Module 2 Flashcards

Review past questions

1
Q

Use a method that can be used to estimate the capacity of an air conditioning unit.

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 2 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 3 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 5 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 8 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

A

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

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2
Q

The following statement(s) is/are true about SEER (Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio):

8 or 10 SEER is the current minimum efficiency manufactured.

13 or 14 SEER is the current minimum efficiency manufactured.

Units before 1995 may be only 4 or 5 SEER.

Units with a higher SEER are approximately the same physical size as units with a lower SEER (but this is starting to change).

The previous standard for SEER was 5.

A

13 or 14 SEER is the current minimum efficiency manufactured.

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3
Q

When inspecting an air conditioning unit, which of the following is considered a major problem?

The outside unit has 12 inches of clearance on each side.

Foliage is present around the unit but is trimmed back 6 inches all around.

The outside unit has 5 feet of clearance from the home.

Refrigerant lines are frozen.

The insulation on the suction line is old, deteriorated and damaged.

A

Refrigerant lines are frozen.

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4
Q

The following ASHI standard of practice requires home inspectors to tell the client:

The age of the unit.

The capacity of the unit.

When the equipment is beyond its normal lifespan.

The serial number, model number, and maximum amperages.

The age, capacity, and model number.

A

When the equipment is beyond its normal lifespan.

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5
Q

When inspecting an AC unit installed in an attic, what is the foolproof way to ensure leaking is detected and doesn’t spill over onto the floor or ceiling?

You should see a proper drip pan.

You should see a drip pan and a drain on the pan that flows out the side of the house.

You should see a drain that carries the water to the basement.

You should see a drip pan and an emergency float switch.

A float pan is not necessary because in warm weather, the hot air in the attic causes quick and efficient evaporation of the water.

A

You should see a drip pan and an emergency float switch.

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6
Q

When measuring the supply temperature in an AC unit, what is the appropriate range you are looking for?

The perfect range is 5-10 degrees.

The perfect range is 10-12 degrees.

The perfect range is 15-20 degrees.

The perfect range is 15-22 degrees.

The perfect range is 15-30 degrees.

A

The perfect range is 15-22 degrees.

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7
Q

When providing a report to your client on maintaining their air conditioning equipment, direct them to:

contact a qualified heating contractor for more information on maintenance best practice.

have their A/C equipment maintained two times per year by a qualified heating contractor.

have their A/C equipment maintained every year by a qualified heating contractor.

have their A/C equipment maintained every other year by a qualified heating contractor.

have their A/C equipment maintained every five years by a qualified heating contractor; if the system is over ten years old it should be maintained every other year.

A

have their AC equipment maintained every year by a qualified heating contractor.

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8
Q

A single-wall vent connector at the furnace needs at least:

Six inches of clearance from combustibles.

Eight inches of clearance from combustibles.

Ten inches of clearance from combustibles.

Twelve inches of clearance from combustibles.

Eighteen inches of clearance from combustibles.

A

6 inches of clearance from combustibles.

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when a line-set is frozen in an AC unit you are inspecting?

It is appropriate to tell any real estate agents that you are involved with the sale of the home.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Ask the client for permission to talk to the current owner about this.

A

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

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10
Q

Most mini-split ductless systems will not operate if the interior temperature is below:

75 degrees

70 degrees

65 degrees

60 degrees

A mini-split ductless system will operate at any interior temperature.

A

70 degrees

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11
Q

A typical ductless split system bottom discharge unit should be a mininum _ above the floor measuring to the underside of the air handler.

6 feet

5 feet

4 feet

3 feet

2 feet

A

6 feet

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12
Q

Which of the following is true of high velocity (Hi-V) AC systems?

Hi-V systems are less flexible than systems with conventional large ductwork.

Hi-V systems provide less efficient moisture removal than conventional systems.

Hi-V systems are less energy-efficient than conventional systems.

Hi-V systems have similar operating characteristics to convention systems.

Hi-V systems provide better moisture removal than conventional systems.

A

Hi-V systems provide better moisture removal than conventional systems.

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13
Q

A hi-V system removes _ more humidity than a conventional central air conditioning system.

10%

15%

20%

25%

30%

A

30%

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14
Q

What is the first thing to consider when inspecting an air source heat pump?

Make sure that it sounds OK when it is operating.

The location and condition of the exterior unit and the line set and data from the exterior nameplate.

