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Human Biology > Module 3: The Integumentary and Skeletal Systems > Flashcards

Module 3: The Integumentary and Skeletal Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

Name some characteristics of skin.

A

Protection from the sun, thermal stress, and infections, has pleats and allowances to prevent tears, waterproof, self-conditioning, self-mending, manufacture of vitamin D, anti-inflammatory, and anti-cancer effects.

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2
Q

Epidermis

A

The outer portion of the skin, formed by epithelial tissue that is attached to the dermis.

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3
Q

Dermis

A

Dense irregular connective tissue that forms the deep layer of the skin.

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4
Q

What type of tissue makes up the epidermis?

A

Stratified squamous epithelial tissue.

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5
Q

What type of tissue makes up the dermis?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue.

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6
Q

What is a blister?

A

A partial separation between the dermis and the epidermis.

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7
Q

Hypodermis

A

Loose connective tissue underneath the dermis that connects the dermis to muscle or bone.

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8
Q

What are the two layers of the dermis called?

A

Upper: papillary layer. Lower: reticular layer.

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9
Q

Dermal papillae

A

Bumps in the papillary layer that increase the number of blood vessels exposed to the epidermis by bringing the vessels close to the epidermis.

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10
Q

What is the technical name for fingerprints?

A

Epidermal ridges.

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11
Q

What determines how epidermal ridges form?

A

The environment. That is why identical twins have different fingerprints.

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12
Q

What is the purpose of epidermal ridges?

A

Grip and increased friction between the fingers and the things they touch.

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13
Q

What makes up epidermal ridges?

A

They are lines of dermal papillae in the dermis that line up to make ridges. The epidermis lies tightly over the dermis, and thus shows all the little bumps.

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14
Q

Reti is Latin for what word?

A

Net

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15
Q

Reticular layer of the dermis

A

The network of collagen fibers that runs beneath the papillary layer.

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16
Q

What is each side of a piece of leather composed of?

A

The smooth side is the papillary layer, and the stringy side is the reticular side.

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17
Q

How are the lines of cleavage determined in the skin?

A

By lines of collagen in the reticular layer of the dermis that lie in the same direction.

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18
Q

What is another name for lines of cleavage?

A

Lines of tension.

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19
Q

What happens when a cut in the skin is parallel to the lines of cleavage?

A

The skin is not pulled open very far, and there is little to no scarring.

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20
Q

What happens when a cut in the skin goes across the lines of cleavage?

A

Many collagen fibers are cut, increasing the stress on the wound. The wound pulls open and slows down the healing process, often leaving a scar.

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21
Q

What is the general purpose of neurons?

A

They send signals to and receive signals from the brain and the spinal cord.

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22
Q

What type of tissue makes up hair?

A

Keratinized tissue, meaning it is dead.

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23
Q

Describe the process that occurs after hair is moved.

A

(1)Neurons in the dermis surround the hair follicle and sense the movement. (2) They send a signal to the brain. (3) The brain interprets it as a feeling that the hair is being moved.

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24
Q

Sensory neurons

A

Neurons imbedded in the skin so that the skin itself can provide sensations such as heat, cold, light, touch, pressure, pain, tickle, and itch. These neurons take messages from sensory receptors to the brain.

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25
Q

Name one example of a sensory receptor.

A

The hair follicle receptors in the skin.

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26
Q

Describe the effects of a first-degree burn.

A

Many cells in the epidermis are killed, but they can recover quickly through mitosis. Ex: A sunburn.

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27
Q

Describe the effects of a second-degree burn

A

The epidermis is completely destroyed, and some cells in the dermis are destroyed. The epithelial tissue in hair follicles, sweat glands, and other ducts grows up to heal the burn.

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28
Q

What classification is given to first- and second-degree burns?

A

Partial-thickness burns.

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29
Q

Describe the effects of a third-degree burn

A

Both the dermis and epidermis have been completely destroyed. The only treatment is a skin graft, for even the epithelial tissue found in the hair follicles, sweat glands, and ducts has been burned off.

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30
Q

What classification is given to third-degree burns?

A

Full-thickness burns.

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31
Q

Arrector pili

A

Smooth muscle cells associated with hair. When they contract, the change the position of the hair.

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32
Q

How do goose bumps form?

A

When the body is cold, the arrector pili contract, moving the hair follicle and causing the hair to stand on end. A small bump forms on the skin from the arrector pili muscles. The hair traps warmer air next to the skin, heating it up.

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33
Q

What is another name for the hypodermis?

