Module 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathogphysiology of preeclampsia

A

The spiral arteries fail to remodel properly and so remain narrow, resulting in high pressure, poor flow vessels. This promotes clotting within the arteries, restricting blood flow to the placenta. During this time the oxygen tension of the placenta decreases, and when the clot is thrombolysed and flow is restored, oxygen tension increases again, which causes production of oxygen free radicals.

The oxidative stress damages the sycitiotrophoblast layer, causing release of suncytiotrophoblast microparticles into maternal circulation. This leads to endothelial damage and dysfunction, which causes hypertension, proteinuria, oedema, and increased coagulability

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2
Q

What is the standard clinical definition of preeclampsia?

A

Hypertension (>140/90) with proteinuria (>0.5g protein/ day on 2 or more separate occasions) during or just after pregnancy (just after is very rare)

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3
Q

Which feature of platelets might indicate preeclampsia?

A

Decreased number

Increased size

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4
Q

What change in maternal T-cells helps promote tolerance?

A

Increase in Th2 cells instead of Th1

Th2 cells are involved in the antibody-mediated immune response, and most antibodies an’t cross the placenta

This makes pregnant women more susceptible to viruses, which are tackled by Th1 mediated immune responses

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5
Q

What do trophoblasts express to avoid apoptosis by uterine NK cells?

A

HLA E and G

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6
Q

What do trophoblasts express to kill invading lymphocytes?

A

Fas ligand

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7
Q

What is fetal inflammatory response syndrome?

A

It’s defined by a rise in fetal plasma IL-6 in response to infection, and leads to systemic inflammation and a rise in fetal cortisol. this can lead to chronic lung disease, periventricular leukomalacia, and intraventricular haemorrhage

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8
Q

Which cells release progesterone to provide a chemotactic gradient for sperm?

A

Cumulus granulosa cells

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9
Q

Give three important functions of the zona pellucida

A

Prevent polyspermy
Enable acrosome reaction
Enable secondary binding events

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10
Q

Which glycoprotein receptor in the zona pellucida induces the acrosome reaction?

A

ZP3

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11
Q

How is the acrosome reaction initiated?

A

The sperm’s ZP3 receptors bind to the zona pellucida, triggering opening of T-type calcium channels. Intracellular calcium increases, activating the PLC messenger system which causes further calcium influx through TRPC2. This triggers the acrosome membrane to fuse with the sperm plasma membrane and release its contents.

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12
Q

How is the oocyte activated after the acrosome reaction?

A

PLC zeta is released from the sperm and activates IP3 signalling pathway in the oocyte. This leads to calcium oscillations from the endoplasmic reticulum, which activate the oocyte

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13
Q

What is the effect of cortical granule release into the perivitelline space?

A

The granules contain enzymes which cleave ZP glycoproteins (particularly ZP2) and cause cross-linkage of tyrosine rsidues to harden the zona pelludica and prevent polyspermy

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14
Q

How does fertilisation release the oocyte from meiosis II arrest?

A

The calcium oscillations activate APC (anaphase promoting complex) which degrades cyclin B (forms mature-promoting complex which holds the cell in arrest) and allows progression to anaphase. This is when the second polar body is made

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15
Q

Why is mitochondrial DNA only inherited from the mother?

A

Because mitochondrial DNA is held within the mitochondria. The paternal mitochondria are lost with the rest of the sperm tail

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16
Q

Briefly describe Mos

A

A kinase which is synthesised in oocytes around the completion of meiosis I. It causes an increase in mature-promoting factor during meiosis II

17
Q

Cleavage of monozygotic twins between days 4-8 will result in a monochorionic monoamniotic pregnancy

True or false?

A

True

Splitting past the two-cell stage is likely to result in a MCMA pregnancy

18
Q

Monochorionic twins have a 2-3 fold higher rate of congenital abnormality than dichorionic twins

True or false?

A

True

19
Q

An ultrasonographic measurement showing the presence of the lambda sign is a diagnostic feature of monochorionicity

True or false?

A

False

The T-sign would indicate monochorionicity

20
Q

MCMA twins are delivered by caesarean section at 32-34 weeks gestation because of the risk of cord entanglement

True or false?

A

True

21
Q

The diagnosis of TTTS is suspected in monochorionic diamniotic twins when there is the presence of polyhydramnios and oligohydramnios

True or false?

A

True