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Medical-Surgical Nursing > Module 2 &3 PRELIM > Flashcards

Module 2 &3 PRELIM Flashcards

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1
Q

How can respiratory system be viewed?

A

upper and lower respiratory tract
conducting airways (nasal cavity to tracheobronchial tree) and respiratory tissues (lungs)

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2
Q

elevation of intrathoracic pressure within the thoracic cavity, which may limit the capacity of the lungs to expand that all shall result in inadequate has exchange

A

restrictive disorders

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3
Q

what part of the nervous system is affected when there is an event of low level oxygen in the blood? This causes the oxygen level to level up.

A

sympathetic nervous system

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4
Q

what would happen to the respiratory rate to augment oxygen acquisition?

A

tachypnea

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5
Q

clearing mechanism that is usually triggered when anything foreign reaches the glottis

A

cough

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6
Q

a state of low level of oxygen in the blood brought by inadequate supply or ineffective gas exchange

A

hypoxemia

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7
Q

cells became deprived of oxygen

A

hypoxia

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8
Q

bluish discoloration of the mucus membrane and/or skin

A

cyanosis

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9
Q

triggered by the prolonged compensatory physiologic response that is not sufficient to reverse hypoxemia

A

dyspnea

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10
Q

as a result of hypoxemia, the muscles surrounding the thoracic cavity shall work doubly to facilitate better lung expansion

A

labored breathing

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11
Q

use of accessory muscles for breathing

A

labored breathing

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12
Q

it is a response that acts as a protective mechanism in trapping unwanted particles

A

mucus

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13
Q

what is the compensatory response when nasal congestion occurs?

A

mouth breathing

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14
Q

it is a result from a clogged airway, specifically that of excessive mucus production

A

adventitious breath sounds

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15
Q

thickening of the tips of the fingers and the nails that become extremely curved that is related to chronic hypoxemia

A

clubbing of the fingernails

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16
Q

is an overall feeling of tiredness that is due to various reasons. In cases of respiratory disordered, this is a result of low oxygen levels, insufficient to meet the metabolic demands of the muscles

A

fatigue

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17
Q

this change may be related to the inflammation of the larynx that often results to pain; it can also be attributed to the amount of air released during expiration

A

hoarseness of voice

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18
Q

changing of voice quality

A

hoarseness of voice

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19
Q

inflammation of the larynx may obliterate the opening of the glottis, which results to difficulty in moving gases that presents with an audible, high-pitched sound heard even on ausculation, stridor

A

aphonia

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20
Q

total absence of voice

A

aphonia

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21
Q

sign of airway obstruction

A

garbled speech

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22
Q

inflammation of the pharynx/larynx can be attributed to inflammation as manifested by pain

A

sore throat

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23
Q

very painful swallowing

A

adynophagia

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24
Q

usual assessment finding among clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases

A

barrel chest

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25
Q

it is a non-specific laboratory examination used to detect an infectious or inflammatory process

A

complete blood count

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26
Q

it determines the concentration of partial oxygen, carbon dioxide and bicarbonate in the blood

A

arterial blood gas

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27
Q

this test is useful in determining metabolic disturbances (acidosis or alkalosis)

A

arterial blood gas

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28
Q

who withdraws that blood sample directly from the artery using a heparinized syringe

A

respiratory therapist

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29
Q

what is the significance of the heparin in the heparinized syringe during arterial blood gas test?

A

prevents blood coagulation

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30
Q

what is the usual site for blood collection?

A

radial pulse

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31
Q

invasive procedure that withdraws pleural fluid either for therapeutic purposes or diagnostic for cytologic examination

A

thoracentesis

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32
Q

is an informed consent essential during thoracentesis procedure?

A

YES

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33
Q

this is the confirmatory test for PTB

A

sputum collection

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34
Q

it is a determination of the causative agent for PTB, an acid-fast-bacilli

A

mycobacterium tubercle

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35
Q

other term for mantoux test

A

purified protein derivative (PPTD)

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36
Q

other term for purified protein derivation

A

mantoux test

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37
Q

what is PPTD

A

purified protein derivative

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38
Q

it inoculates a purified protein chemical via intradermal injection on the skin of the client

A

mantoux test

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39
Q

does mantoux test confirm diagnosis?

A

NO

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40
Q

these are interventions upon which the nurse can institute even without the orders coming from the attending physician

A

independent

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41
Q

what are some of the independent interventions of a nurse in respiratory system disorders?

A

positioning
frequent position change
ambulation
hydration
deep breathing and coughing exercise

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42
Q

what is positioning of the patient significant for?

A

maximum lung expansion

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43
Q

common position that will maximize lung expansion?

A

Fowler’s position (high, semi, low)

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44
Q

two types of breathing exercises that permits deep full breaths with little effort

A

abdominal (diaphragmatic) breathing
pursed lip breathing

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45
Q

interventions that require orders from an attending physician

A

dependent

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46
Q

what are some dependent interventions of a nurse in respiratory system disorder?

A

use of incentive spirometer
steam inhalation
oxygen therapy
nasotracheal sunctioning
pharmacological management

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47
Q

other term for incentive spirometer

A

sustained maximal inspiration device

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48
Q

other term for sustained maximal inspiration device

A

incentive spirometer

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49
Q

a device that measures the flow of air inhaled through the mouth piece

A

incentive spirometer

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50
Q

what is the function of a incentive spirometer?

A

improve pulmonary ventilation
loosen respiratory secretions
expand collapsed alveoli
facilitate respiratory gaseous exchange

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51
Q

alternative for nebulizer

A

steam inhalation

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52
Q

function of steam inhalation

A

liquefy mucus secretions
warms and humidifies inspired air
relieves edema of the airways
serves as a route for medication administration

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53
Q

administration of pure oxygen via a source using various oxygen delivery devices

A

oxygen therapy

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54
Q

is a procedure that assists the clients with difficulty in expectorating retained secretions independently

A

nasotracheal sunctioning

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55
Q

what kind of lubrication is for nasopharyngeal?

A

watersoluble

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56
Q

what kind of lubrication is for oropharyngeal?