The condition of the interior air handler and line set.

The condensate drain.

The filter and blower compartment.

A

The location and condition of the exterior unit and the line set and data from the exterior nameplate.

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15
Q

When checking the emergency heat after checking the heat pump, you will adjust the thermostat by _ to get the heat pump to start in heating mode, and then, once you are done checking the heat pump, adjust the temperature up another _ to get it to kick into emergency heat system.

1 or 2 degrees, 2 or 3 degrees

2 or 3 degrees, 2 or 3 degrees

3 or 4 degrees, 3 or 4 degrees

4 degrees, 2 or 3 degrees

5 degrees, 2 or 3 degrees

A

2 or 3 degrees, 2 or 3 degrees.

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16
Q

What temperature should you test a heat pump in cooling mode?

50 degrees

55 degrees

65 degrees

70 degrees

A heat pump should be tested in cooling mode only if the outside temperature is at or above 60 degrees.

A

A heat pump should be tested in cooling mode only if the outside temperature is at or above 60 degrees.

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17
Q

What is the appropriate temperature drop for a heat pump in heating mode?

For cold air, it is 10 to 15 degrees.

For cold air, it is 10 to 20 degrees.

For cold air, it is 15 to 20 degrees.

For cold air, it is15 to 25 degrees.

For cold air, it is 15 to 30 degrees.

A

For cold air, it is 15 to 30 degrees.

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18
Q

Which of the following is/are NOT true of geothermal heat pumps?

They are associated with high installation costs.

The technology is cumbersome.

They were first installed in 1935.

They were low energy costs at the time.

They are also knowns as GeoExchange, earth-coupled, ground-source, or water-source heat pumps.

A

They were first installed in 1935.

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19
Q

According to the industry, the ground loops should last well over _ and they expect the high-density polyethylene ground loop tubing to last well in excess of _.

25 years, 50 years

30 years, 60 years

40 years, 80 years

50 years, 100 years

Both are expected to last up to 100 years.

A

50 years, 100 years

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20
Q

What is the approximate expected life span for an air source heat pump?

10-15 years

12-14 years

11-16 years

12-17 years

13-18 years

A

12-14 years

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21
Q

Using Ohm’s Law, which of the following scenarios is NOT an acceptable circuit load for a single outlet that is 15-amp, 120-volt circuit?

A client can run a 2-slice toaster (rated 800 watts) and a hand mixer (rated at 250 watts) on the same outlet.

A client cannot run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

A client can run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

A client can run an electric oven (rated 1000 watts) and a microwave (rated 800 watts) on the same outlet.

All of these scenarios require a combined wattage that exceeds Ohm’s law for a 15-amp, 120-volt circuit.

A

A client can run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

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22
Q

According to the Standard of Practice, what is the representative number of installed lighting fixtures, switches, and receptacles you are required to inspect?

At least one per room for multiple similar interior components.

At least two per room for multiple similar interior components

At least two per room for multiple similar interior components and at one exterior on each side of the building for multiple similar exterior components

At least one per room for multiple similar interior components and at least two exterior on each side of the building for multiple similar exterior components

You are only required to inspect one per room for multiple similar interior components and all exterior on each side of the building for multiple similar exterior components.

A

At least one per room for multiple similar interior components.

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23
Q

Which of the following service drop clearances does NOT meet inspection requirements?

Over roofs with 4:12 slope or greater: 3 feet minimum clearance

Over roofs with less than 4:12 slope: 8 feet minimum

Over swimming pools: 22 and ½ feet minimum clearance

Over swimming pools: 20 1/2 feet minimum clearance

From tress, antennas, chimneys, etc., use common sense

A

Over swimming pools: 20 1/2 feet minimum clearance

Should be 22.5

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24
Q

For attic installation, NM cable should be properly secured every _.

4 feet

4 ½ feet

5 feet

5 ½ feet

6 feet

A

4 1/2 feet

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25
Q

According to ASHI standard section 7.1, inspectors shall inspect all but…

Service drop

Service entrance conductors.

Service equipment and main disconnects.

Ground conductors in subpanel enclosures.

Service entrance cables and raceways.

A

Ground conductors in subpanel enclosures.

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26
Q

Which is the most common branch circuit amps/wiring for 120 volts circuits in a home?

