Module 2: Management of Organizations Flashcards

1
Q

Everything we do in this module is about…

A

Getting high job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Currently, the population is ___, but the labor force is ___.

(Potential Answers: increasing, decreasing)

A

increasing, decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List the biggest losers. (5)

A
  • Computer programmers
  • Production workers
  • Farmers
  • Manual laborers
  • Unskilled service workers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why are computer programmers one of the biggest losers?

A

They can be outsourced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Computerization of work can put around __% of U.S. jobs at risk of elimination.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What jobs are in peril at the hands of computerization?

A

Fixed, middle-skill, routine, repetitive jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What jobs are safe from computerization?

A

Jobs in non-static environments that involve judgment, flexibility, creativity, social intelligence and abstract thinking; manual labor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What jobs can be remedied with computerization?

A

Education, re-training, skill development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three workforce generations?

A

Baby Boomers, Baby Busters, Baby Boomlets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tell me about the Baby Boomers.

A

(b. 1946-1964), 53-71 years - Broad experience, loyal, health issues, old school, less flexible, less mobile, less tech savvy, homogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tell me about the Baby Busters.

A

(b. 1965-1983), 34-52 years - Experienced, independent, latch-key past, self-directed, tech savvy (first learned about tech and integrated tech into their lives as they were growing up), wealth-oriented, heterogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tell me about the Baby Boomlets.

A

(b. 1984-2002), 15-33 years - Inexperienced, low commitment, self-directed, tech dominant, independent, interest-oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In terms of age, the workforce is…

A

Getting older. (Median age is increasing.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some concerns about the workforce getting older?

A

• There’s an 11 million person gap between the Boomers and the Busters. That’s 11 million jobs that may not be filled, because there aren’t enough Busters to fill those jobs.
• Boomlets are more numerous than the Busters – there’s some comeback, but not to the degree it needs to be to reach the Boomers.
→ Too few workers are coming into the workforce!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In terms of diversity, the workforce is…

A

Becoming increasingly racially and ethnically diverse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some trends of increasing workforce diversity?

A
  • Overtime, the white population is declining, African-American is remaining constant, and Latinx and Asian populations are rapidly growing.
  • Our workforce is increasingly Asian and Hispanic.
  • California has the most diverse workforce population.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can increasing workforce diversity make management difficult?

A

More complex management. It’s hard to accommodate for everyone’s religious and ethnic traditions.

(For example, there is a cultural group that requires men to wear a ceremonial sword everyday. They are required to wear a deadly weapon. Companies have a policy that you cannot bring a deadly weapon to work. How do you resolve that?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In terms of education, the workforce is becoming…

A

Less well-educated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the implication of a less well-educated workforce?

A

High school graduation rates are declining. Implication: 90% of all jobs in the U.S. require a high school degree. So that segment of the workforce is excluded from 90% of all jobs. There’s not a lot of jobs they can do!
→ We are left with an underskilled workforce and a widening skill gap (more skilled jobs, fewer skilled workers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

More jobs are available that require ___; fewer jobs are available for ___ workers.

(Potential answers: skill, unskilled)

A

Skills, unskilled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At any given moment, ___ million jobs remain unfilled, because they cannot find the talent to do the work.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Many of the jobs that require just a high school education or less are projected to be eliminated by ___.

A

Computerization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

___% of all jobs in the U.S. require a high school degree.

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

__% of high school graduates cannot read at an 8th grade level.

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List the occupations most vulnerable to offshoring.

A
  • Computer programmers ($72,000
  • Actuaries ($95,000)
  • Computer and information scientists ($100,000)
  • Mathematicians ($90,000)

HB-1 visas limited to 85,000 workers total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 5 implications that current business trends have?

A
  • Job vacancies in areas we can least afford.
  • Greater need for cultural awareness and ways of managing diverse cultures sensitively.
  • Growing segment of US workforce that cannot qualify for higher paying jobs.
  • Increasingly difficult to retain talented people in a company.
  • Greater competition for skilled workers globally.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 4 solutions to overcoming current business trend implications?

