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24E6 > Module 3 > Flashcards

Module 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who appoints munitions inspectors?

A

Munitions Supervision.

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2
Q

What skill level(s) must be earned before becoming a certified munitions inspector?

A

The 5 skill level.

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3
Q

List at least three responsibilities of a munitions inspector.

A

(1) Informs the MASO, Munitions Control, and Munitions Supervision immediately upon notification of restricted
or suspended munitions through CMRS that affect munitions serviceability.
(2) Monitor shelf/service life dates by reviewing TICMS and coordinate changes/updates.
(3) Determine and assign appropriate condition codes to all munitions as directed by applicable TOs.
(4) Initiate, maintain, and process applicable documents and historical records.
(5) Ensure munitions assets are properly tagged, marked, and packed
(6) Verifies accuracy of all inspection documentation.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the munitions surveillance program?

A

To provide a high degree of confidence that munitions have not been adversely affected by storage conditions, age,
use, or the environment, and can be expected to perform as designed.

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5
Q

What technical order provides guidance on general inspection requirements for all
inspections?

A

TO 11A–1–10, Air Force Munitions Surveillance Program and Serviceability Procedures.

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6
Q

List at least three steps that must be completed for general inspection procedures.

A

1) Check current item TO/WEBFLIS/JHCS for the controlled inventory item code (CIIC) and Department of Defense ammunition code (DODAC) (Federal Stock Class (FSC)-DODIC) to
determine if the NSN and CIIC are correct. (2) Check the ammunition lot or serial number against CMRS to ensure the item(s) has not been restricted or suspended from use.(3) Check the
external packaging for obvious defects and that the packaging is adequate to withstand additional handling, storage, and/or shipment. (4) Check the external markings for the minimum
required markings. (5) Verify that enough shelf and service life remains for the item’s intended use/purpose.

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7
Q

What inspection ensures the highest degree of confidence in which the inspector
looks for defects that may reduce reliability?

A

Periodic inspection (PI)

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8
Q

What type of inspection is performed at the direction of competent authorities, the
MAJCOM, or Air Logistics Center (ALC)?

A

Special inspection (SPI)

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9
Q

What must you do if two condition codes apply to the same item?

A

Use the most restrictive condition code

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10
Q

What condition code applies if an item is issuable with qualification?

A

CC/B.

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11
Q

What condition code applies if an item is considered unserviceable until limited
restoration has been accomplished?

A

CC/E.

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12
Q

What condition code applies if an item is suspended in stock?

A

CC/J.

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13
Q

What condition code applies if an item is suspended for emergency combat use
only?

A

CC/N

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14
Q

What unserviceable tag identifies condition codes H, P, and V items?

A

DD Form 1577/1577–1.

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15
Q

Direct input is the preferred method of loading what type of information into TICMS?

A

Inspection results.

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16
Q

When direct input into TICMS is not used, what form is used to update item lot
history?

A

AFTO Form 102.

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17
Q

What TICMS screen displays condition and status of stockpile and custody assets?

A

Total Asset Inquiry

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18
Q

What TICMS screen is used by local MASOs and Equipment Specialists at the
Ammunition Control Point to provide final disposition instructions on ADR actions?

A

Search Ammunition Disposition Request Report.

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19
Q

What TICMS screen is included with shipments to satisfy lot history record
requirements in accordance with TO 11A–1–10?

A

The inspection history

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20
Q

When you identify a supply discrepancy, what is the first thing you must determine?

A

The category it falls into. Is it a shipping or packaging type discrepancy?

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21
Q

What type of discrepancy applies if you discover any variation in quantity or
condition of materiel from that reflected on the supply documents?

A

Shipping

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22
Q

Which publication identifies the time standards for submitting supply discrepancy
reports (SDRs)?

A

DLM 4000.25, Volume 2, Chapter 17, Supply Discrepancy Reporting

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23
Q

If problems attributable to a carrier are found during a receiving inspection, who
should you notify immediately about the discrepancies?

A

Transportation officer or the transportation management office (TMO).

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24
Q

What is the role of munitions inspectors for processing a transportation discrepancy
report (TDR)?