A

sterile water of NSS

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57
Q

watersoluble is a lubrication for what?

A

nasopharyngeal

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58
Q

sterile water or NSS is a lubrication for what?

A

oropharyngeal

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59
Q

suppress the cough reflex by direct action on the medullary cough center of the brain

A

antitussives

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60
Q

used to decrease nasal congestion related to common cold, sinusitis and allergic rhinitis by shrinking the nasal mucous membranes leading to drainage of sinuses and improvement of airflow

A

decongestants

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61
Q

used to relieve respiratory symptoms and allergies by selectively blocking the effects of histamine-1 receptor sites, decreasing the allergic response

A

anti-histamines

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62
Q

used to relieve dry and non-productive cough by liquefying the lower respiratory tract secretions, reducing the viscosity of these secretions and making it easier for the patient to cough out

A

expectorants

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63
Q

used to break down mucus in order to aid the high-risk respiratory patient in coughing thick, tenacious secretions

A

mucolytics

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64
Q

used to inhibit the chemical mediator leukotriene that cause bronchospasm in client with hyperreactive airway disease

A

leukotriene inhibitors

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65
Q

anti-inflammatory agents that reverses the pathologic problem of obstruction that resolves inflammation

A

corticosteroids

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66
Q

are specific combinatory medications in managing clients diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis

A

anti-tubercular drugs

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67
Q

SE: red orange discoloration of the urine

A

rifampicin

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68
Q

SE: high hepatotoxic

A

isoniazid

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69
Q

SE: peripheral neuritis

A

pyrazinamide

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70
Q

tingling sensation on the legs

A

peripheral neuritis

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71
Q

SE: optic neuritis

A

ethambutol

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72
Q

blurring of vision

A

optic neuritis

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73
Q

SE: otic neuritis

A

streptomycin

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74
Q

hearing loss

A

otic neuritis

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75
Q

nursing responsibilities related with facilitating requests for laboratory and diagnostics examinations

A

interdependent

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76
Q

inflammation of the nasal mucosa that leads to nasal congestion

A

rhinitis

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77
Q

these are grapelike growth on the mucous membranes and loose connective tissue

A

nasal polyps

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78
Q

inflammation of the paranasal sinuses

A

sinusitis

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79
Q

inflammation of the pharynx

A

pharyngitis

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80
Q

inflammation of the larynx

A

laryngitis

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81
Q

inflammation of the tonsils

A

tonsilitis

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82
Q

causative agent of tonsillitis

A

beta-hemolytic streptococcus

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83
Q

other term for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

obstructive lung disease

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84
Q

other term for obstructive lung disease

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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85
Q

denote disorders that affect the movement of air in and out of the lungs that is characterized by chronic airflow limitation

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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86
Q

movement of air into and out of the lungs

A

ventilation or breathing

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87
Q

warms and filters expired air

A

upper respiratory tract

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88
Q

protrudes from face

A

external portion

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89
Q
  • anterior nares
  • external opening of nasal cavities
A

nostrils

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90
Q

separated by septum by left and right nasal cavities

A

hollow cavity of internal portion

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91
Q

hollow cavity is divided into three by what?

A

conchae

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92
Q

what cells covers the surface of nasal mucosa

A

goblet cells

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93
Q

what is a short, fine hair that move air into nasopharynz

A

cilia

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94
Q

opening to pharynx

A

choanae

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95
Q

anterior portion of the nasal cavity

A

vestibule

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96
Q

separates nasal cavity to oral cavity

A

hard palate

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97
Q

divides nose in left and right portion

A

nasal septum

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98
Q

body ridges

A

conchae

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99
Q

passageway beneath the conchae

A

meatus

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100
Q

how many bone cavities is in the internal portion of paranasal sinuses?

A

four

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101
Q

connected by a series of ducts that drain into nasal cavity

A

paranasal sinuses

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102
Q

four bony cavities in the paranasal sinuses

A

frontal
ethmoid
sphenoid
maxillary

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103
Q

serves as a resonating chamber in speech

A

paranasal sinuses

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104
Q

common site of infection

A

paranasal sinuses

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105
Q

aka throat

A

pharynx

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106
Q

aka pharynx

A

throat

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107
Q
  • tubelike structure
  • connect nasal and oral cavities to the larynx (and esophagus inferiorly)
A

pharynx

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108
Q

passageway for respiratory and digestive tract

A

pharynx

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109
Q

posterior to nose and above the soft palate

A

nasopharynx

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110
Q

region in the pharynx that is only for air

A

nasopharynx

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111
Q

houses the faucial, or palatine, tonsils

A

oropharynx

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112
Q

region in the pharynx that is for air and food

A

oropharynx

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113
Q

extends from hyoid bone to the cricoid cartilage

A

laryngopharynx

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114
Q

region in the pharynx that is for food and drink

A

laryngopharynx

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115
Q

roof of nasopharynx

A

adenoids

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116
Q

other term for adenoids

A

pharyngeal tonsils

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117
Q

other term for pharyngeal tonsils

A

adenoids

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118
Q

line of defense for organisms entering the nose and throat

A

tonsils
adenoids
lymph nodes

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119
Q

posterior to choanae and superior to soft palate

A

nasopharynx

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120
Q

extend from soft palate to epiglottis

A

oropharynx

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121
Q

extends from epiglottis to esophagus

A

laryngopharynx

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122
Q

aka voice box

A

larynx

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123
Q

aka larynx

A

voice box

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124
Q
  • cartilaginous epithelium-lined organ
  • connects pharynx to trachea
  • vocalization
A

larynx

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125
Q

famous quote for the larynx

A

watchdog of the lungs

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126
Q

valve flap of cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing

A

epiglottis

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127
Q
  • opening between the vocal chords in the larynx
  • mainly for coughing
A

glottis

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128
Q

largest cartilage; Adam’s apple

A

thyroid cartilage

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129
Q

only complete cartilaginous ring

A

cricoid cartilage

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130
Q

used in vocal chord movement with the thyroid cartilage

A

arytenoid cartilage

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131
Q

produced sounds

A

vocal chords

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132
Q

2 pairs of vocal chord

A

true vocal chord
false vocal chord

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133
Q

where is vocal chord located

A

lulumen

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134
Q

other term for false vocal chords

A

vestibular folds

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135
Q

other term for vestibular chords

A

false vocal chord

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136
Q
  • superior mucosal fold
  • no sound
A