Single pole breaker

Double pole breaker

Single taps

Double taps

Double lugging

A

Single pole breaker

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27
Q

According to NEC what is the requirement for along the wall line of a countertop from a receptacle?

12 inches

14 inches

18 inches

20 inches

24 inches

A

24 inches

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28
Q

According to the National Electric Code, in a residential photovolactics , no system can exceed any more than _ volts direct current.

300

400

500

600

800

A

600

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT accurate information regarding the changes in the 2008 NEC?

All grounding electrodes present must be bonded together.

All grounding electrodes must be a minimum of 5 feet apart and bonded together.

Metal water pipe, a supplemental electrode is always required.

A home that has a metal water main and that comes from a metal well casing, it needs to be bonded together with six- or eight- gauge wire.

All grounding electrodes present must be bonded together.

A

All grounding electrodes must be a minimum of 5 feet apart and bonded together.

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30
Q

Which of the following is/are true in electrical theory?

Breakers (or fuses) only open automatically with too much current (amps).

Completing a circuit at the transformer is a low resistance wire path, but usually allows enough current flow to trip a breaker.

Grounding conductors provide stray electricity with a path home (to earth or transformer.

Completing the circuit at the Earth is a high resistance path and often does not allow enough current flow to trip a breaker.

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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31
Q

In what year did the NEC require that all receptacles at kitchen counters and everywhere in any bathroom require GFCI protection.

1975

1980

1984

1990

1996

A

1996

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32
Q

Which of the following does NOT meet the minimum clearance for service drop safety measured from the lowest/closest point or bottom of the drip loop.

Areas adjacent to the house – 10 feet

Balconies, decks and porches – 10 feet, for a distance of 3 feet past the railing or edge

Yards and driveways – 10 feet

Openable windows – 3 feet

Roads – 18 feet

A

Yards and driveways - 10 feet

Should be 12 feet

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33
Q

Modern kitchens need at least to dedicated receptacles that are…

10 amp circuits

12 amp circuits

15 amp circuits

17 amp circuits

20 amp circuits

A

20 amp circuits

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34
Q

An island requires at least one outlet with _ maximum countertop protection if the receptacle is on the side and _ maximum below countertop surface on any side island or peninsula?

3 inches, 6 inches

4 inches, 8 inches

6 inches, 12 inches

8 inches, 10 inches

10 inches, 12 inches

A

6 inches, 12 inches

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35
Q

According to the Standard of PRactice for inspection of heating systems, which of the following is the inspector NOT an ASHI SOP for heating?

Radiant heat

Forced air

Vent systems

Flues and chimneys

Geothermal heat pump systems.

A

Geothermal heat pump systems

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36
Q

Which of the following locations is acceptable for a combustion furnace?

Bedroom

Space accessed from a bedroom

Bathroom

Space accessed from a bathroom

Attic furnace accessed from bedroom.

A

Attic furnace accessed from the bedroom.

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37
Q

Furnace vent connectors must rise a minimum of _ per foot to help the combustion products convect up and out.

1/8 inch

1/4 inch

1/2 inch

3/4 inch

1 inch

A

1/4 inch

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38
Q

The first thing you should inspect on a combustion furnace system is the _. The last thing you should inspect is _.

Location, operation

Exterior furnace cabinet, controls and burners

Controls and burners, operation

Operation, location

Controls and burners, exterior cabinet

A

Location, operation

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39
Q

What is the most common type of ductwork used for forced air heating and cooling?

Fiberglass board

Flex-duct

Foil-lined insulated metal coil

Plastic

Steel

A

Steel

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40
Q

What is the operating temperature for circulated boilers?

140 to 150 degrees Fahrenheit

140 to 160 degrees Fahrenheit

150 to 170 degrees Fahrenheit

170 to 180 degrees Fahrenheit

180 to 190 degrees Fahrenheit

A

140 to 160 degrees Fahrenheit

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41
Q

When inspecting hot steam boilers for basic operation sequences, it is recommended to let the heating equipment operate for at least _

5 minutes

10 minutes

12 minutes

15 minutes

15+ minutes

A

5 minutes

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42
Q

Do NOT operate a circulated boiler unless there is at least _ of pressure on the gauge

3 pounds

5 pounds

10 pounds

12 pounds

14 pounds

A

10 pounds

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43
Q

Which is the most common boiler used to heat residential homes?

