MODULE 2 | CNS DEPRESSANTS Flashcards

1
Q

are group of drugs that may enhance the activity of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the brain (GABA) and spinal cord (GLYCINE) or inhibit excitatory neurotransmitters (GLUTAMATE), and block the production of excitatory action potential

A

CNS depressants

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2
Q

most common mental disorders

A

anxiety

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3
Q

an unpleasant state of tension, apprehension, or uneasiness (a fear that arises from either a known or unknown source

A

ANXIETY

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4
Q

drugs used to treat anxiety are called

A

anxiolytics

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5
Q
  • induction of a relaxed easy state, i.e. allays irritability, nervousenss, or excitement
A

SEDATION

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6
Q

SEDATIVES

reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect on motor and mental function

A

sedatives

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7
Q

induction of sleep

A

HYPNOSIS

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8
Q

HYPNOSIS

produce drowsiness and encourage the onset and maintenance of a state of sleep that as far as possible resembles the natural sleep

A

hypnotics

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9
Q

inability to fall asleep and/or maintain a state of sleep

A

insomnia

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10
Q

one of the applications of sedative-hypnotics

A

insomnia

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11
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • very light sleep
  • muscle activity slows down
A

stage 1

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12
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • breathing pattern and heart rate slows down
  • body temperature decreases slightly
A

stage 2

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13
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • deep sleep starts
  • brain starts to generate slow delta waves
A

sstage 3

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14
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • very deep sleep
  • muscle activity is limited
A

stage 4

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15
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • REM sleep
  • brainwaves speed up and dreams occur
  • heart rate increases
A

stage 5

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16
Q

REM meaning

A

rapid eye movement

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17
Q

the sleep cycle is divided into (2)

A

NREM
REM

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18
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

drowsy transition from waking to sleeping, still awake

A

stage 1 nrem

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19
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

no longer aware but are easily awakened

A

stage 2 NREM

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20
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

slow-wave sleep

A

stage 3 nrem

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21
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • deep sleep
  • brain acvitivity decreases
  • heart rate is slow
  • BP is decreased
  • breathing decreases
A

stage 4 NREM

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22
Q

the NREM sleep usually takes how many mins

A

60-90mins

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23
Q

STAGES OF SLEEP

  • increase autonomic activity
  • increase breathing, BP and HR
  • increase blood flow to the brain
  • dreaming episodes occur
A

stage 5 REM

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24
Q

the REM sleep occupies how many % of the total sleep

A

20-25%

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25
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

SHORT ACTING (2-8hrs)

A

Oxazepam
Midazolam
Triazolam

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26
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

INTERMEDIATE-ACTING (10-20hrs)

A

Lorazepam
Alprazolam
Temazepam
Estazolam

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27
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

LONG-ACTING (1-3days)

A

Chlordiazepoxide
DIAZEPAM
Flurazepam
Chlorazepate
Quazepam

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28
Q

an active metabolite of Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide, and Chlorazepate

A

Nordazepam

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29
Q

Benzodiazepines support what GABA receptor

A

GABA A

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30
Q

Barbiturates support what GABA receptor

A

GABA B

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31
Q

BARBITURATES

ULTRA SHORT-ACTING (30mins)

A

Thipental
Thiamylal
Methohexital

ThiThiMo

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32
Q

BARBITURATES

SHORT-ACTING (2 hours)

A

Pentobarbital
Hexobarbital
Secobarbital

5-6-7

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33
Q

BARBITURATES

INTERMEDIATE-ACTING (3-5hrs)

A

Amobabital
Butabarbital

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34
Q

BARBITURATES

LONG-ACTING (>6hours)

A

Phenobarbital
Barbital

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35
Q

MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS

  • 5-HT1A partial agonist
  • D2 antagonist
A

Buspirone

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36
Q

MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS

  • novel hypnotic drug
  • melatonin receptor agonist
A

RAMELTEON

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37
Q

MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS

melatonin receptor agonist

A

TASIMELTEON

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38
Q

MISCELLANEOUS AGENTS

orexin antagonist

A

Almorexant
Suvorexant

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39
Q

which has extremely rapid absorption
TRAZOLAM or DIAZEPAM

A

TRIAZOLAM

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40
Q

the absorption of the active metabolite of ____ is more rapid than other common used benzodiazepens