false vocal chord

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137
Q

other term for true vocal chord

A

vocal chords

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138
Q

other term for vocal chords

A

true vocal chords

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139
Q
  • inferior mucosal folds of elastic fibers
  • media opening is glottis
  • vibrate = sound
A

true vocal chords

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140
Q

vibration of vocal folds as air moves past them

A

sound

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141
Q

amplitude of vibration

A

loudness

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142
Q

force at which the air rushes across the vocal chords

A

amplitude

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143
Q

length and tension of vocal chords

A

pitch

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144
Q

changes frequency of vibration

A

length and tension of vocal chords

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145
Q

it resonates, amplifies and enhances sound quality

A

pharynx

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146
Q

aka windpipe

A

trachea

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147
Q

aka trachea

A

windpipe

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148
Q

dense regular connective tissue and smooth muscle reinforced with 15-20 C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage

A

trachea

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149
Q
  • give firmness to the wall of trachea
  • prevents from collapsing
A

rings

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150
Q

opening in the lungs

A

hilus

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151
Q

where gas exchange occurs

A

lower respiratory tract

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152
Q
  • principal organs of respirations
  • base rest on diaphragm and apex extends superiorly to ~2.5 cm above the clavicle
  • pair of elastic structure in the thoracic cage
A

lungs

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153
Q

airtight chamber with distensible wall

A

thoracic cage

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154
Q

how many lobes does a left lung have

A

2

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155
Q

how many lobes does a right lung have

A

3

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156
Q

a state of low level of oxygen in the blood brought by inadequate supply or ineffective gas exchange

A

hypoxemia

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157
Q

if the client is immunocompromised, what measurement of the induration that will already result for a positive PTB exposure?

A

5 mm

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157
Q

what measurement of the induration that serves as an indicative of PTB exposure?

A

10 mm

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158
Q

the lobes are separated by 2-5 segments by what?

A

fissures

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159
Q

thin, double-layer serous membrane that lines lungs and walls of thoracic cavity

A

pleura

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160
Q

covers the lungs

A

visceral pleura

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161
Q

covers the thoracic wall, diaphragm, lateral wall of mediastinum, inner aspect of ribs

A

parietal pleura

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162
Q

negative pressure space between the parietal and visceral pleura

A

pleural cavity

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163
Q

serves as a lubricant that allows for smooth motion of lung expansion (inspiration and expiration)

A

pleural fluid

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164
Q

middle of thorax, between the two pleural sacs

A

mediastinum

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165
Q

secondary bronchi; bronchial passageways connecting the mainstem bronchi with individual lobes of the lungs

A

lobar bronchi

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166
Q

how many lobe in the right lobar bronchi

A

3

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167
Q

how many lobe in the left lobar bronchi

A

2

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168
Q

common site for inhaled object to become dislodged

A

right primary bronchi

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169
Q

what side of the lobar bronchi is wider, shorter, and more vertical

A

right primary bronchi

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170
Q

what comes after lobar bronchi

A

segmental bronchi

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171
Q

how many lobe in the right of segmental bronchi

A

10

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172
Q

how many lobe in the left of segmental bronchi

A

8

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173
Q

what comes after segmental bronchi?

A

subsegmental bronchi

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174
Q

what connective tissues is found in subsegmental bronchi

A

lymphatic
arteries
nerves

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175
Q

what comes after subsegmental bronchi?

A

bronchioles

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176
Q
  • no cartilage in its wall
  • patency depends on elastic recoils of surrounding smooth muscle and alveolar pressure
A

bronchioles

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177
Q

it contains submucosal glands

A

bronchioles

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178
Q

produces mucus that cover the inner lining of airway

A

submucosal glands

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179
Q

what is the bronchi and bronchioles lined with

A

cilia

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180
Q

creates a constant whipping motion to propel mucus and foreign substance away from lungs

A

cilia

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181
Q

where gas exchange occurs

A

alveoli

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182
Q

3 types of alveoli

A

type I
type II
alveolar macrophages

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183
Q

make up the alveolar epithelium

A

type I
type II

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184
Q
  • 95% alveolar surface
  • barrier between air and alveolar surface
A

type I

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185
Q
  • 5% alveolar surface area
  • produces type I cells and surfactant
A

type II

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186
Q

how much percentage of alveolar surface area is in type I?

A

95%

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187
Q

how much percentage of alveolar surface area is in type II?

A

5%

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188
Q

phagocytic cells

A

alveolar macrophages

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189
Q
  • ingests foreign matter
  • important defense mechanism
A

phagocytic cells

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190
Q
  • gas exchange between air and blood
  • very thin to facilitate gas diffusion
A

respiratory membrane

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191
Q

what comes after bronchioles?

A

terminal bronchioles

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192
Q

what comes after terminal bronchioles?

A

respiratory bronchioles

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193
Q

transitional passageway between the conducting airways and gas exchange airways

A

terminal bronchioles

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194
Q

2 circulations at the lungs

A

pulmonary circulation
bronchial circulation

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195
Q

supply deoxygenated systemic blood to be oxygenated

A

pulmonary arteries

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196
Q

feed into pulmonary capillary network surrounding alveoli

A

pulmonary arteries

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197
Q

carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart

A

pulmonary veins

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198
Q

provide systemic oxygenated blood to lung tissues

A

bronchial arteries

199
Q

supply all lung tissue except alveoli

A

bronchial arteries

200
Q

carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart

A

bronchial veins

201
Q

oxygen transport with O2

A

blood to cell

202
Q

oxygen transport with CO2

A

cell to blood

203
Q

movement of air into the lungs

A

inspiration

204
Q

movement of air out of the lungs

A

expiration

205
Q

tendency for an expanded lung to decrease in size

A

lung recoil

206
Q

2 factors from keeping the lungs to collapse

A

surfactant
pleural pressure

207
Q
  • surface acting agent
  • mixture of lipoprotein molecules
  • acts in reducing surface tension in the alveoli
  • reduces the surface tension in alveoli by 10-fold
A

surfactant

208
Q

determined by radius, or size of the airway through which the air flowing, as well as by lung volume and airflow velocity

A

airway resistance

209
Q
  • reflects mechanism of ventilation
  • lung volume and lung capacity
A

lung function

210
Q

tidals volume, inspiratory reserve volume, expository reserve volume, residual volume

A

lung volume

211
Q

vital capacity, inspiratory capacity, functional residual capacity, total lung capacity

A

lung capacity

212
Q
  • elasticity and expandability of the lungs and thoracic structures
  • measurement of the ease with which the lungs and thorax expand
  • volume increases for each unit of pressure change in alveolar pressure
A

lung compliance

213
Q

higher than normal lung compliance, less or more resistance to lung and thorax expansion?