Steam boiler

Gravity boiler

Circulated boiler

Convection boiler

Conventional boiler

A

Circulated boiler

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44
Q

The last thing you should inspect on a combustion furnace system is operation. What is the first thing you should inspect?

Vent connector

Location

Exterior furnace cabinet

Blower compartment

Controls and burners

A

Location

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45
Q

Which of the following is/are true about circulated boilers?

Operating temperatures are 140 to 160 degrees

12 to 15 psi is normal operating pressure

The relief valve blows at 30 psi

An “aquastat” controls water temperature

All of the above

A

All of the above

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46
Q

While combustion space heater sensors are not always reliable, they are supposed to stop the equipment when oxygen levels fall below _.

15%

18%

20%

21%

24%

A

18%

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47
Q

Which type of space heater is allowed in a bedroom in many areas?

Direct vent space heaters with sealed combustion chambers.

Ventless gas space heaters

Combustion space heaters

Direct vent heater

Heat exchange space heater

A

Direct vent space heaters with sealed combustion chambers.

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48
Q

Typical clearances for direct vent space heaters are 12 inches on both sides, _ inches from the top and 24 inches in front.

20 inches

24 inches

30 inches

32 inches

36 inches

A

36 inches

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49
Q

Any type of wall heater, electric or combustion, should be a minimum of _ away from the edge of a door and never behind it.

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

18 inches

A

12 inches

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50
Q

When inspecting fireplaces, exterior clearances include no combustible material should be within _ of the firebox opening for material up to 1.5 inches thick (sealed direct vent or vent-free units are usually exempt). No combustible material should be within 12 inches if over 1.5 inches of thickness.

6 inches

8 inches

12 inches

15 inches

18 inches

A

6 inches

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51
Q

When inspecting fireplaces, the hearth extension must be at least _ in depth from the front of the fireplace and _ to each side for openings greater than 6 square feet.

12 inches, 20 inches

16 inches, 8 inches

8 inches, 16 inches

20 inches, 12 inches

24 inches, 12 inches

A

20 inches, 12 inches

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52
Q

According to the US Fire Administration, chimney and flue fires are _ on the list of residential fires.

First

Second

Third

Fourth

Fifth

A

Second

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53
Q

Wood stoves should sit on a non-combustible hearth, which extends at least _ inches out from the front of the stove and 8 inches at the sides and rear or as per listing.

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

18 inches

A

18 inches

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54
Q

Almost any wood burning stove needs _ top clearance.

4 feet

5 feet

6 feet

7 feet

8 feet

A

5 feet

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55
Q

What type of boiler operates at an average range of 215 degrees Fahrenheit?

Gravity

Circulated

Steam

Water vapor

Condensating

A

Steam

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56
Q

Which of the following is/are Standard of Practice for plumbing inspection?

Sewage injectors, sump pumps, and related piping

Wells and well pumps

Septic and other sewage disposal systems

Fire extinguishing and sprinkler systems

Water storage related equipment

A

Sewage injection, sump pumps, and related piping

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57
Q

Which type of plumbing supply copper piping is the thinnest and not allowed by many localities?

Type L

Type M

Type K

Type C

Type R

A

Type M

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58
Q

Which two types of plumbing pipes used together are more likely to corrode when place in contact with each other?

Copper and lead

Lead and galvanized steel

Galvanized steel and copper

Brass and copper

Galvanized steel and HDPE

A

Galvenized steel and copper

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59
Q

When inspecting plumbing distribution systems, which of the following should you refer the client for review by a licensed plumber?

A pipe that you cannot determine if it is or is not abandoned

A galvanized pipe in direct contact with a copper pipe that is corroded

A hose bib that is not secured to the wall

A slight kink in a copper pipe

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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60
Q

Which type of drainage and vent piping has been in use since the 1800s, is still used in some new home construction, and is quieter than PVC?

Cast iron and galvanized steel

ABS and DWV

Brass and copper

Copper and lead

Lead and vitrified clay

A

Cast iron and galvanized steel

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61
Q

While measuring and reporting on water pressure is not required by the Standard, if you choose to measure water pressure, it should be _ to _ PSI.

20 to 70

20 to 80

30 to 70

30 to 80

30 to 90

A

30 to 80

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62
Q

Showers and bathtubs should have a trap below the floor within _, while all other fixtures must have a trap _.

within 8 inches, built-in

within 12 inches, in the same room

within 18 inches, built-in

within 24 inches, in the same room

within 30 inches, built-in

A

within 24 inches, in the same room

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63
Q

Which of the following is NOT accurate for inspecting bathroom fixtures?