A

clorazepate

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41
Q

active form of Clorazepate (a prodrug)

A

desmethyldiazepam
(nordiazepam)

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42
Q

major requirement to enter BBB

A

lipophilic

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43
Q

all sedative-hypnotics cross the ____ during pregnancy

A

placental barrier

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44
Q

sedative-hypnotics are also detectable in ____ and may exert depressant effeects in the nursing infant

A

breast milk

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45
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

are metabolized by ____ systems of the liver

A

microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme

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46
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

DESMETHYLDIAZEPAM:
elimination half life

A

more than 40hrs

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47
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

Alprazolam, Triazolam undergo ____

A

a-hydroxylation

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48
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

parent drug or active metabolites with ____

A

long halflives

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49
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

ESTAZOLAM ,OXAZEPAM, LORAZEPAM:
are metabolized directly into ____

A

inactice glucuronides

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50
Q

BENZODIAZEPINES

affected by inhibitors and inducers of hepatic P450 isozymes

A

Diazepam
Midazolam
Triazolam

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51
Q

Barbiturates increase ____

A

bilirubin conjugation

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52
Q

BARBITURATES

oxidation by ____ to form alcohols, acids, and ketones

A

hepatic enzymes

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53
Q

BARBITURATES

metabolites appear in the urine as ____

A

glucoronide conjugates

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54
Q

BARBITURATES

SECOBARBITAL and PHENOBARBITAL:
elimination half lives

A

18 - 48 hrs

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55
Q

BARBITURATES

PHENOBARBITAL:
elimination half lives

A

4-5 days

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56
Q

ZOLPIDEM (NEWER HYPNOTICS)

reches peak plasma levels in ____

A

1-3 hrs

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57
Q

ZOLPIDEM (NEWER HYPNOTICS)

formulations available

A

sublingual & oral spray

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58
Q

ZOLPIDEM (NEWER HYPNOTICS)

rapidly metabolized to inactive metabolites via oxiation and hydroxylation by ____

A

hepatic CYP3A4

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59
Q

ZOLPIDEM (NEWER HYPNOTICS)

the elimination half life is greater in ____

A

women

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60
Q

ZOLPIDEM (NEWER HYPNOTICS)

the elimination half life is increased significantly in the ____

A

elderly

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61
Q

(NEWER HYPNOTICS)

is metabolized to inactive metabolites mainly by** hepatic aldehyde oxidase** and partly by the cytochrome P450 isoform CYP3A4

A

ZALEPLON

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62
Q

NEWER HYPNOTICS

  • metabolized by hepatic CYP450 (CYP3A4) to form the inactive N-oxidde derivative and weakly active demethyleszopiclone
  • elimination half life is prolonged in the elderly and in the presence of inhibitors of CYP3A4 (ketoconazole)
  • inducers of CYP3A4 (rifampin) increase its hepatic metabolism
A

ESZOPICLONE

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63
Q

excreted unchanged in the urine to a certain extent (20-30%) in humans

A

PHENOBARBITAL

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64
Q

PHENOBARBITAL

its elimination rate can be increased significantly by ____ of the urine

mgmt. of phenobarbital toxicity

A

alkalanization

bc phenobarb is a weak acid

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65
Q

PHENOBARBITAL

pKa

A

weak acid - 7.4

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66
Q

MOA OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

the precursor in the synthesis of GABA

A

GLUTAMINE

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67
Q

MOA OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

GABA synthesis is facilitated by what enzyme

A

GLUTAMIC ACID DECARBOXYLASE

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68
Q

MOA OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

prevention of metabolism/degradation of GABA

A

storage into vesicles

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69
Q

MOA OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

how will the GABA produce its effect

A

by binding to the postsynaptic receptor

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70
Q

MOA OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

GABA inactivation via

A

GABA transaminase

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71
Q

key difference between GABA A and GABA B

A

GABA A - ionotropic
GABA B - metabotropic, GPRC

72
Q

increase frequency of chloride ion channel opening

A

Benzodiazepines (Zolpidem)

