in their outer shell to form 1- ions, which means they’re reduced. As they are reduced, they oxidise another substance (it’s a redox reaction).

45
Q

What is the trend of reactivity in the halogens?

A

Halogens get less reactive as you go down the group.

46
Q

Rebecca reacted chlorine water with aqueous KBr, describe the observations she will witness?

A

The chlorine will displace the Br in KBr and therefore, will sit on the top of the aqueous KCl layer and will be yellow in colour.

47
Q

How do you make a mixture in organic solution and why?

A

You an make the changes easier to see by shaking the reaction mixture with an organic solvent like hexane. The halogen that’s present will dissolve readily into the organic solvent, which settles out a distinct layer above the aqueous solution.

48
Q

What observation would Rebecca see if she reacted KI in organic solution with bromine?

A

A purple layer on the top forming on top of the aqueous layer.

49
Q

What is silver nitrate solution used to test for?

A

Test for halides.

50
Q

Describe the simple test for halides?

A

1) Add dilute nitric acid to remove ions that might interfere with the test.
2) Then add silver nitrate solution.
3) A precipitate is formed (of the silver halide).

51
Q

What colour precipitate does chlorine have?

A

White.

52
Q

What colour precipitate does iodine have?

A

Yellow.

53
Q

What colour precipitate does bromine have?

A

Cream.

54
Q

Since, the test for halides is a qualitative test how can you be extra sue that your results are correct and how can you determine which halide it is?

A

By adding ammonia solution, each silver halide has a different solubility in ammonia - the larger the ion is, the more difficult it is to dissolve:
>CI - Dissolves in dilute ammonia.
>Br - Dissolves in concentrated ammonia.
>I - Insoluble in conc. and dilute ammonia.

55
Q

What is disproportionation?

A

Where the same element is simultaneously oxidised and reduced in a reaction.

56
Q

What do you produce if you react chlorine and sodium hydroxide?

A

You produce sodium chlorate solution (NaCIO) which is common household bleach.

57
Q

How is chlorine used to kill bacteria?

A

> When you mix Cl with water, it undergoes disproportionation and you end up with a mixture of hydrochloric acid and chloric acid.
Aqueous chloric acid ionises (reacts with water) to make chlorate ions.
Chlorate ions kill bacteria so adding chlorine (or adding a compound containing chlorate ions) to water can make it safe to drink or swim in.

58
Q

Why is chlorine used in water treatment?

A

> Kills disease-causing microorganisms.
Some chlorine remains in the water and prevents reinfection further down the supply.
Prevents the growth of algae, eliminating bad tastes, and removes discolouration caused by organic compounds.

59
Q

What are the risks from using chlorine to treat water?

A

> Chlorine is very harmful if breathed in - it irritates the respiratory system.
Liquid chlorine on the skin or eyes causes severe chemical burns, accidents involving chlorine could be really serious or fatal.
Water contains a variety of organic compounds which chlorine reacts with to form chlorinated hydrocarbons and many of these are carcinogenic. However, this increased cancer risk is small compared to the risks from untreated water - a cholera epidemic, could kill thousands of people.

60
Q

What are 2 alternatives to chlorine?

A

Ozone and Ultraviolet light.

61
Q

Describe ozone and why it would be good to use in water treatment?

A

Ozone is a strong oxidising agent, which makes it great at killing microorganisms. But, it’s expensive to produce and it’s short half life in water means that the treatment isn’t permanent.

62
Q

Describe ultraviolet light and why it would be good to use in water treatment?

A

Kills microorganisms by damaging their DNA , but it’s ineffective in cloudy water and, like ozone it won’t prevent the water being contaminated later.

63
Q

How can you test for carbonates and in a practical?

A

Add a dilute acid to your unknown sample and if carbonates are present then carbon dioxide will be released.
Practical - You can test for carbon dioxide using limewater and carbon dioxide turns limewater cloudy - just bubble the gas through a test tube with limewater and observe.

64
Q

How to test for sulfate ions present?

A

Most sulfates are soluble in water, but barium sulfate is insoluble. So to test for sulfate ions, add dilute HCI followed by barium chloride solution. If you get a white precipitate it’ll be barium sulfate, which tells you sulfate ions are present.

65
Q

How to test for ammonium compounds?

A

Add some sodium hydroxide to your unknown substance in a test tube and warm the mixture. Ammonia gas is alkaline so you can check for it using a damp piece of red litmus paper and if ammonia/ ammonium ions are present, the paper will turn blue.

66
Q

How to test for ammonium ions?

A

Add some sodium hydroxide to your unknown substance in a test tube and warm the mixture. If ammonia gas is given off then ammonium ions are in your mystery substance.

67
Q

To avoid false positives and mix-ups because other ions reacting with substances in different tests whats the best order to do the tests?

A

Test for carbonates, test for sulfates, test for halides.