A
  1. Develop talent from within – increase the overall skill level of the workforce.
  2. Manage employees’ performance to maximize the talent we have – we cannot afford to throw away talent!
  3. Increase satisfaction of workers to build loyalty and commitment – people who are dissatisfied leave.
  4. Utilize talent wherever it is found! If you are rejecting people because they are unfamiliar, you are throwing away talent. You need to be blind to the way a person looks. You need to recognize what talent they bring and not what package they come in.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most often, people who are most likely to leave are your ___ ___.

A

High performers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why are high performers at risk of leaving?

A

High performers always have a place to go. Low performers don’t get offered jobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the seven fundamental building blocks of an effective organization.

A
  1. Mission
  2. Business Goals
  3. Business Strategy
  4. Organizational Culture
  5. Management Processes
  6. Organizational Structure
  7. Leadership
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define “mission.”

A

Company’s purpose and how it will achieve its purpose. People need to be able to identify to the mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define “business goals.”

A

The company’s performance targets – how it measures success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define “business strategy.”

A

Overarching plans and programs that outline how the company will meet its goals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define “organizational culture.”

A

Norms and values that guide how employees behave in the company. Social direction in what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define “management processes.”

A

Coordinated actions of the management team to best utilize resource.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List and describe the four management processes.

A
  1. Planning: Determining what is best to do and how best to get it done
  2. Organizing: Determining how best to arrange an organization’s resources and activities
  3. Directing/Leading: Guiding and motivating employees to meet objectives
  4. Controlling: Monitoring performance to ensure goals are being met
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does SWOT stand for?

A

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the steps to formulate a strategy?

A

Set strategic goals → Analyze organization and analyze environment → Match the organizations and its environment → Formulate strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does an environmental analysis look at in the fast food industry? (This is an external look.)

A
  • Social Trends: Healthy eating?
  • Consumer food preferences
  • General economy and how much money people have to spend
  • Availability of labor willing to work for minimum wage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What does an organization analysis look at? (This is an internal look.)

A
  • How many employees have the skills to perform the job well
  • How many managers quit annually creating vacancies in store management
  • How resistant managers are to organizational change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is in McDonald’s “plan to win” (5 P’s)?

A

People, Products, Place, Price, Promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is in In-N-Out’s “plan to win” (2 pillars)?

A
  • Fresh, best-tasting products

* Loyal, highly-effective management and staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What structure would you need to successfully run an ice cream company? (7)

A
  • Stores
  • Ice cream making
  • Ice cream distribution
  • Securing supplies to make the ice cream
  • Hiring and managing the people
  • Getting customers into the stores
  • Keeping track of the money
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the chain of command?

A

Who reports to whom, graphically depicted as an organization chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does specialization tell you?

A

How narrowly you want to focus a person’s job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When you want an employee to have a high focus on particular things, you narrow the number of tasks you ask this person to perform. Is this high specialization or low specialization?

A

High specialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When you want an employee to have a broad focus on a wide range of things, you increase the number of tasks you ask this person to perform. Is this high specialization or low specialization?

A

Low specialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What kind of specialization do you see in start-ups?

A

Very little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What kind of specialization do you see in mature companies?

A

Highly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What kind of specialization do you sometimes see in lower-level employees?

A

Overspecialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How do you balance specialization?

A

You have to decide how much specialization you can afford (how many people you can hire to focus on a small number of things) and at what breadth of focus (narrow vs. broad) best executes your strategy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is departmentalization?

A

How jobs are grouped into logical units. Units are supervised by the same leader/manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the advantage and disadvantage of departmentalization?

A

Advantage: Grouping jobs together creates internal coordination and facilitates communication.

Disadvantage: Separating jobs increases communication and coordination problems because of a “silo” mentality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is silo mentality?

A

People only think about issues and concerns that are most relevant to their own group and ignore or dismiss issues and concerns of people outside their group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How should you departmentalize?

A

You departmentalize depending on what aspect of your business you want to maximize. You group together jobs that need to communicate and coordinate effectively in order to get the results you desire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Structure follows…

A

strategy!

Given a business strategy, you should structure the organization in a way that enables strategy execution to be most successful.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ben & Jerry’s is a great example of an effective organization because of its ___, and most importantly, its ___.

A

people, continuous change in company structure to match changes it makes in business strategy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is important to remember about the evolution of Ben and Jerry’s from a small ice cream start-up in an abandoned gas station to a global distribution and sales company?