Air admittance valves (AAV) may be located in an adjacent linen closet.

Sink faucets should have shut-off valves with proper handles

Sinks may have cracks just so long as they do not leak.

Showers traps do not have to be located in the same room

Bathtub traps do not have to be located in the same room

A

Air admittance valves (AAV) may be located in an adjacent linen closet.

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64
Q

When did the United States require that all hot water heaters manufactured by Flammable Vapor Ignition Resistant (FVIR) units?

July 1, 1995

July 1, 2000

July 1, 2003

July 1, 2006

July 1, 2010

A

July 1, 2003

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65
Q

Water heater piping must have union fittings on all pipes with _ of the water heater to facilitate with replacement of the water heater.

3 feet

4 feet

5 feet

6 feet

8 feet

A

5 feet

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66
Q

Hot water heater temperature and pressure relief (TPR) must be properly rated and piped. The valve must be rated at a maximum of _ and _ per square inch.

150 degrees Fahrenheit, 75 pounds (psi)

175 degrees Fahrenheit, 100 pounds (psi)

180 degrees Fahrenheit, 120 pounds (psi)

200 degrees Fahrenheit, 125 pounds (psi)

210 degrees Fahrenheit, 150 pounds (psi)

A

210 degrees Fahrenheit, 150 pounds (psi)

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67
Q

Which of the following gas piping material cannot be used on the exterior or underground?

Black iron

Galvanized

Aluminum

Copper

Brass

A

Aluminum

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68
Q

Sewage pump discharge pipe and vent pipes should be a minimum of _ in diameter.

1 inch

1 ½ inch

2 inches

2 ½ inches

3 inches

A

2 inches

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69
Q

Venting for a crawlspace where the ground surface is covered by a class I vapor retarded material, the net minimum are of ventilation openings should not be less than _ of underfloor space area.

1 square foot for every 750 square feet

½ square foot for every 1,000 square feet

1 square foot for every 1,250 square feet

1 square foot for every 1,500 square feet

2 square feet for every 2,000 square feet

A

1 square foot for every 1,500 square feet

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70
Q

Crawl space exposed earth should be covered with a continuous class I ground vapor barrier retarder, and the joints of the the vapor retarder should overlap by at least _ and shall be sealed or tapes. The edges of the vapor retarded shall not extend less than _ up the stem wall and shall be attached and sealed to the stem wall or insulation.

4 inches, 4 inches

4 inches, 6 inches

5 inches, 6 inches

6 inches , 6 inches

6 inches, 8 inches

A

6 inches, 6 inches

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71
Q

If a crawl space has exhaust-powered ventilation, the continuous mechanical exhaust ventilation should operate at a rate equal to _ per minute for each 50 square feet or crawl space floor area, including an air pathway to the common area, such as a duct to transfer grille and perimeter walls insulated.

½ cubic foot

1 cubic foot

1 ½ cubic foot

2 cubic feet

2 ½ cubic feet

A

1 cubic foot

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72
Q

The crawl space plenum’s ground surface should be covered with a moisture barrier having a minimum thickness of _.

1 millimeter

2 mils

3 mils

4 mils

5 mils

A

4 mills

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73
Q

When it comes to the crawl space and finish grade, to circumvent moisture accumulation in the crawl space area, which of the following is NOT accurate?

The grade in the underfloor space must be at least the same level as the grade outside of the building

There needs to be a positive slope away, typically 1 inch per foot for a minimum of 6 inches over 10 feet.

The ground level outside should be lower than the ground level around the crawl space.

The finished grade of the underfloor surface should not be located at the bottom of the footings.

The underfloor space should be as high as the outside finished grade.

A

The finished grade of the underfloor surface should not be located at the bottom of the footings.

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74
Q

Attic vent ventilation opening should have at least dimensions of a _ minimum and 1/4 maximum opening.

1/16 inch

⅛ inch

½ inch

⅔ inch

¾ inch

A

1/16 inch

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75
Q

Radiant energy accounts for over _ of all the heat transfer, whether into the home or out of the home.

75%

80%

85%

90%

95%

A

95%

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76
Q

Rationale: Using the EPA climate zone map, zones 1 through 7, the recommended R value for insualtion is _ for 2 X 4 walls, and _ for 2 X 6 walls.