A

less

214
Q

lower than normal lung compliance, less or more resistance to lung and thorax expansion?

A

more

215
Q

oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged from areas from high concentration to low concentration at the air-blood interface

A

pulmonary diffusion

216
Q

actual blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature

A

pulmonary perfusion

217
Q

measuring volume of air moving in and out of respiratory systems

A

spirometry

218
Q

device used to measure these pulmonary volumes

A

spirometer

219
Q

measure of volume of air inspired or expired with each breath

A

tidal volume

220
Q

approximate volume for tidal volume at rest

A

~500 mL

221
Q

measure of volume of air inspired forcefully after inspiration of the TV

A

inspiratory reserve volume

222
Q

approximate volume for inspiratory reserve volume at rest

A

~3000 mL

223
Q

measure of volume of air expired forcefully after expiration of the TV

A

expiratory reserve volume

224
Q

approximate volume for expiratory reserve volume at rest

A

~1100mL

225
Q

volume of air remaining in the respiratory passages and lungs after the most forceful expiration

A

residual volume

226
Q

approximate volume of residual volume

A

~1200 mL

227
Q

sum of two or more pulmonary volumes

A

pulmonary capacities

228
Q

volume of air inspire maximally after a normal expiration

A

inspiratory capacity

229
Q

formula for inspiratory capacity

A

IC = IRV + TV

230
Q

approximate volume for inspiratory capacity at rest

A

~3500 mL

231
Q

volume of air remaining in lungs after a normal expiration

A

functional residual capacity

232
Q

formula for functional residual capacity

A

FRC = ERV + RV

233
Q

approximate volume for functional residual capacity at rest

A

~2300 mL

234
Q

maximum air that a person can expel from the respiratory tract after maximum inspirations

A

vital capacity

235
Q

formula for vital capacity

A

VC = IRV + TV + ERV

236
Q

approximate volume for vital capacity at rest

A

~4600 mL

237
Q

sum of all lung volumes

A

total lung capacity

238
Q

formula for vital capacity

A

VC = IRV + TV + ERV

239
Q

approximate volume for total lung capacity at rest

A

~5800 mL

240
Q
  • rapid maximum inspire and expire
  • air expired at the end of the is the person’s FEVC
A

forced respiratory vital capacity

241
Q
  • air expired during first second
A

forced expiratory volume in 1 second

242
Q

only measures movement of air into and out of the lungs, not amount of air available for gas exchange

A

minute ventilation

243
Q

no gas exchange occurs here

A

dead space

244
Q
  • air available for gas exchange
  • slow, deep breathing increases AVR and rapid, shallow breathing decreases AVR
A

alveolar ventilation

245
Q

pressure exerted by a gas in mixture of gases

A

partial pressure

246
Q

total pressure from each gas is determined by total volume represented by each of the gas type

A

dalton’s law

247
Q

inverse relationship
- as volume increases in closed container the pressure drops, or vice versa

A

boyle’s law

248
Q

a state of low level of oxygen in the blood brought by inadequate supply or ineffective gas exchange

A

hypoxemia

249
Q

resistance to airflow is proportional to the diameter of a tube raised to the fourth power

A

poiseuille’s law

250
Q

which pressure is greater during inspiration

A

atmospheric

251
Q

which pressure is greater during expiration

A

alveolar pressure

252
Q

what causes the lung to decrease in size during lung recoil?

A

elastic fibers in connective tissue
surface tension

253
Q

what causes subatmospheric pleural pressure

A

removal of fluid from pleural cavity
lung recoil

254
Q

factors that affect lung compliance

A

surface tension of the alveoli
connective tissue and water content of the lungs
compliance of the thoracic cavity

255
Q

factors that alter pulmonary volumes and capacity

A

sex
age
body size
physical condition

256
Q

localized reaction intended to neutralize, control, or eliminate the offending agent to prepare the site for repair

A

inflammation

257
Q

5 cardinal signs of inflammation

A

redness
warmth
swelling
pain
loss of function

258
Q

other term for redness

A

rubor

259
Q

other term for warmth

A

calor

260
Q

other term for swelling

A

edema or tumour

261
Q

other term for pain

A

dolor

262
Q

occurs when cells or tissue are injured or killed and naturally occurs in healthy tissues surrounding the site of injury

A

inflammation

263
Q

nonspecific protective response of the body

A

inflammation

264
Q

chemical mediators of inflammation

A

histamine
kinins
prostaglandins

265
Q
  • present in many tissues, most concentrated on mast cells
  • released when an injury occurs
  • responsible for early changes in vasodilation and vascular permeability
A

histamine

266
Q
  • cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability
  • attract neutrophils to the area
A

kinins

267
Q

increase vascular permeability

A

prostaglandins

268
Q

one chemical mediators that is suspected of causing pain

A

bradykinin

269
Q

most common sign of systemic response

A

fever

270
Q

fever is most likely caused by ___ released from ___ and ___

A

endogenous pyrogens
neutrophils
macrophages

271
Q

increase in synthesis and release of neutrophils

A

leukocytosis

272
Q

enhances body’s ability to fight infection

A

neutrophils

273
Q

nonspecific symptoms of inflammation (fever)