A

The subcutaneous layer

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34
Q

What type of tissue always exists in the hypodermis?

A

Loose connective tissue. The skin must always be connected to another surface.

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35
Q

What is the function of the loops of blood vessels in the dermis?

A

They increase the surface area of the epidermis that is exposed to blood, thus increasing the transfer of oxygen and nutrients into the epidermis.

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36
Q

What is the function of sweat glands?

A

They produce sweat that travels through the sweat ducts and out onto the skin through sweat pore. The sweat cools the skin by evaporation.

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37
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

They produce oil that softens the skin, protects it from drying, and provides protection from bacteria.

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38
Q

Name the layers of the epidermis from farthest from the free surface to closest.

A

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum.

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39
Q

Name some characteristics of stratum basale.

A

It is one cell thick and composed of cells constantly undergoing mitosis. As they reproduce, they push up into the next layer.

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40
Q

Name the characteristics of stratum spinosum.

A

It is several layers thick and undergoes mitosis.

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41
Q

Which two layers of the epidermis contain melanocytes?

A

The stratum basale and the stratum spinosum.

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42
Q

Melanocytes

A

Cell with long extensions called processes that make melanin and package it into vesicles via Golgi apparatuses.

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43
Q

What are the two main types of melanin found in skin and hair?

A

Eumelanin (dark) and pheomelanin (reddish).

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44
Q

How do skin cells develop color?

A

Melanocytes make melanin and package it into vesicles via Golgi apparatuses. The vesicles move outward into the processes of the melanocytes. The stratum basale and stratum spinosum cells engage in phagocytosis and engulf the processes. The melanin-laden processes give the cells color.

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45
Q

What affects the ability of the melanocytes to make melanin?

A

Genetics, hormones, and exposure to sunlight.

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46
Q

What is an important function of melanin?

A

Protection from the sun against ultraviolet radiation (the main cause of skin cancer in humans).

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47
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

A cancer of the skin that results from the uncontrolled mitosis of cells in the stratum basale layer. It is curable if removed.

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48
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

A cancer of the skin caused by stratum spinosum cells. More dangerous than basal cell carcinoma, but can be controlled by surgery.

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49
Q

Name some characteristics of stratum granulosum.

A

The skin cells are dying here. The cells produce large amount of keratin.

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50
Q

What is the function of keratin?

A

It gives the skin waterproofing abilities.

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51
Q

Stratum lucidum

A

The layer found mostly in the thick skin of the palms and soles. It is dead.

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52
Q

Stratum corneum

A

The final layer of the epidermis. Composed of 25 to 30 layers of dead keratinized cells.

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53
Q

Desquamation

A

The process by which dead keratinized cells flake off the skin from the top.

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54
Q

Which layer of the epidermis do cells first begin to die?

A

The stratum granulosum.

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55
Q

What is the difference between thin and thick skin?

A

As it pertains to the epidermis, thick skin contains every epidermal layer, and the stratum corneum has several layers of keratinized cells. Thin skin has no stratum lucidum, and each of the other layers has fewer cells than in thick skin.

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56
Q

Where is thick skin found?

A

The palms, the soles of the feet, and the fingertips.

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57
Q

What two sections is hair divided into?

A

The root and the shaft.

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58
Q

Shaft

A

The part of hair above the surface of the skin.

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59
Q

Root

A

The part of hair within the skin.

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60
Q

Hair bulb

A

The base of the hair root.

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61
Q

What type of cells is hair made of?

A

Dead keratinized cells arranged in three concentric layers.

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62
Q

What are the three layers of the root and shaft?

A

The medulla, the cortex, and the cuticle.

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63
Q

What type of tissue is hair classified into?

A

Epithelial tissue.

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64
Q

What is the difference between hard and soft keratin?

A

Hard keratin contains more sulfur. The increased sulfur increases the strength and makes it harder than soft keratin.

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65
Q

Cortex

A

A layer of the hair shaft and root that makes up most of the hair and contains several layers of cells that hold hard keratin.

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66
Q

What type of keratin makes up the skin?

A

Soft keratin.

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67
Q

Medulla

A

The innermost layer of hair. It contains two or three layers of dead cells that hold soft keratin.

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68
Q

Cuticle

A

A single layer of dead cells in the hair shaft and root that contain hard keratin. The cells of the cuticle overlap one another in their structure.

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69
Q

Hair follicle

A

The tiny pocket out of which the hair grows. It is made mostly of epithelial tissue.