A

The company is more than an ice cream company now. It actively promotes social change and conservation through its packaging and messaging to the public. It also has a philanthropic division (the Foundation) where it can make direct grants to people to do projects that promote social change and conservation.

Ben and Jerry’s got to this point with one structural change after another and one leader pushing change after another. en and Jerry made decisions carefully and chose leaders and staff that put the right people in the right places doing the right things.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Former President Bush created the Department of Homeland Security by combining over 60 federal agencies related to national security and intelligence. What was this action meant to do?

A

Prevent terror attacks by sharing critical information across agencies within the DHS (which they failed to do prior to 9/11) and by coordinating action across agencies to respond more quickly and effectively to national threats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Former President Bush created the Department of Homeland Security by combining over 60 federal agencies related to national security and intelligence. What were the problems that this action posed? (3)

A
  1. The different agencies had never worked together previously on anything so they didn’t know how to. In fact, for decades they were discouraged and even prevented from talking and working with each other.
  2. Under the DHS they were focused on fighting terrorism, not all threats including natural disasters.
  3. Leaders of these agencies did not necessarily have the background and experience to run their agencies effectively—they were political appointees and didn’t have the training to know how to build effective responses to threats.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Political appointees who didn’t have adequate training to confront Hurricane Katrina included…

A
  1. Secretary of DHS, Michael Chertoff

2. Director or FEMA, Michael Brown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the DHS look like now?

A

There are some major organizational changes. A few agencies and parts of other agencies were pulled out of DHS and are operating independently. This simplified the number of agencies directed by DHS, but the Department is still very large, and members of DHS are still learning how to work together under the same leadership of the Secretary of DHS.

Despite these improvements, we still saw problems with emergency response from the Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) (part of DHS). Two hurricanes this year brought deaths and misery for residents of Houston and other parts of Texas, and for residents of Puerto Rico, a U.S. Territory. The FEMA response was slow to Houston, and it was monumentally deficient for Puerto Rico.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does decision-making question?

A

Who has authority and how tightly controlled should work activities be?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is centralized decision-making?

A

Concentrated authority among a small number of people, usually located at the top of the organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is decentralized decision-making?

A

Authority distributed down the organizational hierarchy and out into the field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When a company can afford or wants to customize products and services locally, what kind of decision-making is a good idea?

A

Decentralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is an advantage of centralized decision-making?

A

Ensures that everyone in the organization follows the same policies, procedures, and processes. This is critical for companies that need standardization throughout the organization for purposes of production quality, business execution and legal compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A tall organization is one that has…

A

many layers of authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the relationship between tall organizations and change?

A

Tall organizations impede change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the relationship between flat organizations and change?

A

Flat organizations can change relatively quickly because of the absence of management layers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are flat organizations good for?

A

Companies that have to change with a rapidly changing marketplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are tall organizations good for?

A

Companies that emphasize quality, speed of service, and standardization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is important for leadership to keep in mind?

A

What is important here is leadership’s understanding of their role in creating a vision and setting the direction for the company. Perhaps more important is leadership’s understanding of their role in identifying when the company needs to change – maybe something in the market or environment has changed which impedes their success.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

So many things affect employee motivation such as whether someone feels intellectually challenged, whether he/she feels underpaid, or sometimes it’s just the weather. The point is, motivation ___.

A

changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Job performance is a function of…

Hint: the performance equation

A

Ability times Motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the performance equation indicate?

A

Both ability and motivation must be high in order to get high performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is turnover?

A

Employees quit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is absenteeism?

A

Employees stop coming to work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

If job satisfaction is low, what decreases and increases?

A

Decrease: Job performance
Increase: Turnover and absenteeism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Increasing job satisfaction does not increase ___ ___.

A

Job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the secret behind motivating high performance?

A

Employees will work harder in order to receive satisfaction. But increasing job satisfaction will not increase job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Employees will work hard in order to receive ___.

A

Satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Theories that focus on “rewards” have one thing in common. What is it?

A

People are motivated to perform highly on the job when they receive valued rewards AFTER PERFORMANCE. When people perform highly, they receive something they value. Therefore, people will work to receive valued outcomes.