A

malaise
anorexia
aching
weakness

274
Q

inflammation that lasts less than 2 weeks

A

acute inflammation

275
Q

does acute inflammation have a protective function

A

YES

276
Q

inflammation that may be present for many months or years

A

chronic inflammation

277
Q

does chronic inflammation serve beneficial and protective function

A

NO

278
Q

the origination and development of a disease

A

pathogenesis

279
Q
  • obstruct the opening of the airway
  • limit the efficacy of gas movement in and out of the respiratory tract
A

obstructive disorders

280
Q

what NDx is for hypoxemia

A

ineffective gas exchange

281
Q

what NDx is for cyanosis

A

ineffective gas exchange

282
Q

what NDx is for dyspnea

A

ineffective breathing pattern

283
Q

what NDx is for labored breathing

A

ineffective breathing pattern

284
Q

ear pain term

A

otalgia

285
Q

difficulty recognizing scents

A

anosmia

286
Q

what color is the sputum if there is a sign of pneumonia

A

rusty colored sputum

287
Q

blood-tinged sputum

A

hemoptysis

288
Q

what NDx is for mucus

A

ineffective airway clearance
acute pain
imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement

289
Q

what NDx is for adventitious breath sounds

A

ineffective airway clearance

290
Q

what NDx is for clubbing

A

impaired gas exchange

291
Q

what NDx is for fatigue

A

fatigue
activity intolerance

292
Q

what NDx is for hoarseness of voice and aphonia

A

impaired verbal communication
pain
ineffective airway clearance

293
Q

what NDx is for dysphagia

A

pain
impaired swallowing
imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement

294
Q

lymph nodes in the neck may be affected as they facilitate the removal of the inflammatory agents and debris

A

cervical lymphadenopathies

295
Q

what NDx is for cervical lymphadenopathies

A

acute pain

296
Q

what NDx is for changes in diameter of the thoracic cavity

A

ineffective gas exchange
body image disturbance

297
Q

associated with the release of pyrogen coming from the inflammatory debris that resets temperature in the level of the hypothalamus

A

fever

298
Q

other manifestations for fever

A

chills
generalized body malaise
painful joints

299
Q

what NDx is for fever

A

hyperthermia
infection

300
Q

what NDx is for anorexia

A

imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement
activity intolerance

301
Q

metabolic disturbance that is often associated with retained carbon dioxide that is converted to carbonic acid when suspended in water

A

respiratory acidosis

302
Q

respiratory acidosis may trigger excessive stimulation that causes

A

irritability
tachyarrhythmias
heightened sympathetic nervous system response

303
Q

what NDx is for respiratory acidosis

A

impaired gas exchange
fluid and electrolyte imbalances
risk for injury

304
Q

allows the production of an image in multiple cross-sections (or slices) by sing rotating beams

A

computed tomography scan

305
Q

computed tomography scan has two variants

A

non-contrast
with contrast

306
Q

what variant of CT scan is better

A

with contrast

307
Q

how can dye be administered in CT scan

A

orally
IV

308
Q
  • invasive procedures
  • involve the insertion of a scope from the mouth passing through the pharynx to the glottis to visualize either the larynx or bronchial tree
A

laryngoscopy
bronchoscopy

309
Q

does laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy need informed consent

A

YES

310
Q

what response will be triggered during laryngoscopy/bronchoscopy

A

vagal response or gag reflex

311
Q

how long is NPO before laryngoscopy/bronchoscopy

A

at least 6 hours

312
Q

what position is the intra-procedural nursing responsibilities in laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy

A

supine position with neck hyperextended

313
Q

what anesthesia is used for laryngoscopy/bronchoscopy

A

topical anesthetic spray (lidocaine)

314
Q

emergency drug for post-procedural nursing responsibilities for laryngoscopy/bronchscopy

A

epinephrine

315
Q

frequent swallowing means

A

bleeding

316
Q

percussion, vibration, postural drainage other term

A

chest physiotherapy (CPT)

317
Q

other term for chest physiotherapy

A

percussion
vibration
postural drainage

318
Q

other term for percussion

A

clapping

319
Q

performed to aid disloadge thick and tenacious secretions

A

percussion

320
Q

series of vigorous quivering produced by hands that increases turbulence of exhaled air thus loosens thickened secretions

A

vibration

321
Q

facilitates decretion drainage by gravity from various lung segments

A

postural drainage

322
Q

facilitates secretions drainage by gravity from various lung segments

A

postural drainage

323
Q

how much lpm for nasal cannula

A

2-6 lmp

324
Q

how much lpm for simple face mask

A

5-8 lmp

325
Q

how much lpm fpr partial rebreather mask

A

6-10 lpm

326
Q

how much lpm for nonrebreather mask

A

10-15 lpm

327
Q

how much lpm for venturi mask

A

4-10 lpm

328
Q

% for blue venturi mask

A

24%

329
Q

start flow rate for blue venturi mask

A

2 L/min

330
Q

% for white venturi mask

A

28%

331
Q

start flow rate for white venturi mask

A

4 L/min

332
Q

% for orange venturi mask

A

31%

333
Q

start flow rate for orange venturi mask

A

6 L/min

334
Q

% for yellow venturi mask

A

35%

335
Q

start flow rate for yellow venturi mask

A

8 L/min

336
Q

% for red venturi mask

A

40%

337
Q

start flow rate for red venturi mask

A

10 L/min

338
Q

% for green venturi mask

A

60%

339
Q

start flow rate for green venturi mask

A

15 L/min

340
Q

sequence for venturi mask color

A

blue
white
orange
yellow
red
green

341
Q

position for nasotracheal sunctioning

A

semi-fowler

342
Q

maintain sterile technique in nasotracheal suctioning for all ages

A

adult fr 12-18
child fr 8-10
infant fr 5-8

343
Q

what should you do before suctioning the client

A

hyperoxygenate

344
Q

used to dilate the bronchi to open air passages and to trigger a higher rate and depth of respiration

A

sympathomimetics

345
Q

affect the nasal cavity, sinuses, pharynx, larynx and the lymphoid tissue that surround the throat opeing, tonsils

