Module 3: Immunological system Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major cells in the 1st line of defence (barrier)?

A

Epithelial cells and microbiome

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2
Q

What are the major cells involved in the 2nd line of defence (innate immunity)?

A

Mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages, NK cells

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3
Q

What are the major cells involved in the 3rd line of defence (adaptive immunity)?

A

Dendritic cells, T & B lymphocytes

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4
Q

What are the chemical mediators involved in the 1st line of defence (barrier)?

A

Defensins, cathelicidins and bacterial toxins

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5
Q

What are the chemical mediators involved in the 2nd line of defence (innate immunity)?

A

Complement proteins, cytokines, kinin & clotting factors

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6
Q

What are the chemical mediators involved in the 3rd line of defence (adaptive immunity)?

A

antibodies, complement proteins and cytokines

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7
Q

What is the role of defensins?

A

Break bacterial membranes. Can activate innate and adaptive immune cells

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8
Q

What is the role of cathelicidins?

A

Insert and form pores in bacterial membrane. Released by many epithelial cells

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9
Q

What are the benefits of mutualistic bacteria and fungi?

A
  • Producing enzymes that aid in digestion, useful metabolites (vit K/B), and antibacterial factors to prevent infection
  • Compete with pathogens for nutrients and space to grow
  • Helps train the adaptive immune system
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10
Q

What are the 4 major benefits of inflammation?

A

1: prevents further damage and infection by invading pathogen
2: prevent the inflammatory process from reaching healthy sites
3: coordinates with the adaptive system
4: prepares the injured area for healing and repair

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11
Q

What are the 5 cardinals signs to local inflammation?

A

Redness, swelling, heat, pain and partial loss of function

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12
Q

What are the systemic manifestations of inflammation?

A

Fever, leukocytosis and plasma protein synthesis

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13
Q

What triggers fever?

A

Pyrogens (IL-1)

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14
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

An increase in circulating white blood cells due to an inflammation response

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15
Q

What triggers plasma protein synthesis?

A

IL-6

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16
Q

Where are plasma proteins mostly synthetised?

A

In the liver

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17
Q

Name 3 acute-phase reactants in the plasma protein synthesis.

A

Fibrinogen, Complements and C-reactive protein (CRP)

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18
Q

What is the role of mast cells?

A

Once they are activated by other chemicals or antibodies, they degranulate and release histamine into the bloodstream, which promotes vasodilation. they also attract neutrophils with a neutrophil chemotactic factor. they release cytokines that promote inflammation

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19
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Small intercellular signalling molecules, either pro or anti-inflammatory

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20
Q

What are interlukins? (IL)

A
  • Major class of cytokines, mainly produced by macrophages
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21
Q

What are interferons? (IFN)

A
  • Family of cytokines specifically efficient against viral infections
  • IFN a&b released by infected cells
  • IFN-y released by lymphocytes
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22
Q

What are chemokines?

A

Cytokines that specifically act as honing signals, attracting immune cells to sites of injury (chemotaxis)

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23
Q

What is the main action of TNF-a?

A
  • Pro-inflammatory
  • Systemic inflammation manifestations
  • Synthesis and release of IL-1
  • Potentially fatal if released in excessive amounts = sepsis
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24
Q

What is the main action of IL-1?

A
  • Pro-inflammatory
  • endogenous pyrogen = fever
  • activation of neutrophils, macrophages, lymphocytes
  • diapedesis of phagocytes
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25
Q

What is the main action of IL-6?

A
  • Pro-inflammatory
  • Stimulate the liver to synthesize acute-phase reactants
  • proliferation of fibroblasts for wound healing
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26
Q

What is the main action of IL-8?

A
  • Pro-inflammatory
  • Chemotaxis
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27
Q

What is the main action of IL-10?

A
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • Down-regulates the immune response
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28
Q

What is the role of TGF-b?

A
  • Anti-inflammatory
  • promote blood cell maturation to replenish used up cells
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29
Q

What are the 3 activation pathways for the complement system?

A
  • Classical
  • Alternative
  • Lectin
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30
Q

What are the 2 activation pathways for the clotting system?

A
  • Tissue factor (extrinsic)
  • Contact (intrinsic)
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31
Q

What are the functions of the kinin system?

A
  • Activates and assists inflammatory cells
  • Primary kinin is bradykinin
  • Causes the following: dilation of blood vessels, smooth muscle contraction, induces pain, increases vascular permeability
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32
Q

What are neutrophils?

A
  • most common WBC
  • first one on site of injury
  • pus/exudate = dead pathogens and neutrophils
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33
Q

What are macrophages?

A
  • most efficient and resistant phagocytes
    M1= bacterial cleaning
    M2 = wound healing/cleaning/repair
  • adaptive immunity activation
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34
Q

What tells NK cells that they can attack a cell?

A

If it does not have the MHC-1 expression

35
Q

After how much time do you consider inflammation to be chronic?

A

After more than 2 weeks

36
Q

Define regeneration

A

replacement of injured tissue with healthy tissue. its the return to normal structure and function (healing with 1st intention)

37
Q

Define repair

A

replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue to fill in a lesion and restore strength. causes partial loss of function (healing with 2nd intention)

38
Q

What is the result of dysfunctional collagen synthesis?