A

To assist TMO in identifying the information required to complete the transportation discrepancy report

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25
Q

What form is used to report transportation discrepancies and is used to notify or
confirm notification to carriers of problems with a shipment?

A

DD Form 361, Transportation Discrepancy Report (TDR).

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26
Q

Which report is used to identify problems attributable to the manufacturer of
munitions/military weapon systems?

A

Product quality deficiency report (PQDR)

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27
Q

What TO identifies the proper marking requirements for inert and empty items?

A

TO 11A–1–53.

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28
Q

What are the general principles of an inert munitions item?

A

A munitions item or component whose explosive material has been replaced by an inert material.

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29
Q

What indicates a munitions item as practice?

A

Painted light blue, or a light blue band.

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30
Q

What are the general principles of an empty munitions item?

A

Munition items that have had their explosive material completely removed or left out during the time of manufacture, and
not replaced by other materials.

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31
Q

What types of items are required to have holes drilled in the area that contained
explosive material?

A

All components stocklisted as explosive which have had their explosive material removed for training, display, or research and
development.

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32
Q

In what TO can you find procedures for inspecting empty containers?

A

TO 11A–1–60.

33
Q

What three areas must a person be knowledgeable of to inspect for munitions residue?

A

(1) The precious metals recovery program, (2) disposal of classified material, and (3) demilitarization requirements and
procedures.

34
Q

Describe what is meant by munitions residue?

A

Material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning or
demilitarization.

35
Q

What must be done to munitions residue items previously inspected if the container’s seals show evidence of tampering?

A

Such a finding requires re-inspection and re-certification.

36
Q

Where are certificates of clearance placed for empty containers once required
inspections are completed?

A

Individual containers destined for depots, re-use, or if the disposition is
undetermined, must have a certificate of clearance inside each container and as part of
the turn-in/shipment paperwork. Containers destined for DLADS only require a
certificate of clearance as part of the turn-in/shipment paperwork.

37
Q

What is the mode of choice for shipping munitions overseas?

A

ISO container by water vessel/ship.

38
Q

During an initial inspection of an inbound shipment what do you inspect first?

A

The seals.

39
Q

What must the in-checker do if the received quantity, lot number or NSN is different
from the shipping document?

A

Circle the erroneous information on the document, enter correct information, and initial the changes

40
Q

If any transport vehicle is found or suspected to be in a hazardous condition
attributable to other than normal circumstances what action must be taken?

A

The vehicle is moved to a “suspect vehicle’ holding area, unless it is more hazardous to move the vehicle.

41
Q

What is the governing directive for munitions shipments by military air?

A

AFMAN 24–604

42
Q

What TO provide guidance on blocking and bracing munitions for over-the-road
travel?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1.

43
Q

Who regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?

A

The Federal Aviation Administration.

44
Q

Who regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by
water in commercial common carrier vessels?

A

The US Coast Guard

45
Q

Where can you find the criteria for inspecting the ISO container?

A

MIL-STD 3037, Inspection Criteria for International Organization for Standardization (ISO) Containers and Department
of Defense Standard Family of ISO Shelters.

46
Q

What is the purpose of POP?

A

To keep the hazardous materials inside the container and away from people and the environment

47
Q

In regards to UN specification POP requirements, what items are exempt under the
grandfather clause?

A

Government owned goods packaged before 1 January 1990

48
Q

What gives you detailed instructions on how a specific item is packed and marked for
transportation?

A

The special packaging instruction (SPI)

49
Q

Which two TO can assist with general marking requirements for munitions item
containers?

A

The item TO and TO 11A–1–10

50
Q

What automated source can be used to verify the proper shipping name for a
munitions item?

A

Joint Hazard Classification System (JHCS).

51
Q

What is the main purpose for a shipping inspection?

A

To ensure that the munitions prepared for shipment are the same as reflected on the shipping documents.

52
Q

Who issues competent authority approval?

A

Ogden-Air Logistics Center (OO-ALC).

53
Q

When would a certification of equivalency be issued?

A

When packaging does not meet CFR 49 requirements, but certifies that packaging meets or exceeds standards to keep asset safe

54
Q

When we enclose shipping documents in the number one container of the shipment
what must you mark the container with?