84
Q

Theories that focus on “needs” have one thing in common. What is it?

A

Needs drive human behavior, and if people can fulfill their needs by performing at high levels, they will do so. Therefore, people will work to satisfy their needs.

85
Q

Theories that focus on “intrinsic motivators” have one thing in common. What is it?

A

The job itself or the act of doing the work has motivating properties.

86
Q

Define Theory Y (intrinsic motivation).

A

As long as job features don’t get in their way of doing the job (excessive rules, bureaucracy, poor articulation of what work has to be done), people are motivated to work hard because the act of working is satisfying.

87
Q

Define the Two-Factor Theory (intrinsic motivation).

A

“Motivators” present in the job stimulate hard work–these are aspects of the job that bring people intrinsic satisfaction. Motivators are qualities of the job such as opportunity for achievement, recognition for work performed, the work is intrinsically interesting, responsibility, and opportunity for advancement and growth.

The other factor, “hygiene factors,” are like housekeeping: as long as they are high enough to not cause dissatisfaction, they allow the opportunity for “motivators” to motivate workers. These hygiene factors are things like quality of supervisors, working conditions, interpersonal relations, pay and security, and company policies. Do you see how they are factors that are outside of the job itself?

Note that PAY IS NOT A MOTIVATOR. That is because pay is outside (extrinsic) of the job itself and therefore is not a component of the work itself. With this theory, the work/job itself becomes motivating by doing it.

88
Q

Define the participative management/empowerment theory (intrinsic motivation).

A

Focuses on employees having a say in determining how they will get their work done, and this gives them a sense of ownership of the work. Ownership is a motivating aspect of performance because of their autonomy and increased level of responsibility.

89
Q

Define the job enrichment/job redesign theory (intrinsic motivation).

A

Focuses on the motivating aspects of the work itself by making the job more interesting and important. Employees will be motivated to work hard because the work itself is self-satisfying.

90
Q

What are the four theories for high job performance based on intrinsic motivation?

A
  1. Theory Y
  2. Two-Factor Theory
  3. Participative management/empowerment
  4. Job enrichment/job design
91
Q

What is morale?

A

Overall attitude toward work.

92
Q

High job satisfaction and high morale lead to… (2 things)

A

employee retention and commitment!

93
Q

What is work motivation?

A

The set of forces that cause people to want to increase their performance.

94
Q

What are the four types of work motivation?

A
  1. Rewards
  2. Attention
  3. Needs Satisfaction
  4. Intrinsic Motivation
95
Q

What are the five theories of rewards motivation?

A
  1. Classical Theory
  2. Theory X
  3. Expectancy Theory
  4. Behavior Modification Theory
  5. Management by Objectives
96
Q

Define Classical Theory.

A

Employees will work for money; if they can get more money by producing more, they will produce more. Scientific Management made production easier by simplifying jobs.

97
Q

Define Theory X.

A

Employees will work to receive rewards and to avoid punishments. Job behavior must be closely supervised and managed.

98
Q

Define Expectancy Theory.

A

Employees will work towards rewards they believe they will receive through their efforts.

99
Q

Define Behavior Modification Theory.

A

Employees will continue high performance if it is rewarded. They discontinue high performance when it is not rewarded.

100
Q

Define Management by Objectives.

A

Employees will work to achieve goals set jointly with their managers. Goal achievement and the rewards associated with it motivate performance.

101
Q

Define Early Behavioral Theory.

A

Employees will work hard because of the special attention they receive from management.

102
Q

Describe the Hawthorne Effect.

A

Individuals modify an aspect o their behavior in response to their awareness of being observed and feeling special

103
Q

Describe Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.

A

Employees will work to try to satisfy their needs. Lower-level needs must be satisfied before higher-level needs become motivating.

104
Q

Define Equity Theory.

A

Employees will work if they receive fair treatment from managers. Fairness is determined by a comparison between employee’s I/O ratio vs. others’.

105
Q

Define Theory Y.

A

Employees will work if the job capitalizes on their natural tendencies to be energetic, growth oriented, self-motivated, productive.

106
Q

Define the Two-Factor Theory.

A

Employees will work if “motivators” are present in their job and “hygiene factors” are at acceptable levels.