A

Keloids and hypertrophic scars

39
Q

What is the result of ischemia in wound healing?

A

small vessel disease (obesity & diabetes)

40
Q

What is the result of excessive bleeding during wound healing?

A

vascular diseases / hemophilia

41
Q

What is the result of infection during wound healing?

A

prolonged inflammatory response

42
Q

What is the result of malnutrition during wound healing?

A

scurvy = poor collagen synthesis

43
Q

What drugs can increase the chances of wound healing dysfunctions?

A

Immunosuppressants, steroids & NSAIDs / tobacco smoke

44
Q

What is the role of IgM?

A

main antibody during primary response

45
Q

What is the specialty of IgD?

A

is mostly membrane-bound

46
Q

What is the role of IgG?

A

main antibody for secondary response

47
Q

What is the role of IgA?

A

main antibody for secretory immune system

48
Q

What is the role of IgE?

A

main antibody against worms/large parasites. main culprit of allergic reactions

49
Q

Which cells are associated with cellular immunity?

A

TNF-b, IL-2 and INF-y

50
Q

Which cells are associated with the humoral response?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-6

51
Q

Which cells are involved in inflammation?

A

IL-17, IL-21, IL-22

52
Q

Which cells are involved in the suppressed immune response?

A

TGF-b and IL-2

53
Q

Which T-helper activation is used for the humoral response?

A

Th2

54
Q

Which T-helper activation is used for the cell-mediated response?

A

Th1

55
Q

Which lymphocyte is used for the humoral response?

A

B-cells (plasma cells)

56
Q

Which lymphocyte is used for the cell-mediated response?

A

T-cells (CD8 and cytotoxic T-cells)

57
Q

What is the main mechanism of the humoral response?

A

Antibody secretion

58
Q

What is the main mechanism of the cell-mediated response?

A

activation of cell death mechanisms

59
Q

What is the humoral response most effective against?

A

Extracellular pathogens (bacteria, viruses (pre-entry), parasites and worms

60
Q

What is the cell-mediated response most effective against?

A

Intracellular pathogens (viruses (post-entry) or cancer surveillance

61
Q

What results in a B-cell deficiency?

A

decrease in circulating Ig, increase in susceptibility to infections

62
Q

What results in a T-cell deficiency?

A

DiGeorge syndrome (lack of thymus)
chronic candidiasis

63
Q

Name the mechanism in every type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

1: IgE-Mediated
2: Tissue-specific
3: immune complex-mediated
4: cell-mediated

64
Q

What allergy/environmental antigens could trigger hypersensitivity reactions?

A

1: hay fever, bee stings and asthma
2: drug-induced hemolysis
3: Celiac’s disease
4: Poison Ivy

65
Q

What autoimmunity/self-antigen can trigger hypersensitivity reactions?

A

1: none
2: hemolytic anemia
3: systemic lupus erythematosus
4: Hashimoto’s disease

66
Q

What alloimmunity (other human’s antigen) can trigger hypersensitivity reactions?

A

1: none
2: hemolytic anemia
3: anaphylaxis to IaG
4: graft rejection

67
Q

Most auto-immune disorders affect more males or females?

A

Females because of frequent genetic predispositions

68
Q

Which Igs are involved in each hypersensitivity reaction?

A

1: IgE
2: IgG and IgM
3: IgG and IgM
4: none

69
Q

What are the major effector cells in each hypersensitivity reaction?

A

1: mast cells
2: tissue macrophages
3: neutrophils
4: lymphocytes and macrophages

70
Q

What are the major symptoms of SLE?

A
  • Vasculitis
  • Kidney glomerulonephritis
  • arthritis
  • photosensitivity (discoid rash)
71
Q

What causes graft transplant rejection (GvHD)?

A

genetic variability in MHC proteins (haplotype)

72
Q

What are the characteristics of hyperacute GvHD?

A
  • immediate and rare
  • graft turns white
  • preexisting antibodies to HLA antigens
  • type II hypersensitivity
73
Q

What are the characteristics of acute GvHD?

A
  • days to months
  • cell-mediated (type IV)
  • more common
74
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic GvHD?

A
  • months to years
  • progressive organ failure
  • weaker delayed type IV hypersensitivity
75
Q

Explain the details of the portal of entry infection property

A

route of transmission (inhalation, ingestion, human or zoonotic contact)

76
Q

Explain the details of the communicability infection property

A

ability of the microorganism to spread between individuals. depends heavily on portal of entry (measles=high, HIV=low)

77
Q

Explain the details of the infectivity infection property

A

ability of pathogens to invade and multiply within host (herpes simplex virus immune evasion)

78
Q

Explain the details of the virulence infection property

A

the ability of viruses to cause severe disease( measles=low, ebola=high)

79
Q

Explain the details of the toxigenicity infection property

A

the ability of bacteria and parasites to cause severe disease via the production of exotoxins and endotoxins

80
Q

Explain the details of the pathogenicity infection property

A

the overall ability of pathogen to produce an infectious disease based on its communicability, infectivity & virulence/toxigenicity

81
Q

What is an antigenic drift?

A

minor gradual changes via mutation accumulation

82
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

major sudden transformation via the exchange of whole genetic segments

83
Q
A