A

“DOCUMENTS ENCLOSED.”

55
Q

What is the definition of a munitions storage magazine?

A

Any building or structure, except an operating building, used for the storage of explosives.

56
Q

What are the two general types of munitions storage magazines?

A

(1) Earth covered and (2) above ground.

57
Q

What are the major differences between 7-bar, 3-bar, and undefined earth-covered
magazines (ECMs)?

A

7-Bar ECM—ECMs are those igloos meeting the requirements of an approved definitive drawing or originally sited and approved, regardless of construction
details. A 7-Bar ECM provides the highest level of asset protection and permits the use of the least restrictive separation distances. 3-Bar ECM—The headwall
and doors of a 3-Bar ECM are not structurally as strong as those of a 7-Bar ECM but are stronger than an undefined ECMs. As a result, a 3-Bar ECM
separation distances are generally more restrictive than to a 7-Bar ECM, but not as restrictive as to an undefined ECM. Undefined ECM—An undefined ECM
is the weakest of the three ECM design types. A magazine placed in this category is either known to be a weak structure or there is insufficient information
available to prove that it provides greater than “Undefined” protection. As a result, the undefined ECM generally requires the application of the greatest
separation distances

58
Q

What is the most common type of munitions storage structure?

A

Arch-type igloo.

59
Q

What device ensures the ventilator flap doors close when temperatures reach a
maximum of 155 to 165 °F?

A

A fusible link.

60
Q

A firebreak of how many feet is required around 6 ECM ventilators?

A

5 feet.

61
Q

What is the ideal and most secure way of installing a hasp on a munitions facility?

A

Welding.

62
Q

To keep locks operating properly, how often should they be opened and closed?

A

Once a month.

63
Q

What is the source document for explosives capacities and controls for your facilities?

A

The explosive site plan

64
Q

What is QD?

A

Refers to the amount (quantity) of explosive material and the distances allowed between them and other
facilities, roads, runways, buildings, and so forth, for given degrees of protection

65
Q

What are quantity-distance (QD) principles based on?

A

The construction and type of PES; the explosives content of the PES; the construction and type of ES; the
distance separating the PES from the ES; and orientation of the PES and the ES in the case of igloos and modules.

66
Q

List instances when you would apply intraline distance (ILD) involving an explosives
location.

A

Explosives operating buildings from explosives storage locations.
Activities that directly support the explosives operation or area.

67
Q

What is inhabited building distance (IBD)?

A

The minimum allowable distance between a non-related inhabited building and an explosives location.

68
Q

What type of barricade also known as an “Armco revetment”, can be temporarily positioned on the flightline for separating munitions?

A

The earth filled, steel bin barricade.

69
Q

What is the main reason for posting fire and chemical warning signs?

A

To caution and inform anyone who may have a need to enter the area, building, or room with munitions
present.

70
Q

If more than one fire symbol applies, which one should you use?

A

The symbol that applies to the most hazardous munitions in the facility.

71
Q

When would you attempt to fight a fire with fire symbol 1 assets involved?

A

Only when rescue attempt is planned, or if there is suitable separation to symbol 1 materials and fire chief
approves. Stop fighting fire immediately once personal safety is threatened.

72
Q

Name one reason the backing of fire symbols is required to be made of a
noncombustible material having the same design as the symbol.

A

In case the number burns off in a fire, the backing showing the shape of the symbol will provide the response
forces with the information needed to determine the hazards involved

73
Q

According to DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201, what exception will be made with
storing special weapons or nuclear munitions?

A

Warning symbols will not be posted.

74
Q

Where is the basic guidance for creating storage locations identified?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1

75
Q

What identifies the standard location designator for munitions?

A

An 11 digit alphanumeric system

76
Q

When are munitions items considered compatible?

A

If they may be stored or transported together without significantly increasing either the probability of a mishap or,
for given quantity, the magnitude of the effects for such a mishap.

77
Q

How many “lite” boxes are allowed in one storage location?

A

Only one per stock number, lot number, per condition code, per storage location.

78
Q

For what purpose was buffered storage designed and tested?

A

To increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos, without increasing QD separation requirements.

24E6 (5 decks)

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