R10 to R15, R13 to R15

R13 to R15, R19 to R21

R13 to R19, R19 to R25

R19 to R25, R25 to R30

R25 to R30, R30 to R29

A

R13 to R15, R19 to R21

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77
Q

Low density spray foam insulation’s R value starts at _ per inch.

2.6

3.6

4.6

5.6

6.6

A

3.6

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78
Q

Venting for a crawl space where the ground surface covered by a class I vapor retarder material, the net minimum area of ventilation openings should not be less than _ for every 1,500 square feet of underfloor space area.

1 square foot

1 ½ square feet

2 square feet

2 ½ square feet

3 square feet

A

1 square foot

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79
Q

What does a compromised thermal envelope lead to?

Dew points on the inside or exterior walls in the winter

Dew points and humidity-related problems in the summertime

Ice damming in the winter months

Inefficiency and increased energy usage for the home

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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80
Q

When measuring temperature increase or decrease in a home, we will measure using _.

Amperage

Watts

British Thermal Units

Horsepower

All of the above

A

British Thermal Units

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81
Q

How many Watts is equivalent to 1 horsepower (HP)?

327.9 Watts

372.9 Watts

545.7 Watts

654.7 Watts

745.7 Watts

A

745.7 Watts

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82
Q

One horsepower (HP) equals _ Watts, and 1 Watt equals _ BTUs per hour.

545.7 Watts, 3.11 BTUH

654.7 Watts, 3.14 BTUH

675.4 Watts, 3.17 BTUH

745.7 Watts, 3.41 BTUH

757.4 Watts, 4.31 BTUH

A

745.7 Watts, 3.41 BTUH

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83
Q

For mechanical air filtration, the Minimum Efficiency Reporting Values (MERV) rating relates to the filter’s ability to capture larger particulates between _ and _.

.03 microns, 10 microns

.04 microns, 9 microns

.05 microns, 8 microns

.06 microns, 7 microns

.07 microns, 6 microns

A

.03 microns, 10 microns

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84
Q

When talking about byproducts of combustion and combustion-based fuels, roughly speaking, _ of the combustion byproducts are going to be carbon dioxide and _ is going to be vapor.

10%, 90%

20%, 80%

25%, 75%

30%, 70%

35%, 65%

A

30%, 70%

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85
Q

If you want to make something feel hotter, you increase the amount of water vapor in the air and you heat up the air. In close approximations, _ of air is composed of nitrogen (N2), _ of air/oxygen (O2), and about _ water vapor. This is important because the majority of heat energy is absorbed in the water vapor (H2O), not the N2 or O2.

58%, 29%, 3%

64%, 34%, 2%

71%, 26%, 3%

75%, 23.5%, 1.5%

78%, 21%, 0.5%

A

78%, 21%, 0.5%

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86
Q

Which type of ventilation is the traditional method of allowing fresh outdoor air to replace indoor air?

Outdoor to indoor ventilation

Natural ventilation

Spot ventilation

Whole house ventilation

Unrestricted ventilation

A

Natural ventilation

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87
Q

When looking at the appliances and the hood vent, the hood vent should sit no lower than _ of the top of the actual cooktop.

18 inches

20 inches

22 inches

24 inches

26 inches

A

24 inches

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88
Q

Which type of ventilation system pressurizes the entire house and assists with getting oxygen to the natural gas or propane or carbon-burning appliance and getting exhaust out?

Balanced ventilation systems

Closed ventilation systems

Open ventilation systems

Supply ventilation systems

Exhaust ventilation systems

A

Supply ventilation systems

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89
Q

Which type of ventilation is defined as the use of localized exhaust fans to quickly remove pollutants at their source?

Outdoor to indoor ventilation

Natural ventilation

Spot ventilation

Whole house ventilation

Unrestricted ventilation

A

Spot ventilation

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90
Q

To determine the required capacity for range hood exhaust systems capacity by cubic feet per minute (CFM) you calculate the total heat output of the range in British Thermal Units (BTUs) and divide by _ for intermittent systems or by 400 for continuous systems.

50

75

100

125

200

A

100

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91
Q

Dryer vents must be a minimum size of _ in diameter.

4 inches

5 inches

6 inches

7 inches

8 inches

A

4 inches

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92
Q

What type of valve is NOT found in a pool?