107
Q

Define Participative Management/Empowerment.

A

Employees will work if they take responsibility for their own performance.

108
Q

Define Job Enrichment/Job Redesign.

A

Employees will work if their jobs have motivating characteristics (e.g., task variety, working in a team, contact with the customer).

109
Q

How do you determine which theory to employ?

A
  • What do you have available to use?
  • What would employees value most?
  • What will provide the most WIFM for the people you are trying to motivate?
110
Q

What does “WIFM” mean?

A

What’s in it for me?

111
Q

What are KSAs?

A

Knowledge, skills and abilities

112
Q

You will be tempted to hire people who are like you, people who appear highly motivated, or people who “fit” with the team. But before you select people on this basis, you first need to know…

A

whether the applicants have the underlying knowledge, skills and abilities (KSAs) to perform the job.

113
Q

The secret to effective selection (hiring) is…

A

prediction. You select people who have the highest predicted performance on the job.

114
Q

What are the keys to identifying the best hires?

A

KSAs

115
Q

People with the highest KSAs would be your ___ performers.

A

best

116
Q

Why can’t you select people on the basis of motivation?

A

Motivation is based on emotion and emotions change. Because motivation changes, you don’t know how motivated they will be when they actually are in the job.

117
Q

Selection starts with ___.

A

recruitment

118
Q

What is recruitment?

A

Looking for candidates who have the KSAs for the job and then attracting them to your organization.

119
Q

Before you know who you are looking for (to hire for a job), you need to know two things. What are they and how can you find them?

A
  1. What the job is (job description)
  2. What it takes to be successful in that job (job specifications)

You can find these things by conducting a job analysis.

120
Q

What are the three steps in staffing an organization?

A
  1. Recruitment - How to identify qualified candidates and get these people to apply?
  2. Assessment - How to evaluate candidates’ knowledge, skills and abilities?
  3. Selection - How to select the most qualified candidate?
121
Q

What is a job analysis?

A

The systematic study of the content of a job.

122
Q

What is a job description?

A

A description of the important and frequently performed tasks in a job.

123
Q

What are job specifications?

A

The knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA’s) that are necessary for performing the job successfully.

124
Q

A job analysis results in what two things?

A
  1. Job description

2. Job specifications

125
Q

List four job analysis methods.

A
  1. Observation
  2. Interviews
  3. Perform the job
  4. Critical incidents
126
Q

What are seven ways to evaluate applicants’ KSAs?

A
  • Resumes
  • Application blanks
  • Personality and interest tests
  • Honesty tests
  • Cognitive abilities tests
  • Work samples
  • Interviews
127
Q

When are resumes a good predictor of performance?

A

When they contain information about an applicant’s KSAs

128
Q

When are work samples a good predictor of performance?

A

When they simulate important parts of the job. You then have the opportunity to preview how people will perform on the job by looking at how well they perform a sample of it.

129
Q

When are interviews a good predictor of performance?

A

When they contain questions that allow the interviewer to evaluate a person’s KSAs.

130
Q

What are good interview questions?

A

Questions that ask candidates to describe things he or she has done in the past that are similar to what he or she will be doing in the job. This is similar to what a work sample does, but instead of seeing how an applicant actually “behaves” in a work sample, in the interview the applicant describes what he/she “would do” or “has done.”

131
Q

Why are finding the right interview questions sometimes challenging?

A

We naturally want to find out what a person is like rather than what they know and can do.

132
Q

What are the four laws that uphold equal employment opportunity?

A
  1. Civil Rights Act of 1964
  2. Age Discrimination in Employment Act
  3. Americans with Disabilities Act
  4. California Fair Employment and Housing Act
133
Q

What did the Civil Rights Act of 1964 do?

A

Made it illegal to fail or refuse to hire or to discharge an individual or to otherwise discriminate against any individual because of such individual’s race, color, religion, sex, or national origin

134
Q

What did the Age Discrimination in Employment Act do?

A

The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) forbids age discrimination against people who are age 40 or older. It does not protect workers under the age of 40, although some states have laws that protect younger workers from age discrimination.

135
Q

What did the Americans with Disabilities Act do?