A

upper airway disorders

346
Q

inflammation of the nasal mucosa that leads to nasal congestion

A

rhinitis

347
Q

this coexsists with other respiratory disorders like asthma

A

rhinitis

348
Q

rhinitis can be

A

acute or chronic
allergic
nonallergic

349
Q

what causes rhinitis

A

changes in temp
odors
infection
age
systemic disease
use of OTC and prescribed nasal decongestants
presence of foreign body

350
Q

rhinitis where there is exposure to allergens

A

allergic rhinitis

351
Q

rhinitis that is a common cold

A

nonallergic rhinitis

352
Q

what are some drug-induced rhinitis

A

antihypertensives
antidepressants
antipsychotics
aspirin
antianxiety

353
Q

classic manifestations of rhinitis

A

rhinorrhea
nasal congestion
nasal discharge
pruritis
sneezing
headache

354
Q

classic manifestations of rhinitis

A

rhinorrhea
nasal congestion
nasal discharge
sneezing
pruritus
headache

355
Q

classifications of rhinitis

A

acute rhinitis
allergic rhinitis
vasomotor rhinitis
rhinitis medicamentos

356
Q
  • type of rhinitis that can be bacterial (staphylococcus) or viral (rhinovirus) in origin
  • self-limiting within 5-7 days
A

acute rhinitis

357
Q

common manifestations of acute rhinitis

A

dryness and stuffiness
excessive production of nasal secretions
lacrimation
fever

358
Q

management for acute rhinitis

A

symptomatic
steam inhalation
decongestants and antibiotics
oral fluid intake

359
Q

aka hay fever, seasonal allergic rhinitis

A

allergic rhinitis

360
Q

other term for allergic rhinitis

A

hay fever
seasonal allergic rhinitis

361
Q

seasonal disorder cause

A

allergens

362
Q

common manifestations for allergic rhinitis

A

4 major s/sx
common to acute rhinitis
nasal obstruction (mouth breathers)

363
Q

4 major s/sx of allergic rhinitis

A

copious amount of serous nasal discharge
nasal congestion
sneezing
nose and throat itching

364
Q

management for allergic rhinitis

A

symptomatic
allergy evaluation
desensitization and avoidance of allergen
decongestants anti-histamines mast-cell stabilizing sprays

365
Q
  • a type of rhinitis that has no identifiable cause
  • clinical manifestations mimic that of acute rhinitis and allergic rhinitis
  • treatment is symptomatic
A

vasomotor rhintis

366
Q
  • over-dosage of the medications used to treat rhinitis
  • abrupt discontinuation of steroid medication
A

rhinitis medicamentosa

367
Q

other term for rhinosinusitis

A

sinusitis

368
Q

other term for sinusitis

A

rhinosinusitis

369
Q

inflammation of the paranasal sinuses

A

sinusitis

370
Q

causes of sinusitis

A

deviated nasal septum
bony abnormalities
congenital malformation
infections or allergies

371
Q

manifestations of sinusitis

A

manifestations of the inflammatory process (with fever and chills)
headache
facial pain
pain or numbness on the upper teeth
decreased sense of smell
purulent nasal discharges
post nasal drip
unpleasant breath

372
Q

medical management of sinusitis

A

use of the appropriate antibiotic
decongestants
nasal corticosteroids
humidification
antral irrigation or sinus lavage

373
Q

surgical management of sinusitis

A

functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS)
caldwell-luc procedure
external sphenoethmoidectomy

374
Q

nursing management of the surgical client for sinusitis

A

profuse bleeding
respiratory status
ice compress
semi to high fowler
removal of nasal pack in the morning after surgery
increase oral fluid intake
use drip pad under the nose
avoid nasal blowing within 7-10 days; sneeze with an open mouth
avoid strenuous activities within 2 weeks

375
Q

grapelike growth on the mucous membrane and loose connective tissue; commonly seen among clients with prolonged sinusitis and severe allergy

A

nasal polyps

376
Q

manifestations for nasal polyps

A

anosmia
nasal quality of voice
mouth breathing

377
Q

medical management of nasal polyps

A

symptomatic
treatment of the underlying factor

378
Q

surgical management for nasal polyps

A

nasal polyextomy

379
Q

medical management of nasal polyps

A

symptomatic
treatment of the underlying factor

380
Q

surgical management for nasal polyps

A

nasal polypectomy

381
Q

nursing management of the surgical client for nasal polyps

A

nasal pack remain (24-48 hours); obligatory mouth breathers
humidification; mouth care
increase oral fluid intake
semi to high fowler
ice compression (first 24 hours)
assess respiratory status
frequent swallowing
mild analgesic; not aspirin

382
Q

nursing management of the surgical client for nasal polyps

A

nasal pack will remain for 24-48 hours; obligatory mouth breathers
humidification; mouth care
oral fluid intake
semi to high fowler
ice compression
respiratory status
frequent swallowing
mild analgesics; not aspirin

383
Q

usually caused by nasal fracture

A

deviated nasal septum

384
Q

manifestations for deviated nasal septum

A

obstruction to nasal breathing
noisy breathing
nasal drip
dryness of the nasal and oral mucosa

385
Q

surgical management for deviated ansal septum

A

reduction of a nasal fracture
rhinoplasty
nasal septoplasty

386
Q

inflammation of the tonsils (pharyngeal, palatine and lingual)

A

tonsillitis

387
Q

etiology of tonsillitis

A

group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus

388
Q

tonsillitis can be associated with other infectious and inflammatory body conditions that may affect the

A

heart
kidneys

389
Q

what condition of the heart in tonsillits

A

rheumatic fever leading to rheumatic heart disease

390
Q

what condition of the kidneys in tonsillitis

A

acute glomerulonephritis

391
Q

tonsillitis can be caused by what causative agent

A

haemophilus influenzae

392
Q

manifestations of tonsillitis

A

sore throat
odynophagia
dysphagia
otalgia
fever, chills
mouth breathing
anorexia
general malaise
cervical lymphadenopathy

393
Q

complications of tonsillitis

A

pneumonia
acute glomerulonephritis
osteomyelitis
rheumatic fever

394
Q

surgical management for tonsillitis

A

tonsillectomy
adenoidectomy

395
Q

indications for surgery in tonsillitis

A

recurrent, incapacitating episodes
hypertrophy
resolution of a peritonsillar abscess
repeated ear problems r/t eustachian tube obstruction
sinus complication

