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Module 2 > Module 2 > Flashcards

Module 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The national plan of Integrated Airport Systems identifies how many airports that are considered significant to the national airspace system?

A

3,400

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2
Q

What type of plan recommends the general location and characteristics of new airports and the nature of development and expansion of existing ones.

A

Metro Airport System Planning (MASP)… MASP has big public input, is to understand the interrelationship of the airports within a specific region.
Accounts for intermodal access, provides ideas, similar to master plan.

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3
Q

FAA believes that and airport should

A

Be safe and efficient,
affordable: be self sufficient,
Flexible: be able to accommodate new aircraft types,
Permanent: remain open
Extensive: no more than 20 miles from NPIAS airport.
Contribute: to local economy

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4
Q

State & Metropolitan Airport Planning System

A

Designed to provide information and guidance, to provide balanced and integrated air transportation system.

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5
Q

MASP

A

Primary purposes is to understand the interrelationship of the airports within a specific region

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6
Q

Airport master plan

A

Study that identifies short, medium, and longer term development plans to meet future aviation demand. Provides a strategy for the development of the airport.

Provides a framework to guide that is cost effective, satisfies the need of the airport, the market and the community, while balancing environmental and socioeconomic impact.

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7
Q

ALP

A

An appropriate alternative to a full master plan, whenever the fundamental assumptions of the previous master plan have not changed. Otherwise done as part of the master plan.

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8
Q

ALP update (only)

A 
A mini master plan
ALP narrative report:
Forecasts,
Proposed developments,
Rationale narrative for unusual design,
Layout sketches.
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9
Q

Work products of an ALP

A 
Technical report (all of the data),
Summary report,
ALP,
Web page,
Public Information Kit
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10
Q

Steps of a master plan

A
  1. Preplanning
  2. Public involvement
  3. Environmental considerations
  4. Existing conditions
  5. Aviation forecasts
  6. Facility requirements
  7. Alternatives
  8. ALP
  9. Facilities implementation plan
  10. Financial feasibility analysis.
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11
Q

What is the Brooke’s Act?

A

Requires the the selection of a consultant to be based on qualifications according to a fair and open selection process.

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12
Q

Consultant Contract Options. What is preferable to FAA?

A

Fixed priced arrangement (minimum admin burden)

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13
Q

Type of contract if level of effort or duration of a project is uncertain

A

A cost plus fixed fee contract, or a time and materials contract ( typically done where there are big environmental issues)

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14
Q

Which step in the master plan focus on historical review of the airport and its facilities, airspace, structures, etc?

A

Existing conditions

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15
Q

Which relates to the public’s ability to use air travel?

A

Demographics

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16
Q

This type of GA airport serves regional airport

A

Local GA airport.

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17
Q

What document must be up to date in order to receive federal funding?

A

ALP

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18
Q

An airport executive needs to find out the airports plan for leasing areas on the airport’ should look to:

A

Airport land use drawing

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19
Q

On which ALP sheet can I find info on when and how specific parcels of airport property were acquired?

A

Exhibit A aka airport property map.

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20
Q

Airport excutive needs to find out the airport’s pand for leasing areas on the airport, where would he go to?

A

Airport Land Use drawing

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21
Q

Which ALP sheet can I find out when and how specific parcels of airport preperty were aquired?

A

Property Map aka Exhibit A

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22
Q

What is an example of a ‘formal’ response to an environmental violation?

A

Administrative responses carrying the weight of legal orders to comply

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23
Q

Waht did the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act do>

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created a
two-tier system for waste management by categorizing hazardous
wastes and details regulations for the transport, storage and
disposal facilities – most significantly, it requires that hazardous
wastes are tracked from cradle to grave.

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24
Q

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide and Rodenticide Control

Act of 1972

A

(FIFRA), protects ground water while using pesticides

and fungicides.

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25
Q

Clean Air Act of 1970 required the EPA to

A

identify pollutants
and set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and
requires states to develop State Implementation Plans (SIP).

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26
Q

the master plan will include the

following elements: (

A

1) pre-planning, (2) public involvement, (3)
environmental considerations, (4) existing conditions, (5) aviation
forecasts, (6) facility requirements, (7) alternatives to development
and evaluation, (8) Airport Layout Plans (9) a facilities
implementation plan, and (10) a financial feasibility analysis.

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27
Q

regarding Master Plan

A

After consultant selection, the creation of a public involvement
(i.e., “outreach”) program is the first step in a master plan study.
Throughout the master plan process, the public involvement
program shares information and collaborates on decision-making.
The public involvement program should include elected and
appointed officials, residents, travelers, tenants and members of the
general public. Collectively, this group is known as the
stakeholders.

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28
Q

Regarding Master Plan

A

After the organizational and preplanning phase, an inventory of
pertinent data is made. The first step is to collect all types of data
pertaining to the airport service area. This step includes a
historical review of the airport and its facilities, airspace
structures and navigation aids (navaids), airport-related land
use, aeronautical activity, and socioeconomic factors.