Gate

Ball

Butterfly or water

Multi-port (3-port)

None of the above

A

None of the above

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93
Q

Electric radiant heaters should not be installed over a pool or within _ horizontal from the inside walls of the pool, and should be at least _ vertical feet away from the pool deck.

4 feet; 10

4 feet; 12

5 feet; 10

5 feet; 12

6 feet; 10

A

5 feet, 12

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94
Q

It is recommended that the water temperature for a pool be set between _, and spas should be no hotter than _.

78° F and 82° F; 102° F

78° F and 82° F; 104° F

78° F and 82° F; 106° F

80° F and 84° F; 104° F

80° F and 84° F; 106° F

A

78 F and 82 F; 104 F

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95
Q

The working definition of a swimming pool considered a permanent structure in the ground, or partially in the ground, that is capable of holding water with a depth greater than _ outside a building.

24 inches

30 inches

36 inches

42 inches

48 inches

A

42 inches

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96
Q

In what year did Congress pass the Virginia Graeme Baker Pool and Spa Safety Act to prevent the hidden hazard of drain entrapments and eviscerations in pools and spas?

1998

2000

2003

2006

2008

A

2008

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97
Q

If the client is using solar panels for pool or spa heating, the “general rule of thumb” for determining the size of the surface area of solar panels needed is _.

45% to 60% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

50% to 65% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

55% to 70% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

60% to 75% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

75% to 90% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

A

60% to 75% of the surface area of the pool and spa = the surface area of the solar panels

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98
Q

There should be no switches (including timers or panelboards) within _ horizontally from the inside walls of pools, spas or hot tubs, except where separated by a barrier.

5 feet

6 feet

7 feet

8 feet

10 feet

A

5 feet

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99
Q

To calculate the Maximum Applied Water Allowance (MAWA) to establish a water budget for irrigation systems, you use the formula MAWA = ETo x AF x LA x _.

0.32

0.42

0.52

0.62

0.72

A

0.62

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100
Q

To convert MAWA (maximum amount of irrigation water) to billing units of a hundred cubic feet (CCF) of water, use the formula CCF = MAWA divided by _.
448

558

658

748

758

A

748

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101
Q

Which of the following irrigation budget calculation formulas is used for shrub inches?

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.9 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 0.5)/0.8 = 3.1 inches x 40% = 1.2 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 0.5)/0.8 = 3.1 inches x 40% = 2.3 inches

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.5 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 1.0)/0.6 = 8.3 inches x 10% = 0.8 inches

A

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.9 inches

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102
Q

When using the calendar method for irrigation frequency, what is the first thing you need to determine?

The number of irrigation days per week

The minutes of runtime per week

Calculate run time per day

Observe if runoff occurs

The minutes per week over irrigation days per week.

A

The minutes of runtime per week

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103
Q

When using the calendar method for irrigation frequency, what is the last thing you need to determine?

The number of irrigation days per week

The minutes of runtime per week

Calculate run time per day

Observe if runoff occurs

The minutes per week over irrigation days per week.

A

Observe if runoff occurs

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104
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about distribution uniformity (DU)?

DU describes how evenly water is applied over the irrigated area.

A DU value is usually calculated for each irrigation valve as the ratio of the lowest one-half of the head output or catches

Using DULQ (distribution uniformity low quarter) increases run time dramatically in systems with a low DU

Catch can tests are used to evaluate DU

DU along with PR are the two most important irrigation system performance characteristics.

A

A DU valve is usually calculated for each irrigation valve as the ratio of the lowest one-half of the head output or catches

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105
Q

When running a catch can test, for high precipitation rates greater than 1.5 inches per hour, the test run time may take as little as .

10 minutes

20 minutes

30 minutes

40 minutes

50 minutes

A

10 minutes

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106
Q

What is NOT a critical question you consider related to the inspection of outbuildings?

Do they affect safety?

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

Do they affect the function of other systems on the property?

What is the intended function?

Is it performing its intended function?

A

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

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107
Q

What system(s) do you inspect on an enclosed outbuilding?

Roofing

Plumbing

Electrical

HVAC

All of the above.

A

All of the above

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108
Q

Which of the following is NOT included as the stinging insect when inspecting outbuildings?

Termite

Spider

Hornet

Wasp

Yellow jacket

A

Termite

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109
Q

Driven wells are continuously cased and shallow. Approximately how deep are they?

