Module 20 - Inflation and Unemployment Flashcards
It can be inferred that
I. average output per worker decreased between Year t and Year t +1.
II. prices rose on average by about 2 per cent between Year t and Year t +1.
III. the capital stock decreased between Year t and Year t +1.
Which of the following is correct?
A. II only.
B. II and III only.
C. I and III only.
D. I, II and III.
The correct answer is B. Since real GNP increased by 4 per cent between Year t and Year t +1 and since the labour force only increased by 3 per cent, average output per worker must have increased. Since money GNP rose by 6 per cent and real output by only 4 per cent, prices must have risen by about 2 per cent. Since the labour force grew by 3 per cent but potential output remained constant, the capital stock must have decreased.
Which of the following explains why considerable unemployment can exist in a market economy?
A. At full employment, national income is not always sufficient to purchase all output produced.
B. Many product and factor prices respond very slowly when supply exceeds demand.
C. The rate of productivity growth is not always great enough to permit sufficient growth of actual output.
D. The growth of productive capacity always outstrips the growth of consumers’ wants.
The correct answer is B. Other things being equal, the lower the price of a good or resource, the larger will be the quantity demanded. Thus, if prices were completely flexible and responded quickly to situations of excess demand and excess supply, all markets – including the labour market – would clear. Therefore full employment would always exist. In the real world, many markets are ‘sticky’, i.e. respond slowly to excess demand/supply. By definition, national income equals national output; the rate of productivity increase determines potential, not actual, output; to date no nation has sufficient resources to satisfy all of its citizens’ wants.
The Chancellor of the Exchequer wishes to use fiscal policy to control aggregate demand and also wishes to reduce the public sector as a proportion of GNP. In the event of a recession, which of the following would be an appropriate policy to adopt?
A. Reduce the level of taxation.
B. Increase transfer payments.
C. Increase government spending on goods and services.
D. Leave both the tax structure and government spending unchanged.
The correct answer is A. Increasing transfer payments and increasing government expenditure on goods and services, while both stimulatory, would increase the relative size of the public sector. Leaving the tax structure and government expendi- ture at their existing levels would not help cure a recession. Only a reduction in the level of taxation would meet both goals, i.e. increasing GNP but reducing the fractions G/GNP and T/GNP.
The following policies would be appropriate to help reduce inflationary pressures in an economy:
I. lengthening the repayment period on consumer loans. II. increasing the down-payment requirement on the purchase of consumer durables.
III. selling securities by the central bank. Which of the following is correct?
A. I and II only.
B. II only.
C. II and III only.
D. III only.
The correct answer is C. Longer repayment periods would increase the demand for consumer durables and consequently increase inflationary pressures. Thus option I is incorrect. Increasing down-payment requirements would reduce the demand for consumer durables. Selling securities by the central bank would reduce the cash reserves of the commercial banks and would therefore result in a contraction of the money supply. Thus both options II and III would reduce inflationary pressures.
Faced with an inflationary gap, the government decides to increase the money supply.
They argue that this would lower interest rates, which in turn would stimulate investment, increase potential GNP, and consequently decrease the inflationary gap. The likely outcome of such a policy would be
I. as predicted by the government in the long run.
II. to worsen the inflationary gap in the short run. Which of the following is correct?
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
The correct answer is C. An increase in potential GNP requires an increase in the labour force, the capital stock, or technological progress. The lowering of interest rates could achieve an increase in investment expenditure and an increase in potential GNP, but this is a long-run strategy because, in the short run, an increase in investment expenditure adds only negligibly to the existing capital stock. An increase in investment expenditure leads to an increase in aggregate demand; given the economy is at over-full employment already, this will lead to even greater inflationary pressures.
An inflationary gap exists; which of the following would tend to decrease that gap?
A. An increase in investment expenditures caused by optimistic forecasts regarding the world economy.
B. An increase in savings.
C. Increased orders for our trucks and buses abroad.
D. An increase in our defence commitments to NATO.
The correct answer is B. Inflationary pressures would be increased by any factor that increases aggregate demand. An increase in investment expenditure, an increase in exports, or an increase in government expenditure, would each increase aggregate demand and consequently the inflationary gap. However, an increase in savings results in a decrease in consumption expenditures, which would reduce aggregate demand and the inflationary gap.
Optimistic forecasts concerning world trade have boosted business confidence, with the result that private investment is expected to increase next year. Without any policy changes, the outcome of the increase in investment must be
I. a decrease in consumption expenditures.
II. an increase in imports.
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
The correct answer is D. Holding the money supply constant, an increase in investment expenditure will increase the demand for money and, given no offsetting decrease in the demand for money by households or government, increase interest rates. The increase in investment expenditure will stimulate the economy, and the increase in interest rates will reduce aggregate demand. Since opposing forces will exist, it is not possible to predict whether consumption expenditure will increase, remain constant, or decrease. Likewise it is not possible to predict what will happen to imports.