A
  • A disability is a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits a major life activity.
  • Cannot reject a person from employment because of a disability.
  • All people (with disabilities) should be evaluated on the basis of their ability to perform the essential functions of the job.
  • Companies must provide reasonable accommodation
136
Q

What did the California Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA) do?

A

Employers must be “blind” to a person’s Age, Ancestry, Disability, Marital Status, Race, Sex, Religion, and Sexual Orientation

137
Q

Tell me about Griggs v. Duke Power.

A

Requires employers to promote and hire based on a person’s ability to perform the job, not an abstract evaluation of the person’s credentials. Forbids employers from using arbitrary tests—such as those for measuring IQ or literacy—to evaluate an employee or a potential employee, a practice that some companies used to express racial discrimination.

138
Q

Tell me Bakke vs. UC Regents.

A

Upheld affirmative action, allowing race to be one of several factors in college admission policy. However, specific racial quotas, such as the 16/100 seats set aside for minority students at UC Davis, were impermissible.

139
Q

What are the implications of employee protection laws?

A
  • Employers must be “blind” to sex, age, race, creed, color, national origin, religion, or disability status (and sexual orientation in CA) in employment decisions.
  • Law tells you what you can’t use, NOT what you SHOULD use.
  • Law doesn’t cover other characteristics that people use in a discriminatory manner
140
Q

What is affirmative action?

A

Affirmative Action, the Executive Order signed by President Johnson in the 1960’s, says that employers must take affirmative action to increase the representation of women and minorities in under-represented positions.

141
Q

What does affirmative action NOT mean?

A

This does NOT mean looking for women and minorities to hire or giving them any advantage over majorities. Rather, it means that you should select women and minorities when you have equally qualified job candidates for jobs in which they are under-represented.

142
Q

How do you perform affirmative action lawfully?

A

To practice affirmative action lawfully as an employer, you need to first identify the most qualified candidates on the basis of their KSAs, and then break the tie between the top candidates by selecting the under-represented candidate. NOTE, it would be unlawful to select a minority who is less qualified than a majority candidate or a less qualified female over a more qualified male. The two candidates would have to be equally qualified.

143
Q

When protected factors are used in employment decisions, it will result in an…

A

adverse impact.

144
Q

What is the example of an adverse impact?

A

Hooters only selects females as servers. In this situation, there is an adverse impact for males.

145
Q

When is an adverse impact bad, and when is it acceptable?

A

Adverse impact is bad if an employer cannot show that its selection practices (e.g., selection tests, work samples, employment interviews) are predictive of future job performance. When the employer can’t show this, then it means the employer discriminated against a protected subgroup and thus, disadvantaged members of this subgroup unlawfully.

However, should an employer show that the selection practices ARE valid and predictive of future job performance, then the selection practice is LEGAL and acceptable even if there is adverse impact. When the selection practice that resulted in adverse impact is shown to predict future job performance, then the selection practice is doing what it was supposed to do: eliminating people who are not qualified for the job regardless of their subgroup status.

146
Q

Who is Jessica Cox and what did she do?

A

Jessica Cox is the world’s first licensed armless pilot. She was born without arms due to a rare birth defect. She can fly an airplane with her toes.

147
Q

California laws are particularly protective of employees in what ways?

A
  • California requires employers to pay overtime (1.5 times hourly rate) if an hourly worker works EITHER more than 8 hours in a day OR 40 hours in a week–whichever yields overtime pay.
  • If you work 4 continuous hours, you get a 10-minute uninterrupted paid rest break.
  • If you work 8 hours, you get two 10-minute uninterrupted paid rest breaks.
  • If you work more than five hours, you get a 30-minute uninterrupted unpaid meal break.
148
Q

For an eight hour workday, California employees are guaranteed…

A

Two 10-minute paid uninterrupted rest breaks and one 30-minute lunch break OR the California Premium

149
Q

What is the California Premium?

A

One extra hour of pay per day when a rest break or meal break is not offered. If you work a six-hour shift and don’t get a rest break or lunch or both, you could get two extra hours of pay for that day.

150
Q

What company lost a lawsuit after failing to pay their employees the California Premium?

A

Wal-Mart

151
Q

Sexual assault occurs from the perspective of the ___.

A

victim

152
Q

What if the harasser in a sexual harassment case claims that they were “just joking around?”