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29
Q

The

most common forecast techniques include:

A
  1. Regression Analysis – a statistical technique tying aviation
    demand to enplanements, population and income levels.
  2. Trend Analysis and Extrapolation – uses the historical
    pattern of aviation activity to project future trends.
  3. Market Share Analysis – assumes a top-down relationship
    between national, regional, state and local forecasts where
    local forecasts represent a market share or percentage of
    national forecasts.
  4. Smoothing – a statistical technique applied to historical
    data focused more on the recent trends and conditions at the
    airport.
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30
Q

the evaluation of
peak hour demand is often
based on

A

the peak hour of the
average day of the peak
month.

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31
Q

The airport layout plan is required to include

A

(1) the Airport
Layout Drawing (known as the ALP sheet), (2) The Airport
Airspace Drawing, (3) the Inner Portion of the Approach Surface Drawing, (4) the Terminal Area Drawing, (5) the Land Use
Drawing, (6) the Runway Departure Surfaces Drawing, and (7) the
Airport Property Map (usually referred to as the Exhibit A).

32
Q

on-airport and off-airport land use drawings

depict

A

existing and recommended uses of all land
within the ultimate airport property line and within the
vicinity of the airport, at least to the 65 DNL noise
contour.

33
Q

The feasibility analysis

A

includes the preparation of a CIP funding
plan, a review of the airport’s financial structure with recognition
of certain constraints, such as bond, airline-use agreements, leases,
and an analysis of historical cash flow.

34
Q

Air Route Surveillance Radar (ARSR)

A

has a longer range
(100-250 nautical miles) and is used for en route flight
separation and identification.

35
Q

Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)

A

is a shortrange
radar system used by air traffic controllers to
augment and confirm information and vehicle position
reporting

36
Q

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM)

A

is a high-update
radar coupled with a high resolution ATC display that
allows more accurate tracking of inbound aircraft, so much
so that aircraft in IMC can fly closer than 4,300-feet (but
not less than 3,000-feet) into two parallel runways.

37
Q

For naviagation to be function it needs

A

Integrity, accuracy, availability, reliability

38
Q

The most useful sources for terminal design information are:

A

(1) the current airport master plan, (2) the FAA published terminal
area forecasts, (3) forecasts developed by Airlines for America
(A4A), and (4) those forecasts developed by the individual airlines
serving the airport.

39
Q

Typically the peak month is

A

10 percent of

annual activity

40
Q

The peak-month

enplanements are then divided by the

A

number of days in the peak
month to arrive at the Average Day/Peak Month (ADPM)
baseline

41
Q

Through airports have a relatively

A

high percentage of originating

passengers combined with a low percentage of originating flights.

42
Q

Short-term parking is normally

considered to be less than three hours and represents

A

approximately 80 percent of all parking at the airport

43
Q

Key heliport design considerations include the

A

Touchdown and Lift-Off Area (TLOF) and the Final Approach

and Takeoff Area (FATO).

44
Q

Airport sponsors, in consultation with planners and
environmental specialists, consider environmental factors for
proposed airport development projects, and identify obvious, protected resources such as:

A

a. Endangered species
b. Historic properties
c. Wetlands
d. Parkland

45
Q

Environmental audits may be performed for

a number of reasons, such as

A

(1) determining the baseline
environmental conditions of a facility or operation, (2) determining
the potential environmental liabilities of a property before making
an acquisition decision or before initiating condemnation
proceedings, (3) identifying potential problems that could stop or
delay a construction program, resulting in potential schedule and
budget overruns, and (4) identifying tenant problems and ensuring
correction of any non-complying conditions.

46
Q

There are three basic factors that are likely to determine whether a
given public or private employee is personally liable

A

(1) ability to
make timely discovery of the problem, (2) power to direct the
activities of persons who control the mechanisms causing the
problem, and (3) ability to prevent and abate the damage.

47
Q

An EMS is a

A

business management practice
that serves as a strategic plan for addressing environmental
matters.

48
Q

Clean Air Act of 1970

A

required the EPA to identify pollutants
and set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) and
requires states to develop State Implementation Plans (SIP).

49
Q

The Clean Water Act of 1977(CWA)

A

a

50
Q

Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP).

A

Four types of storm water permit applications exist: (1) general, (2)
individual, (3) multi-sector general, and (4) construction.

51
Q

omprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation,

and Liability Act of 1980 (CERCLA)

A

is generally known as the

“Superfund.”

52
Q

Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986

SARA

A 
purpose of CERCLA and
SARA is to provide
authorities the means to
respond to uncontrolled
releases of hazardous
substances from inactive sites
that endanger public health
and the environment.
53
Q

SARA Title III created the

A

Emergency Planning and Community
Right-to- Know Act (EPCRA), a statute designed to improve
community access to information about chemical hazards and to
facilitate the development of chemical emergency response plans
EPCRA requires anyone who manufactures, processes, stores, or
uses hazardous chemicals to report the information to appropriate
state and local officials.