If an economy were at full employment prior to, during, and after a period of unanticipated inflation, the impact of that inflation would have been to do which of the
following:
A. increase unemployment.
B. redistribute income.
C. decrease the average price level.
D. increase potential GNP.
The correct answer is B. Loans are normally made at some negotiated interest rate. When borrowed money is returned, its value will be inversely related to the inflation rate during the loan period; thus unanticipated inflation will benefit borrowers at the expense of lenders, since the negotiated interest rate will not take the unanticipated inflation into account. Thus income will be redistributed. Since the economy is at full employment, there will be no increase in unemployment but the average price level will have risen. No information is given regarding potential output.
An economy that was recently operating at full employment with a high rate of inflation has been severely deflated by substantial increases in tax rates and cuts in government expenditure. However, although unemployment is now much higher than before, inflation has not decreased. The factors that could account for this are
I. some goods and factor markets do not respond immediately to changes in demand and supply.
II. the policies have generated demand–pull inflation.
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
The correct answer is A. As increasing tax rates and reducing government expenditure must lower aggregate demand, option II is incorrect. Option I could account for the failure of prices to respond immediately to the deflationary policies adopted, as it may take time to modify expectations and behaviour.
If the goal of a government is to reduce the inflationary gap, the appropriate policy is
A. increase the money supply to stimulate investment.
B. increase the money supply to stimulate private saving.
C. decrease the money supply to increase interest rates.
D. decrease the money supply to decrease interest rates.
The correct answer is C. To reduce an inflationary gap requires a deflationary policy. An increase in the money supply is expansionary. A decrease in the money supply would cause interest rates to rise, investment and consumption expenditures to fall, and thus reduce aggregate demand and inflationary pressures.
Faced with a deflationary gap, the British government adopts a policy of lower tax rates and an increase in the money supply. The following unanticipated changes then occur:
I. an increase in tariffs in the US and Japan.
II. an increase in the marginal propensity to consume.
Those unanticipated changes helped the government solve the deflationary gap problem. Which of the following is correct?
A. I only.
B. II only.
C. Both I and II.
D. Neither I nor II.
The correct answer is B. To assist the government in decreasing the gap between actual and potential output, unanticipated changes would have to exert some positive influence on aggregate demand. An increase in foreign tariffs would reduce the demand for exports, hence reducing aggregate demand. An increase in the marginal propensity to consume would increase consumption expenditures, hence increasing aggregate demand.
For an economy operating at full employment, the imposition of domestic tariffs and quotas is expected to reduce imports by 50 per cent next year. Which of the following is the appropriate policy for the government to adopt in order to maintain equality between potential and actual output in light of the decrease in imports?
A. Increase in government expenditure.
B. Decrease in taxes.
C. Decrease in the money supply.
D. Subsidy to exporters.
The correct answer is C. Since expenditure on imports is a leakage from the circular flow of income, the effect of the tariffs and quotas will be to increase aggregate demand and hence cause Y to exceed Q. An increase in government expenditure would add further to aggregate demand, as would a decrease in taxes and a subsidy to exporters, thus increasing the inflationary gap. A decrease in the money supply, given the increase in the transactions demand for money resulting from the higher level of aggregate demand caused by the reduction in imports, would lead to higher interest rates and, consequently, lower investment expenditure by firms and lower consumption expenditure by households.
Which of the following explains why the Phillips Curve was hailed by Keynesian economists as the ‘missing link’ in their model?
It purported to show the
A. unemployment rate for a given level of national income
B. inflation rate for a given unemployment rate
C. inflation rate for a given money supply
D. unemployment rate associated with the equilibrium interest rate
The correct answer is B. While Monetarists argue that the price level is a function of the money supply Keynesians, prior to Phillips, could not explain what caused the price level to change. They had identified that the unemployment rate over and above frictional and structural elements was a function of the gap between potential and actual output. The Phillips Curve purported to show a fixed relationship between the unemployment rate and the inflation rate.
Monetarists argue that
I. if market forces are allowed to operate, an equilibrium level of national income will emerge but it will not be the full employment level.
II. money determines the price level but not the employment or national income levels.
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is B. Monetarists believed that strong equilibriating forces exist in market economies and only the interference of government prevented market clearing price and quantities being achieved. They would argue, for instance, that full employment national income would result through market forces. Thus I is wrong. The Quantity Theory, MV = PT, with V constant and T proportional to national income meant P was a function of M; M had no direct influence on T. Thus II is true.
Policy makers believe zero/low inflation should be a policy goal for economic efficiency reasons. Inflation they argue
I. impairs the efficiency of the price mechanism
II. ‘penalises’ people on fixed incomes, specifically the old and the poor
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is A. Inflation raises the costs of buying and selling because money becomes less reliable as a standard value and as a consequence affects the efficiency of the price mechanism. Thus I is true. Many people on fixed incomes e.g. social security recipients and others with little/no bargaining power and/or not involved in the labour market will experience a loss in real income if nominal income is constant and prices of goods and services are increasing. This however is an issue of economic equity and not economic efficiency. Thus II is wrong.