A

he alleged harasser’s intention (“I didn’t mean anything” or “I was just joking around”) has no weight in defending against a sexual harassment complaint. It doesn’t matter what the intent was.

153
Q

What are the two types of sexual harassment?

A
  1. Quid pro quo

2. Hostile work environment

154
Q

What is quid pro quo (sexual) harassment?

A

Quid pro quo harassment means that a job benefit (like being hired, promoted, or paid more) is given in exchange for sexual favors.

155
Q

What is hostile work environment (sexual) harassment?

A

Hostile work environment means that the victim of sexual harassment is exposed to verbal or physical sexual behavior and as a result, it creates a hostile work environment where the victim’s performance is affected.

156
Q

What is the assumption we make regarding sexual harassment?

A

Verbal or physical sexual behavior is unwelcome and puts the recipient of the behavior in an uncomfortable position in the workplace.

157
Q

The protections extend to the entire workplace and even…

A

outside the workplace where workers gather (e.g., the bar, conferences, etc.).

158
Q

The person who files a sexual harassment complaint can be either the ___ or even a ___ who is offended by watching or hearing the harassing behavior (whether the recipient of the behavior feels uncomfortable or not!).

A

victim, bystander

159
Q

In California, every supervisor/manager/teacher/professor is required by law to take ___ hours of sexual harassment training in order to prevent sexual harassment in the workplace or educational settings.

A

2

160
Q

What is the overtime rate?

A

1.5 times the regular rate

161
Q

When is overtime earned?

A

When you work over 8 hours a day or 40 hours a week

162
Q

What did the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 do?

A

The Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 (abbreviated as FLSA) is a United States labor law that creates the right to a minimum wage, and “time-and-a-half” overtime pay when people work over forty hours a week. It also prohibited most employment of minors in “oppressive child labor”.

163
Q

Is pay a motivator? Why or why not?

A

PAY IS NOT A MOTIVATOR. That is because pay is outside (extrinsic) of the job itself and therefore is not a component of the work itself. With this theory, the work/job itself becomes motivating by doing it.

164
Q

What is culture? (2 definitions)

A

A form of informal (social) control, not formal (written) control. A system of shared values and norms.

165
Q

What is a value?

A

A principle, standard or quality considered desirable

166
Q

What is an example of a company upholding a value?

A

Google’s “Don’t Be Evil”

167
Q

What is a norm?

A

Unwritten rules & expectations of conduct which prescribes a type of behavior

168
Q

Culture shapes…

A

Employee behavior.

169
Q

What does culture do? (2 things)

A
  • Rewards and reinforces appropriate behavior

* Punishes and isolates violators of the culture

170
Q

What do strong norms do?

A

increase clarity about priorities and expectations. Tell you what is right behavior, and what will happen if you do the right (or wrong) thing

171
Q

What is intensity?

A

How strongly the company feels about something. Is this a fundamental belief or just a job?

172
Q

What is an organization with strong intensity?

A

Teach for America

173
Q

What is degree of agreement?

A

How shared a company value is. Is there unity or are there “warring factions”?

174
Q

What is an organization with relatively weak intensity?

A

Jack in the Box

175
Q

What is an example of a group with a high degree of agreement and one with a low degree?

A

US Armed Forces (high), UC Berkeley students (low)

176
Q

How do you develop a strong culture? (3 things)

A
  • Recruit and select employees who fit the culture.
  • Socialize and train employees.
  • Reward and recognize employees.
177
Q

What is the most important fundamental building block?

A

Leadership

178
Q

What’s the difference between management and leadership?

A

Management maintains the status quo and keeps things as they are (planning, organizing, controlling). But leadership changes the status quo and moves people in a new direction (agenda setting, aligning, inspiring, monitoring).

179
Q

What is more difficult: leading or managing?

A

Leading

180
Q

The only way a leadership exists is…

A

if people follow! Followers let leaders lead.

181
Q

When are followers made and not made?

A

Followers are made when leaders can offer something that the followers want. If a leader offers something that the people don’t want, they will not be followers.

Bottom line: What a leader offers has to match what people want, whether it’s a good salary, a good culture, or meaningful work.