73
Q
  • a benzodiazepine antagonist
  • can reverse the hypnotic effects of zolpidem
A

FLUMAZENIL

74
Q

bind to other sites distinct from benzodiazepines and other sedatives increasing the duration of chloride ion channel opening

A

Barbiturates (Phenobarbital)

75
Q
  • a negative mdoulator
  • acts at the same site as BZDs through competitive binding
A

FLUMANEZIL

76
Q

potentiate GABAergic inhibition

A

benzodiazepines

77
Q

enhance GABA’s effects allosterically without directly activating GABA A receptors or opening the associated Cl channels

A

benzodiazepenes

78
Q

what will happen if GABA and benzodiazepine interacts

A

increase the frequencey of channel-opening events
increase Cl conductane

79
Q

increase the duration of the GABA-gated Cl channel openings

A

barbiturates

80
Q

whis is more toxic
BENZODIAZEPINE or BARBITURATES

A

barbiturates

81
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

  • low doses: BZDs, barbiturates, and older sedative-hypnotic drugs exert calming effects with concomitant reduction of anxiety
  • the anxiolytic actions are accompanied by some depressant effects on psychomotor and cognitive functions (side effects)
82
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | SEDATION

exert dose-dependent anterograde amnesic effects (MIDAZOLIN) – inability to remember events occuring during the durg’s duration of action (used during surgeries, e.g. CS)

A

BENZODIAZEPINES

83
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

  • manifest when high doses are given
84
Q

EFFECTS OF BZDs AND SHs

the latency of sleep onset is ____

time to fall asleep

A

decreased

can sleep faster

85
Q

EFFECTS OF BZDs AND SHs

the duration of stage 2 NREM is ____

86
Q

EFFECTS OF BZDs AND SHs

the duration of REM sleep is ____

87
Q

EFFECTS OF BZDs AND OLDER SHs

the duration of stage 4 NREM slow-wave sleep is ____

88
Q

EFFECTS OF NEWER SHs

decreases REM sleep but has minimal effect on slow-wave sleep

89
Q

EFFECTS OF NEWER SHs

decreases the latency of sleep onset with little effect on total sleep time, NREM, or REM sleep

90
Q

EFFECTS OF NEWER SHs

increases total sleep time mainly via increases in stage 2 NREM sleep

A

ESZOPICLONE

91
Q

EFFECTS OF NEWER SHs

ESZOPICLONE:
low doses

A

little effect on sleep patterns

92
Q

EFFECTS OF NEWER SHs

ESZOPICLONE:
highest recommended dose

A

decreases REM sleep

93
Q

all hypnotics can cause deliberate ____

A

interruption of REM sleep

94
Q

REM rebound is commonly observed in what drug

95
Q

anxiety and irritability followed by REM rebound is commonly associated with ____

A

older sedativehypnotics

96
Q

occurs with both Zolpidem and Zaleplon at higher doses

A

rebound insomnia

97
Q

use of sedative-hypnotics for more than 1-2 weeks leads to some ____ to their effcts on sleep patterns

98
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | ANESTHESIA

high doses of certain SHs depress the CNS to the point known as ____

A

STAGE III OF GENERAL ANESTHESI

99
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | ANESTHESIA

  • very lipid-soluble, penetrating brain tissue rapidly
  • makes them useful for the induction of anesthesia
A

THIOPENTAL & METHOHEXITAL

100
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | ANESTHESIA

  • used IV
  • given in large doses
  • long half lives and formation of active metabolites contributes to post-anesthetic respiratory depression
  • can be reversed by Flumazenil
101
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS

  • inhibit the development and spread of epileptiform electrical activity in the CNS
A

anticonvulsant effect

102
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | ANTICONVULSANT

selective to be clinically useful in the management of seizures

103
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | ANTICONVULSANT

  • effective in the treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures (not the drug of first choice)
A

BARBITURATES

104
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SEDATIVE-HYPNOTICS | MUSCLE RELAXANT

  • exert inhibitory effects
  • may depress transmission at the skeletal neuromuscular junction at high doses
A