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70
Q

What are the two regions of the hair follicle?

A

The internal epithelial root sheath and the external epithelial root sheath.

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71
Q

What is the function of the internal root sheath?

A

It firmly attaches the hair root to the follicle.

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72
Q

Matrix (in hair)

A

A mass of undifferentiated cells in the medulla.

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73
Q

How do cells differentiate and specialize?

A

As cells under them perform mitosis, the cells become part of one of the regions of the hair and keratinize either soft or hard keratin, depending on whether the cell becomes part of the medulla, cortex, or cuticle.

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74
Q

Electrolysis?

A

A procedure that eliminates hair growth by killing the matrix cells.

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75
Q

Growth stages

A

Time periods in which hair is growing and the cells in the matrix are undergoing mitosis.

76
Q

Rest stages

A

Time periods in which cells in the matrix rest and do not undergo mitosis.

77
Q

During the growth stage, what three processes happen to the cell?

A

It reproduces (via mitosis), differentiates, and then keratinize. This causes the hair to grow.

78
Q

Why does some hair grow long and some doesn’t?

A

The differences in hair length at different places on the body are determined by the differences in the growth and rest stages of the hair follicles.

79
Q

What type of melanin makes up dark hair?

A

A lot of eumelanin and not much pheomelanin.

80
Q

What type of melanin makes up red hair?

A

A lot of pheomelanin and not much eumelanin.

81
Q

What type of melanin makes up blonde hair?

A

Blonde hair can have either, but golden blonde: mostly pheomelanin, and ash blonde: mostly eumelanin.

82
Q

Lunula

A

The upper portion of the nail matrix.

83
Q

What are the functions of nails?

A

Protection for the tips of the digits, reinforcement of the fingertips, a firmer grasp, and scratching to relieve skin irritation.

84
Q

What are the two basic kinds of glands in the skin?

A

Sebaceous and sweat glands.

85
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Merocrine and apocrine sweat glands.

86
Q

Where are merocrine sweat glands found?

A

They are the most widespread sweat glands and can be found all over the skin.

87
Q

Where are apocrine sweat glands found?

A

They are found in the armpit and pubic region.

88
Q

What is the difference between merocrine and apocrine sweat glands?

A

The apocrine glands are found deeper in the skin near or in the hypodermis. Merocrine glands are found only in the dermis. Apocrine glands do not empty their secretions directly onto the skin. Instead, they empty into the hair follicle, and from there onto the skin. Merocrine glands secrete directly onto the skin.

89
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands?

A

They are holocrine glands, meaning they secrete the entire cell. They secrete oil, called sebum, and soften and condition the hair and skin.

90
Q

How does acne form?

A

Sebaceous glands secrete their substances onto the skin. Bacteria live on those secretions, and a specific bacterium called Propionibacterium acnes aids in the formation of acne. Something happens in the hair follicle which causes too many cells to form in the epidermis of the follicle, leading to keratinized cells falling off the epidermis and clogging up the hair follicle. Sebum builds under the blockage, and a whitehead is formed.

91
Q

What are the five functions of the skeletal system?

A

Support, protection, movement, storage, and hemopoiesis.

92
Q

Support (bone function)

A

Bone bears the weight of the body, cartilage provides firm but flexible support for structures such as the ears and nose, and ligaments bind the bones together.

93
Q

Protection (Bone function)

A

Bone protects the organs it surrounds. Ex: Skull around the brain, rib cage around the heart and lungs, and the vertebral column around the spinal cord.

94
Q

Movement (Bone function)

A

Bones create joints which allow for movement.

95
Q

Storage (Bone function)

A

The skeletal system stores minerals such as calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium. It also stores adipose tissue.

96
Q

Yellow bone marrow

A

The adipose tissue stored in the bones. Long bones of the arms, legs, hands, and feet contain yellow bone marrow.

97
Q

Hemopoiesis (Bone function)

A

The process of manufacturing blood cells.

98
Q

Red bone marrow

A

Found inside the bones, it produces red blood cells and white blood cells. It accomplishes hemopoiesis as well.

99
Q

What are the five basic categories of bones?

A

Long, short, flat, irregular, and sesamoid.

100
Q

Long bone (Give example)

A

A bone that is longer than it is wide. Ex: Femur

101
Q

Flat bone (Give an example)

A

Potentially long bones that are thin and usually curved. Ex: A rib.

102
Q

Sesamoid bones (Give an example)

A

Small, round bones that develop inside tendons. Ex: The patella.