396
Q

management for tonsillitis

A

antibiotics
saline throat gargles
bed rest
oral fluid intake

397
Q

dietary management for tonsillitis

A

less seasoned
non spicy
unsweetened

398
Q

nursing management of the surgical client for tonsillitis

A

lateral decubitus or prone position, head oriented towards the side
frequent swallowing
melena
ice chips
monitor for hemorrhage
analgesics
oral fluid intake

399
Q

dietary management for tonsillitis after surgery

A

cool
soft
less seasoned

400
Q

is hemorrhage common for tonsillectomy

A

YES only within 24-48 hours

401
Q

what kind of analgesics is administered for tonsillitis after tonsillectomy

A

acetaminophen
codeine

402
Q

inflammation of the pharynx (soft palate, pharyngeal tonsils, uvula)

A

pharyngitis

403
Q

etioloy of pharyngitis

A

bacterial infection (group A beta-hemolytic stretococcus)
chronic smokers

404
Q

manifestations of pharyngitis

A

*similar to tonsillitis
sore throat
odynophagia
dysphagia
otalgia
fever, chills
mouth breathing
anorexia
cervical lymphadenopathy

405
Q

medical management for pharyngitis

A

antibiotics
analgesics
anti-pyretics

406
Q

nursing management for pharyngitis

A

proper handwashing
bed rest
increase fluid intake
warm saline irrigation and gargles

407
Q

what causes chronic pharyngitis

A

chronic smokers
chronic cough
living in dusty environment
use their voice excessively

408
Q

management for chronic pharyngitis

A

identification and correcting the underlying factors
management of acute pharyngitis

409
Q

inflammation of the larynx

A

laryngitis

410
Q

causes of laryngitis

A

chrnic smokers
vocal abuse
GERD

411
Q

manifestations of laryngitis

A

hoarseness of voice
aphonia
stridor
dyspnea
sore throat
fever
respiratory distress

412
Q

management of laryngitis

A

humidification
voice rest
increase fluid intake
antibiotics
systemic corticosteroids
management for GERD

413
Q

affect the tracheobronchial tree (obstructive) and lungs (restrictive)

A

lower airway disorders

414
Q

affect the tracheobronchial tree (obstructive) and lungs (restrictive)

A

lower airway disorders

415
Q

other term for obstructive lung disease

A

chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD)

416
Q

other term for obstructive lung disease

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

417
Q

COPD is on what rank as the leading cause of death around the world

A

third

418
Q

etiologies of COPD

A

chronic cigarette smoking
occupational dust
hereditary and genetic predisposition
chronic respiratory infections
common among males

419
Q

independent management for COPD

A

stay away from triggers
activity restrictions
wear mask in cold environment
orthopneic position
ability to expectorate
sputum appearance
small frequent feeding

420
Q

dependent management for COPD

A

oxygen therapy at low concentration (2-3 lpm)

421
Q

interdependent management for COPD

A

limit carbs
more protein
high fat diet

422
Q

other term for reactive airway disease

A

asthma

423
Q

other term for asthma

A

reactive airway disease

424
Q

hyperreactive airway

A

asthma

425
Q
  • disorder of the bronchial airways characterized by reversible bronchospasm
  • a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airway in which many cells and cellular elements play a role
A

asthma

426
Q

what cells play a role in asthma

A

mast cells
eosinophils
T lymphocytes
SRS-A
histamine
bradykinin
leukotrienes

427
Q

triggers for asthma

A

bronchospastic
inflammatory

428
Q

etiologies of asthma

A

inhalation of allergens
viral respiratory tract infections
exercised-induced asthma
inhaled irritants
nasal polyps and recurrent acute rhinitis
nonselective beta blockers and ophthalmic preparation
GERD
changes in temperature
excitatory status

429
Q

manifestations of asthma

A

episodic wheezing
chest tightness
prolonged expiration
dyspnea and fatigue
tachypnea, anxiety, and apprehension
continuous coughing
pulsus paradoxus
moist skin

430
Q

chest tightness

A

prolonged expiration

431
Q

manifestations of asthma

A

episodic wheezing
chest tightness
prolonged expiration
dyspnea and fatigue
tachypnea, anxiety, and apprehension
continuous coughing
pulsus paradoxus
moist skin

432
Q

notify physician is these developed (under asthma)

A

inaudible breath sounds
increased level of anxiety
increased respiratory rate and depth
feelings of not being able to catch one’s breath
cyanosis

433
Q

complications of asthma

A

status asthmaticus
pneumothorax
cor pulmonale
respiratory acidosis
respiratory and cardiac arrest

434
Q

state of continuous laryngospasms that causes cyanosis

A

asthmaticus

435
Q

an enlarged right ventricle in your heart that happens because of a lung condition

A

cor pulmonale

436
Q

medical management of asthma

A

prevention of chronic asthma and asthma exacerbations
maintenance of normal activity levels
maintenance of normal or near normal lung function
minimal or no side effects on the drug therapy

437
Q

pharmacologic management of asthma

A

quick relief medications
long-term medications

438
Q

what are the quick relief medications of asthma

A

beta adrenergic blockers
anticholinergics
short course corticosteroids therapy

439
Q

beta adrenergic blockers medications for asthma

A

albuterol
pilbuterol
terbutalline

440
Q

anticholinergics medications for asthma

A

ipratropium bromide
atropine sulfate

441
Q

long term medications for asthma

A

anti-inflammatory agents
mast-cell stabilizers
beta adrenergic blockers
leukotriene modifiers