Carbamate and BZDs

105
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

can produce significant respiratory depression in patients with ____ at therapeutic doses

A

pulmonary diseasse

106
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

usual cause of death due to overdose of SHs

A

depression od the medullary respiratory center

107
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

no significant effects in ____ of healthy patients

A

cardiovascular system

108
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

AT NORMAL DOSE:
* in ____ states, heart failure and other disease that impair CV function may appear

A

HYPOVOLEMIC

109
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

AT TOXIC DOSE:
* may cause depression of ____ and ____ leading to circulatory collapse

A

myocardial contractility & vascular tone

110
Q

ORGAN LEVEL EFFECTS OF SHs | RESPIRATION & CARDIOVASCULAR

respiratory and cardiovascular effects are more marked when given ____

110
Q

available in a biphasic release formulation that provides sustained drug levels for sleep maintenance

111
Q

have value in the management of patients who awaken early in the sleep cycle

112
Q

cause less amnesia or day-after somnolence than zolpidem / BZDs

A

Zaleplon & Eszopiclone

113
Q
  • orexin antagonists
  • sleep enabling drugs
A

Almorexant
Suvorexant

114
Q
  • agonist at MT1 and MT2 melatonin receptors
  • have no direct effects on GABAergic neurotransmission in the CNS
A

Ramelteon
Tasimelteon

115
Q

approved for non-24hr sleep-wake disorder

A

Tasimelteon

116
Q
  • reduce the latency of persistent sleep
  • no rebound insomnia
  • no effect on sleep architecture
  • rapidly absorbed; undergoes extensive first pass metab
117
Q

useful relaxant effects in skeletal muslces spasticity of central origin

118
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

anesthesia

A

Midazolam

antegrade amnesia

119
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

anxiety

120
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

muscle relaxant
alcohol withdrawal

121
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

anticonvulsant

A

Diazepam
Clonazepam
Clorazepate

122
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

panic disorders

A

Alprazolam

123
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

status epilepticus

A

Diazepam

seizure should be NMT 5 days

124
Q

why is MIDAZOLAM preferred over other BZDs for anesthesia

A
  • shorter onset of action
  • greater potency
  • more rapid elimination
125
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

sleep disorders (insomnia)

A

lorazepam
temazepam

126
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BZDs

alcohol withdrawal

127
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BABRITURATES

anticonvulsant
hypnosis

A

phenobarbital

128
Q

CLINICAL USES OF BABRITURATES

anesthesia
sedation

A

thiopental

129
Q

CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY OF SHs

  • drowsiness, impaired judgement, diminished motor skills
  • w impact on driving ability, job performance, personal relationships
  • anterograde amnesia
  • hangover effects
130
Q

CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY OF SHs

  • lethargy or state of exhaustion
  • as gross symptom equivalent to those of ethanol intoxication
  • exacerbate breathing problems in px w/ COPD
A

high doses

131
Q

CLINICAL TOXICOLOGY OF SHs

a dose as low as ten times the hypnotic dose may be ____

A

fatal

except BZDs and newer hypnotics

132
Q

TERATOGENECITY

individual BZDs category

133
Q

TERATOGENECITY

Barbiturates are FDA pregnancy category ____

134
Q

TERATOGENECITY

Eszopiclone, Ramelteon, Zaleplon, and Zolpidem are category

135
Q

TERATOGENECITY

Buspirone, an anxiolytic, is caategory ____

136
Q

ADVEERSE EFFECTS

Barbiturates enhance ____ synthesis
* contraindicated in patients with porphyria

137
Q

which drug does tolerance rapidly develops
BARBITURATES or BZDs

A

barbiturates

138
Q

____ usually develops when used continuously at therapeutic doses

A

PHYSICOLOGIC DEPENDENCE

139
Q

____ may result to abstinence or withdrawal syndrome

A

abrupt withdrawal

140
Q

it is advised that withdrawal should be done ____

141
Q

which does have high potential for physical dependence and abuse
BARBITURATES or BENZODIAZEPINES

A

BARBITURATES

142
Q

Due to high abuse potential, most sedative-hypnotic drugs are classified as ____ or ____ drugs