182
Q

Leadership is… (__+__)

A

A match between what a leader offers + what followers want

183
Q

What are attributes of a good leader? (5)

A
  • Self-Awareness
  • Self-Regulation
  • Motivation
  • Empathy
  • Social Skill
184
Q

What are the two effective leader behaviors? Can a person be both?

A
  • Task-focused
  • Relationship- or employee-focused

A person can be both!

185
Q

What are the two effective transformational skills?

A
  • Vision to guide the change.

* Execute change effectively.

186
Q

What is charismatic leadership? (2)

A
  • Energize others, instill confidence, inspire

* Exude confident, demonstrate personal excitement

187
Q

Leadership comes down to one thing. What is it?

A

If you can convince people to follow

188
Q

What can we learn from Tesla’s safety standards/injury rate?

A

We cannot judge the quality of a leader by their success. Elon Musk is demanding a lot, and people are getting injured. Workers are threatening to form a union.

189
Q

What happens when you try to change employee behavior?

A

Resistance!

190
Q

What are the two approaches to breaking resistance to change?

A
  • Procedural Justice (“Fair Process”)

* Distributive Justice (“Fair Outcomes”)

191
Q

What are the three principles of Procedural Justice?

A
  • Engagement - tell people what the problem is and ask for input on potential solutions
  • Explanation - tell people what the change will be and why
  • Expectation clarity - tell people what to expect as a function of the change

This takes away the fear of the unknown; employees know why these changes are being implemented and what could happen from doing them.

192
Q

What are the three principles of Distributive Justice?

A
  • Resource allocation - tell people what will change but not why
  • Economic incentive - tell people what they will get and hope they are swayed by the benefits
  • Organizational structure - use incentives to drive behavior change
193
Q

What are the differences between Procedural vs. Distributive Justice? (4)

A
  • Trust and commitment vs. outcome satisfaction
  • Voluntary cooperation vs. compulsory cooperation
  • Expectations exceeded vs. expectations met

Bottom line: Intrinsic motivation vs. extrinsic motivation. When you use procedural justice, people own it and they will commit. When you use distributive justice, you are only motivating people externally. It only compels people if they think they’re going to receive an award.

194
Q

What are the three principles of Distributive Justice?

A
  • Resource allocation - tell people what will change but not why
  • Economic incentive -
  • Organizational structure -
195
Q

You don’t really know when a norm is shaping and controlling your behavior until ___ or ___.

A

A norm gets in the way of you doing something you’d like to do but “can’t” OR when you see a norm violated by others and you react to their behavior

196
Q

If you want people to follow a new norm…

A

demonstrate how behaving consistent with the new norm is OK and reward those who behave in this manner.

197
Q

You notice norms when…

A

Something unexpected happens. Like when free muffins are offered to you in class!

198
Q

You don’t really know when a norm is shaping and controlling your behavior until ___ or ___.

A

A norm gets in the way of you doing something you’d like to do but “can’t” OR when you see a norm violated by others and you react to their behavior

199
Q

If you want people to follow a new norm…

A

demonstrate how behaving consistent with the new norm is OK and reward those who behave in this manner.

200
Q

Performance measurement and performance management build ___ into every employee’s performance.

A

Accountability

201
Q

What is performance measurement?

A

An evaluation of how well people perform in the job. Evaluations can be objective and subjective.

202
Q

What are four aspects of performance management?

A
  • Communicating performance feedback.
  • Coaching job behavior.
  • Developing person’s skills.
  • Redirecting person’s behavior.
203
Q

Performance measurement and performance management build ___ into every employee’s performance.

A

Accountability

204
Q

What is “diagnosing a performance problem”?

A

Examining the performance measurement (appraisal) results to determine the source of the employee’s performance problems and deficits. Answering: “What is holding an employee back from being a top performer?”

205
Q

What are the two kinds of performance problems?

A

“can’t do” and “won’t do” problems

206
Q

How can you address a “can’t do” problem?

A

Addressed through training and coaching to resolve the lack of ability.

Remember the performance equation and its split between ability and motivation. Training and coaching can increase ABILITY.

207
Q

How can you address a “won’t do” problem?

A

Addressed through motivational techniques to resolve the lack of motivation.

Remember the performance equation and its split between ability and motivation. Training and coaching can increase MOTIVATION.