54
Q

In 1986, Congress created the

A

Leaking Underground Storage
Tank (LUST) Trust Fund to address releases from federally
regulated underground storage tanks (USTs)

55
Q

Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA), and the Federal Water

Pollution, Prevention, and Control Act of 1994 were

A

established
to restore and protect the nation’s rivers and lakes to safe
conditions for wildlife and humans. OPA requires various facilities
and airports to make provisions for Spill Prevention, Control and
Countermeasure Plans (SPCC Plans), and provisions that affect
Facility Response Plans (FRPs).

56
Q

LEED

is a certification process that

A

verifies a building or other
infrastructure meets stringent environmentally safe building and
related performance measures.

57
Q

1987 Airport and Airway Safety and

Capacity Expansion Act (ACEA)

A

funding priority was given to
airport projects that focused on enhancing safety and sustaining an
airport’s overall capacity to handle aircraft and ground operations.
The ACEA reauthorization of AIP funds also focused on objectives
to increase the capacity of the airport and airway system.

58
Q

When performing a capacity analysis

A

airport operators must
investigate four distinct elements: (1) airspace, (2) airfield, (3)
terminal, and (4) ground access. These are further broken down
into the major system components of runways, taxiways, aprons,
gate/terminal area, terminal/curbside interface, vehicle circulation
and parking areas, and the access roadway

59
Q

Throughput capacity

A

is defined as the rate at which aircraft can operate into or out of the
airfield without regard to the amount of delay incurred

60
Q

Practical

capacity is the rate at which aircraft can

A

operate without exceeding

a maximum acceptable level of delay.

61
Q

PHOCAP is the

A

total combined capacity

measure of the runway, taxiway, and gate areas.

62
Q

PANCAP is defined as the level of operation that results in

A

not
more than four minutes average delay per aircraft in a normal, peak
two-hour operating period.

63
Q

Airport Acceptance Rate

AAR

A

which is used by Air Route Traffic Control Centers
(ARTCC) to calculate the desired interval between successive
arrival aircraft.

64
Q

Air Traffic Operations Management System

(ATOMS) in which

A

FAA personnel record aircraft that are delayed
15 or more minutes by a specific cause (weather, terminal volume,
center volume, closed runways or taxiways, and National Airspace
System equipment interruptions).

65
Q

second source of delay information is through the

A

Airline

Service Quality Performance (ASQP) data collection

66
Q

Airport Safety and

Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

A

provided a basis for a
great majority of noise abatement planning at airports. Federal Aviation Regulation
Part 150, Airport Land Use Compatibility Planning, was adopted
in January 1985 as a result of the ASNA.

67
Q

Part 150 regulations govern the development and review of an

integrated plan to achieve noise control objectives by encouraging

A

compatible land uses in and around airports through the
development of Noise Exposure Maps (NEM) and Noise
Compatibility Programs (NCP).

68
Q

With passage of the 1990 Airport Noise and Capacity Act (ANCA),
a limit was placed on

A

the number of Stage 2 aircraft (over 75,000
pounds maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)) that were allowed to
operate in the U.S. Stage 2 aircraft have engines that represent
newer technology than Stage 1 aircraft, but the former still had
unacceptable levels of noise generation.

69
Q

In 1992, the Airport and Airway Safety, Capacity, Noise
Improvement and Intermodal Transportation Act was passed.
This Act required the FAA to study

A

the social, economic, and
health effects of airport noise at the 65, 60, and 55 dB (decibels)
DNL (Day-Night average Level) noise areas

70
Q

the perceived

loudness

A

doubles for every increase of 10 decibels

71
Q

An Integrated Noise Model (INM) is the standard

A

airport noise
prediction model used by airports and involves a complex and
detailed procedure for determining the DNL noise contour area for
a specific mix of aircraft.

72
Q

A popular tool for airports is the establishment of the

A

Airport
Influence Area or Public Airport Disclosure Maps that reveal
potentially noise-impacted areas to current boards and planning
commissions3

73
Q

viation Safety and Noise Abatement Act of 1979 (ASNA)

is the

A

principal law supporting federal efforts to identify and
reduce noise issues involving land use around domestic civil
airports.

74
Q

Noise
Exposure
Map
(NEM)

A

is designed to clearly identify an airport’s present and
future noise patterns and the land uses, which are not compatible
with the noise impacts. It serves as the standard reference for
anyone proposing noise sensitive development in the vicinity of an
airport39.

75
Q

The second part of a complete Part 150 study is the

A 
Noise
Compatibility Plan (NCP).
76
Q

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created a

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, created atwo-tier system for waste management by categorizing hazardouswastes and details regulations for the transport, storage anddisposal facilities – most significantly, it requires that hazardouswastes are tracked from cradle to grave. Anyone who generates ortransports hazardous wastes, or who owns or operates a facility forthe storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous wastes, falls underthe RCRA.

77
Q

in November 1976, the Secretary of Transportation and the Federal Aviation Administration adopted the

A

Aviation Noise Abatement Policy (ANAP).

Module 2 (4 decks)

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