A

schedule III or IV

143
Q

over how many % of alcohol is oxidized in the liver

144
Q

the rate of oxidation of alcohol follows ____

A

ZERO-ORDER KINETICS

145
Q

inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase

A

Fomepizole

146
Q

inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase

A

Disulfiram

146
Q

alcohol produces ____

A

dose-dependent depression

147
Q

primary mechanism to account for the CNS depressant property of alcohol

A

enhance the action of GABA at GABA A receptor

148
Q

alcohol inhibits the ability of ____ to open the cation channel

A

glutamate

accounts for the blackouts episodes

149
Q

EFFECTS OF ALCHOL

induces ____ in the skin resulting to flushed sensation

A

dilation of blood vessels

150
Q

EFFECTS OF ALCHOL

stimulates secretion of ____ and ____

A

saliva and gastric juices

151
Q

EFFECTS OF ALCHOL

blocks secreetion of ____

A

ADH - antidiuretic hormone

152
Q

antidiuretic hormone

A

vasopressin

153
Q

CONSEQUENCES OF CHRONIC ALCOHOLISM

Alcoholics suffer from ____ resulting to WERNICKES-KORSAKOFF’S SYNDROME

A

thiamine deficiency

154
Q

CONSEQUENCES OF CHRONIC ALCOHOLISM

characterized by paralysis of the external eye muscles, ataxia and confused state than can progress to coma & death

A

WERNICKES-KROSAKOFF’S SYNDROME

155
Q

chronic alcoholinsm causes enzyme ____

156
Q

acute alcoholinsm causes enzyme

A

inhibition

157
Q

TREATMENT OF ALCOHOLISM

opioid antagonists can cause dose-dependent hepatotoxicity, thus should be used with caution in patients with eviidence of abnormalities in serum aminotransferase activity

A

NALTREXONE

158
Q

TREATMENT OF ALCOHOLISM

reduces short term and long term (more than 6mos) relapse rates when combined with psychotherapy

A

Acamprostate

159
Q
  • should be taken with alcohol; has little effect when given alone
  • inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase resulting accumulation of acetaldehyde causing extreme discomfort in patients
  • this causes flushing, throbbing headache, N&V, sweating, hypotnesion, and confusion – may last for 30mins in mild cases and several hours in severe ones
A

Disulfiram

160
Q

TREATMENT OF ALCOHOLISM

5 HT3 antagonist

A

Ondansetron

161
Q

TREATMENT OF ALCOHOLISM

antiseizure

A

Topiramate

162
Q

employed in conditions collectively known as neurosis

A

anxiolytics

163
Q

an accumulation of anxiety and tension which leads to emotional changes and abnormal behavior

164
Q

commonly used anxiolytic

165
Q

ANXIETY STATES

  • psychic awareness of anxiety
  • accompanied by enhanced vigilance, motor tension, and autonomic hyperactivity
166
Q

ANXIETY STATES

  • results from circumstances that may** have to be dealt with only once or a few times**
A

Situational anxiety

167
Q
  • excessive or unreasonable anxiety about life circumstances
  • managed by drug therapy, sometimes in conjunction with psychotherapy
A

GENERALIZED ANXIETY DISORDER

168
Q

Triggered by certain circumstances, such as open spaces, social interactions or spiders

A

Phobic anxiety

168
Q

Attacks of overwhelming fear occur in association with marked somatic symptoms, such as sweating, tachycardia, chest pain, trembling, choking, etc

A

Panic disorder

170
Q
  • Widely used for the management of acute anxiety states and for rapid control of panic attacks
  • Also used, though less commonly, in the long-term management of GAD and panic disorders
171
Q

selectively used for the treatment of panic disorders and agoraphobia

A

Alprazolam

172
Q

preferred for patients with anxiety that may require treatment for prolonged period of time

173
Q
  • 5HT1A partial agonist, **D2 antagonist **
  • Has selective anxiolytic effect without causing marked sedative, hypnotic, or euphoric effects
  • Mainly for generalized anxiety states, less effective in panic disorders
174
Q
  • Used mainly to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety (tremors, palpitations, etc.)
  • No effect on affective component
A

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