442
Q

anti-inflammatory agents medications for asthma

A

beclomethasone
traimcinolone
flunisolide
budesonide

443
Q

mast-cell stabilizers medications for asthma

A

socium cromolyn
nedocromyn

444
Q

leukotriene modifiers medications for asthma

A

zafirlukast
montelukast sodium

445
Q
  • disorders that may lead to the progressive destruction of the alveolar walls
  • characterized by the loss of lung elasticity and abnormal aenlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, with progressive destruction of the alveolar walls and capillary beds
A

emphysema

446
Q
  • disorders that may lead to the progressive destruction of the alveolar walls
  • characterized by the loss of lung elasticity and abnormal aenlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, with progressive destruction of the alveolar walls and capillary beds
A

emphysema

447
Q

loss of elastic recoil

A

dead spaces

448
Q

three types of emphysema

A

centrilobular (centriacinar)
panlobular
paraseptal (panacinar)

449
Q

implicated cause of emphysema

A

chronic smoking
inherited deficiency in alpha 1 antitrypsin

450
Q

manifestations of emphysema

A

dyspnea on exertion initially (dyspnea at rest)
pursed-lip breathing
use of accessory muscles
cyanosis
clubbing
peripheral edema
pink puffers

451
Q

medical management of emphysema

A

bronchodilators
anticholinergics
theophylline
inhaled corticosteroids

452
Q

bronchodilators medications for emphysema

A

albuterol
salbutamol

453
Q

anticholinergics medications for emphysema

A

ipratropium bromide
atropine sulfate

454
Q
  • airway obstruction that is caused by inflammation of the major small airways
  • chronic mucus production
  • characterized by the hyperplasia of the submucosal gland and edema
A

chronic bronchitis

455
Q

characteristics of chronic bronchitis

A

increase in size and number of submucous glands in large bronchi
increase goblet cells numbers
impaired ciliary functions

456
Q

diagnosis for chronic bronchitis

A

productive cough for 3 months duration in 2 consecutive years persistent sputum production

457
Q

manifestations of bronchitis

A

productive cough
decreased exercise tolerance
wheezing
shortness of breath
prolonged expiration
copious amounts of sputum
chronic hypozemia, hypercapnia
clubbing
blue bloaters

458
Q

management of bronchitis

A

bronchodilators
anticholinergics
theophylline
inhaled corticosteroids

459
Q

general nursing management of bronchitis

A

quit smoking
avoid exposure to URTI
small nutritious and frequent feedings
breathing exercises
monitor sputum

460
Q

general nursing management of bronchitis

A

quit smoking
avoid exposure to URTI
small nutritious and frequent feedings
breathing exercises
monitor sputum

461
Q

dietary management for bronchitis

A

high protein
high fat
high caloric
low carbohydrate

462
Q

dietary management for bronchitis

A

high protein
high fat
high caloric
low carbohydrate

463
Q

infectious disease that primarily affects the lung parenchyma

A

pulmonary tuberculosis

464
Q

causative agent for PTB

A

mycobacterium tubercle

465
Q

infectious disease that primarily affects the lung parenchyma

A

pulmonary tuberculosis

466
Q

causative agent for PTB

A

mycobacterium tubercle

467
Q

mode of transmission for PTB

A

airborne
droplet

468
Q

mode of transmission for PTB

A

airborne
droplet

469
Q

typical signs of PTB

A

low-grade fever
cough
night sweats
fatigue
weight loss
nonproductive cough/mucopurulent sputum
hemoptysis

470
Q

meaning of DOTS

A

directly observed treatment short-course

471
Q
  • acute viral infection of the URT and LRT
  • seasonal disorder
A

influenza

472
Q

causative agent of influenza

A

haemophilus parainfluenzae (A, B, C)

473
Q

incubation period

A

1-4 days or witithin 2 days

474
Q

communicability period

A

1 day before the appearance of the s/sx and 5 days after onset

475
Q

manifestations of influenza (nonspecific)

A

fever chills
malaise
muscle aching
headache
profuse water discharges
sore throat
nonproductive cough

476
Q

manifestations of influenza (specific)

A

rapid onset
runny nose
continuous blowing and cough

477
Q

symptomatic approach of influenza

A

bed rest
keeping the client warm
drink large amount of liquids

478
Q

pharmacotherapy of influenza

A

first generation antiviral drug
second genration antiviral drug

479
Q

first generation antiviral drug

A

amantadine
rimantadine

480
Q

amantadine medications for influenza

A

symmetrel

481
Q

rimantadine medication for influenza

A

flumadine

482
Q

second generation anti-viral drug

A

zanamivir
oseltamavir

483
Q

zanamivir medication for influenza

A

relenza

484
Q

oseltamavir medication for influenza

A

tamiflu

485
Q

inflammation of the lung parenchyma usually associated with a marked increase in interstitial and alveolar fluid

A

pneumonia

486
Q

major risk factor of pneumonia

A

advanced age
history of smoking
URTI
tracheal intubation
prolonged immobility
immunosuppressive therapy
nonfunctional immune system
malnutrition
dehydration
chronic disease states

487
Q

other etiologies of pneumonia

A

infectious agents
aspiration
inhalation of toxic
airpollution
altered LOC

488
Q

manifestations of pneumonia

A

fever
chills
pleuritic chest pain
cough
sputum production
hemoptysis
headache
fatigue
abnormal breath sounds
tactile fremitus is higher on the area of consolidation
dull sounds on the area of consolidation
unequal chest wall expansion
purulent sputum

489
Q

diagnosis of pneumonia

A

sputum culture
bronchioscopy
chest radiography
skin testing
ABG

490
Q

classification: based on the lobe involved (pneumonia)

A

segmental pneumonia
lobar pneumonia
bilateral pneumonia

491
Q

classification: based on the location and radiologic appearance

A

bronchopneumonia (bronchial)
interstitial (reticular) pneumonia
alveolar (acinar)
necrotizing

492
Q

management of pneumonia

A

antibiotics
o2 therapy
bronchodilators
CPT
tracheal suctioning

493
Q

caused by the different microorganisms that are suspended in the environment

A

community acquired pneumonia

494
Q

how can it be considered as community acquired pneumonia

A

infection that begins outside the hospital
diagnosed within 48 hours after hospital admission

495
Q

manifestation of community acquired pneumonia

A

typical to pneumonia

496
Q
  • dysphagia increases the risk for this
  • occurs when foreign substances enter the respiratory tract
  • may become fatal
A

aspiration pneumonia

Medical-Surgical Nursing (4 decks)

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