In the demand–pull model of price inflation
I. organised labour pulls up wages/salaries
II. large companies increase prices of goods and services in response to increased wages/salaries
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is D. When aggregate demand exceeds potential output the excess demand causes prices of goods and services to rise. Simultaneously excess demand in factor markets ‘pulls up’ wages and salaries. Thus demand pull inflation as the name suggests is caused by excess demand pulling up prices. Thus both I and II are wrong.
Which of the following contains Keynes’s cure for demand pull inflation?
A. Decrease the money supply
B. Raise interest rates
C. Increase banks reserve requirements
D. Decrease government expenditure/raise income taxes
The correct answer is D. The cause of demand pull inflation according to Keynes was excess demand pulling up prices, i.e. aggregate demand in excess of potential output. The cure was to reduce aggregate demand by either raising taxes or reducing government expenditure. Monetary tools played no part in either the cause or cure of demand pull inflation. Thus A, B and C are wrong.
In the cost push explanation of inflation, price rises
I. originate in collective bargaining in labour markets
II. in factor markets are passed on in administered higher prices of goods and services
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is C. In the cost push model bargaining determines money wages and salaries; business firms find that labour costs have risen and pass on these higher costs by marking up the prices of goods and services. Thus both I and II are true.
Comparing the demand pull model with the cost push model only in the latter will
i. wage rates rise in industries where unemployment rates also are rising
II. wage rate increases lead to increases in the prices of goods and services
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is C. In the cost push model linkage effects are prominent. Equity and justice are often cited in wage demands and the desire to keep existing wage structure and salary differentials can lead to wage increases, granted in strongly unionised sectors, being imitated in sectors where employment opportunities may be decreasing. Thus I is true. In the demand pull model excess demand in goods markets leads to price increases and excess demand in factor markets leads to wage increases. In the cost push model however firms will attempt to pass on cost increases in the form of higher prices. Thus II is true.
Given a high employment rate a government decided to increase the money supply by 20%. The inflation rate increased from 4% to 10% within a year as predicted by leading economists and the business community.
Two newspapers had predicted what would happen to the inflation rate according to their expectations, static and rational. Which of the following contains the predictions of the newspapers.
A. Static = 0, Rational = 10
B. Static = 4, Rational = 0
C. Static = 20, Rational = 0
D. Static = 4, Rational = 10
The correct answer is D. Static expectations means tomorrow will be like today thus the static would be today’s inflation rate of 4%. Rational expectations assumes everyone has the same information and if all economists and the business community using such information expect 10% then so will the ‘rational expectations’ newspaper.
Cost push inflation would be higher than it otherwise would have been if the prices of imported goods increase and
I. the demand for imported goods became price inelastic
II. the demand for imported goods became income inelastic
III. inflationary expectation which had been adaptive became static
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III
The correct answer is B. If the demand for imported goods were inelastic with respect to price and/or income then a rise in the prices of imported goods and/or a fall in income will be reflected in higher inflation rates, i.e. the imported goods now more expensive will continue to be bought. Thus I and II are true. If inflationary expectations are static people will assume next year’s inflation rate will equal this year’s, i.e. it will not increase. Thus III is wrong.
The Efficient Market Hypothesis which argues that markets utilise all information to produce prices which reflect equilibrium incorporates which of the following assumptions?
A. Expectations are adaptive
B. Expectations are infinite
C. Expectations are rational
D. Expectations are static
The correct answer is C. This is a definitional question.
Which of the following explains why the ‘discovery’ of the Phillips Curve posed a painful problem for policy makers?
It forced policy makers to choose between
A. monetary and fiscal policy
B. deflation and inflation
C. inflation and unemployment
D. price stability and economic growth
The correct answer is C. The Phillips Curve purported to show a fixed relationship between the unemployment and the inflation rate posing a trade off. If policy makers enacted policies to lower the rate of unemployment the cost to be borne was a higher inflation rate.
Keynesians argued that
I. market forces would clear labour markets in both the short and long run
II. the only cure for severe recessions was sufficient increases in the money supply to reduce interest rates to encourage consumption/investment expenditure
Which of the following is correct?
A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
The correct answer is D. Keynes believed that in the presence of unemployment employers would not reduce wages to clear labour markets; wages were ‘sticky’ downwards. Thus I is wrong. Keynes used the concept of the liquidity trap to explain the inefficiency of monetary policy in a recession; i.e. at low interest rates with high rates of unemployment and unused capital equipment increases in the money supply would be held in idle cash balances and would not stimulate expenditure. Thus II is wrong.