103
Q

Irregular bone (Give an example)

A

Any bone that does not fit any other category. Ex: A vertebra.

104
Q

What are the three major components of a long bone?

A

The diaphysis, the epiphysis, and the epiphyseal plate/line.

105
Q

Diaphysis

A

The shaft of the bone comprised mainly of compact bone.

106
Q

Compact bone

A

Dense bone matrix organized into microscopic tubes of bone called osteons.

107
Q

Epiphysis

A

The part of the bone found at the end and made of cancellous bone/spongy bone.

108
Q

Cancellous bone

A

Networks of bone with many marrow-filled spaces surrounding the bone matrix.

109
Q

What does a cancellous bone look like?

A

It has a lattice-like appearance, and the spaces within the lattice contain red or yellow bone marrow.

110
Q

Ossification

A

Bone formation

111
Q

How does a bone change with growth?

A

When a person is young, the cancellous bone is resilient and the epiphyseal plates are present with hyaline cartilage. The plates allow the bones to grow. Once a person has matured, the cancellous bone is less resilient and the bone does not need to grow, so the epiphyseal plates are converted to bone.

112
Q

Articular cartilage

A

Hyaline cartilage that covers the ends of a bone in a joint.

113
Q

How does bone marrow differ in the young vs the mature?

A

As a child, the diaphysis contains mostly red bone marrow, but as an adult, it is slowly replaced with yellow bone marrow.

114
Q

Medullary cavity

A

The cavity that runs down the center of the diaphysis.

115
Q

Periosteum

A

The sheath that covers the entire bone.

116
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum?

A

Outer: Dense irregular connective tissue that contains blood vessels and nerves.
Inner: A single layer of bone cells.

117
Q

What parts of a long bone does a flat bone typically not have?

A

The diaphysis and epiphysis.

118
Q

What three layers compose a flat bone?

A

A layer of compact bone, an inner layer of cancellous bone, and another layer of compact bone on the other side. A “cancellous bone sandwich.”

119
Q

If a bone has no diaphysis, can it still have bone marrow?

A

Yes.

120
Q

Do short and irregular bones have diaphyses and epiphyses?

A

They have no diaphyses, but some have epiphyses.

121
Q

How many bones are in the adult human body?

A

206 bones.

122
Q

What two sections can the skeleton be divided into?

A

The axial and appendicular skeletons.

123
Q

Axial skeleton

A

The portion of the skeleton that supports and protects the head, neck, and trunk.

124
Q

Appendicular skeleton

A

The portion of the skeleton that attaches to the axial skeleton and has the limbs attached to it.

125
Q

Which bones make up the axial skeleton?

A

The vertebral column, ribs, and skull.

126
Q

Which bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

A

The pectoral girdle, the upper limbs that attach to it, the pelvic girdle, and the lower limbs that attach to it.

127
Q

Pectoral girdle

A

An incomplete ring composed of two pairs of bones that attaches the upper limbs to the axial skeleton.

128
Q

What two bones make up the pectoral girdle?

A

The clavicle and the scapula.

129
Q

Clavicle

A

The collarbone.

130
Q

Scapula

A

The shoulder blade.

131
Q

What bone(s) make up the upper limb?

A

The humerus.

132
Q

What bone(s) make up the forearm?

A

The radius and ulna.

133
Q

Pelvic girdle

A

A complete ring of three bones that attaches the lower limbs to the axial skeleton.

134
Q

What three bones make up the pelvic girdle?

A

Two coxae and the sacrum.

135
Q

What three bones make up a coxa?

A

The ilium, the pubis, and the ischium are fused into one coxa.

136
Q

What bone(s) make up the thigh?

A

The femur.

137
Q

What bone(s) make up the leg?

A

The tibia and fibula.

138
Q

The patella

A

A sesamoid bone that develops like a calcified “callous” within the tendon that joins the thigh muscle to the tibia. It acts like a lever, reducing the force that the muscles must exert in order to move the leg.

139
Q

How many bones are in each hand and wrist?

A

27.

140
Q

How many bones are in each ankle and foot?

A

26.

141
Q

What type of bones make up the wrist? How many of them?

A

Eight short bones called carpals.

142
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome

A

A situation in which a ligament that passes across the carpals pinches a nerve that runs below it.

143
Q

What bones make up the hand? How many of them?

A

Five metacarpals and five digits.

144
Q

What are the three types of phalanges that every digit has? (Except the thumb)

A

The proximal phalanx, the middle phalanx, and the distal phalanx.

145
Q

What bones make up the ankle? How many of them?

A

Seven short bones called tarsals.

146
Q

What bones make up the foot? How many of them?

A

Five metatarsals and five digits.

147
Q

How many different bones comprise the skull?

A

28 bones.

148
Q

What is the skull’s main job?

A

To support and protect the brain, eyes, ears, and nose.

149
Q

Posterior

A

A view from behind.

150
Q

Lateral

A

Away from the middle.

151
Q

Anterior

A

Front

152
Q

Suture

A

An immovable joint between flat bones of the skull.

153
Q

Process

A

A projection on a bone.

154
Q

Mastoid process

A

The projection on the temporal bone that attaches to the muscles involved in the movement of the head.

155
Q

What attaches to the superior and inferior nuchal lines?

A

The neck muscles.

156
Q

Inferior

A

Below

157
Q

Superior

A

Above

158
Q

What are cheekbones technically known as?

A

Zygomatic bones.

159
Q

What forms the zygomatic arch?

A

A process from the zygomatic bones joins a process from the temporal bones to form the arch.

160
Q

What is the zygomatic arch connected to?

A

One of two maxillae which contain the upper set of teeth.

161
Q

What bone holds the inferior set of teeth?

A

The mandible.

162
Q

The external auditory meatus

A

The passageway through which sound waves travel in order to reach the eardrum.

163
Q

Meatus

A

A passageway

164
Q

The mental foramen

A

A hole through which the mental nerve passes.

165
Q

Foramen

A

A hole.

166
Q

What forms the bony part of the nasal septum?

A

The vomer and a plate from the ethmoid bone.

167
Q

Describe the nasal cavity.

A

The nasal septum divides the cavity in two, and sinuses in the cavity are covered with a thin membrane of pseudostratified epithelium.

168
Q

The paranasal sinuses.

A

The sinuses in the bones associated with the nasal cavity.

169
Q

What is the purpose of paranasal sinuses?

A

They reduce the weight of the skull and affect the sound of the voice.

170
Q

What is the technical name for eye sockets?

A

Orbits.

171
Q

How are the orbits formed?

A

Formed by a junction of seven bones. The frontal bone forms the roof, the sphenoid bone forms part of the roof and lateral wall, the zygomatic bone forms part of the wall, the lacrimal, ethmoid, and maxilla bones form the inside wall, and the maxilla forms the inferior part of the orbit.

172
Q

What is the purpose of the vertebral column?

A

It protects the spinal cord, allows the body to bend and twist at the waist, provides support, and allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

173
Q

What is the purpose of the spinal cord?

A

It brings the control capability of the brain down to the upper and lower limbs.

174
Q

What are the five sections of the vertebral column?

A

Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, a sacrum, and a coccyx.

175
Q

What is the purpose of the concave and convex shape of the spinal cord?

A

It provides a cushioning effect against the impact of walking or running. It can compress or expand depending on the stress it experiences.

176
Q

What is the function of the body of a vertebra?

A

It bears weight.

177
Q

What is the function of intervertebral disks?

A

They are made of tough fibrocartilage that join the bodies of the vertebrae and keep them from rubbing against one another.

178
Q

What forms the vertebral foramen?

A

The vertebral arch and the body form a canal (a foramen) through which the spinal cord travels.

179
Q

Transverse process

A

The process extending to the sides of a vertebra.

180
Q

Spinous process

A

The processes that extend posteriorly and inferiorly, pointing downward. Many small muscles attach to these processes and control a large part of movement of the vertebral column.

181
Q

How do the superior articular process and the inferior articular process relate to each other?

A

They stack on top of each, and the superior process slightly overlaps with the inferior process. It adds to the rigidity of the column and give it greater ability to move.

182
Q

Thoracic cage

A

The rib cage; protects the heart and lungs.

183
Q

Thoracic cavity

A

One of three cavities in the trunk of the body. It is a space enclosed by the thoracic cage.

184
Q

How many ribs does the thoracic cage contain?

A

12

185
Q

What is the difference between superior ribs and inferior ribs besides location?

A

The seven superior pairs of ribs attach directly to the sternum via costal cartilages made of hyaline cartilage. The five inferior pairs of ribs do not attach directly to the sternum, and the last two pairs do not attach at all. The first three pairs have costal cartilages that attach to a shared cartilage which is then attached to the sternum.

186
Q

What are the three parts of the sternum?

A

The manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process.

Human Biology (16 decks)

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