10 feet to 30 feet

20 feet to 40 feet

25 feet to 45 feet

30 feet to 50 feet

35 feet to 60 feet

A

30 feet to 50 feet

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110
Q

What is the average depth of a confined aquifer?

100 feet

150 feet

200 feet

250 feet

300 feet

A

250 feet

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111
Q

What type of well is “typically” the purest, most abundant, and source that is already under pressure?

Water table

Unconfined aquifer

Confined aquifer

Restricted aquifer

Unrestricted aquifer

A

Confined aquifer

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112
Q

How far above the ground should the well casing and well cap extend?

10 inches

12 inches

14 inches

16 inches

18 inches

A

12 inches

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113
Q

The pressure switch that signals the well pump to start is typically preset the lower limit at _ and higher at _.

10 psi, 30 psi

20 psi, 40 psi

30 psi, 50 psi

40 psi, 60 psi

50 psi, 70 psi

A

40 psi, 60 psi

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114
Q

Pressure switches for well pumps are set at the factory with a _ differential pressure than can be adjusted up to 100 psi at installation as desired.

10 psi

20 psi

30 psi

40 psi

50 psi

A

20 psi

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115
Q

What amount of clear-water iron in well water warrants an iron filter recommendation?

5 to 10 mg/L

6 to 12 mg/L

7 to 14 mg/L

7 to 15 mg/L

8 to 16 mg/L

A

7 to 15 mg/L

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116
Q

If the well water sample test warrants filtration and or treatment, you should direct the client to contact

A certified plumber

The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

A certified water analyst

A water treatment specialist

All of the above.

A

A water treatment specialist

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117
Q

Since inspection of septic systems is outside of the home inspector standards of practice, if services are offered as auxiliary services, the client should be charged an additional fee. While inspection fees vary, they can range from _ to _.

$100 to $500

$150 to $500

$175 to $500

$200 to $600

$300 to $600

A

$200 to $600

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118
Q

A gravity fed plumbing drop for a septic system should have a drop of __ inch to __inch per 1 foot.

⅛ inch, ¼ inch

½ inch, ⅔ inch

⅔ inch, ¾ inch

¾ inch, 1 inch

1 inch, 2 inches

A

⅛ inch, ¼ inch

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119
Q

Septic tanks are generally made of which material?

Plastic

Fiberglass

Steel

Concrete

All of the above

A

All of the above

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120
Q

Septic tank sizing is based on the assumed load of the dwelling. An example of the number of bedrooms and total square footage includes a three bedroom dwelling having less than 2,250 square feet will require at least a _ tank.

700 gallon

800 gallon

900 gallon

1,000 gallon

1,200 gallon

A

900 gallon

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121
Q

What type of septic systems are the most common variety of residential drain fields?

Pressurized flow

Bed layout flow

Trench layout flow

Trench style flow

Gravity flow

A

Gravity flow

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122
Q

Which type of drain field systems is a relatively newer style growing in popularity?

Pipe and gravel

Chambers

Rockless

Multi-pipes

Dry well

A

Chambers

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123
Q

Which type of drain field system is less effective than a traditional trench due to the lack of surface area, but considered to be more durable?

Pipe and gravel

Chambers

Rockless

Multi-pipes

Dry well

A

Dry well

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124
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about your safety related to recommended personal protection equipment for home inspectors performing septic system inspections?

The Tyvek suit can be cleaned and reused.

The Tyvek non-permeable gloves can be cleaned and reused.

All tools should be cleaned after every inspection.

All tools should be stored in a location that limits cross contamination

Tools should not be kept on the interior of a vehicle.

A

The Tyvek non-permeable gloves can be cleaned and reused.

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125
Q

When inspecting a septic system using a dye and flow test, the volume amount should range from a minimum of 150 gallons to a maximum of _.

300 gallons

350 gallons

400 gallons

500 gallons

600 gallons

A

500 gallons

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126
Q

When inspecting a septic tank, a pump out is always preferred and should be done by a septic contractor along with a filter change. You can then inform the client that the next pump out should be _.

Done annually

Done biannually

Every 3 to 4 years

Every 3 to 5 years

Every 6 years

A

Every 3 to 5 years

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127
Q

Which of the following lenders “typically” have a mandated requirement to inspect septic systems?

FHA, HUD, and VA

VA, HUD, and USDA

FHA and HUD

VA and HUD

FHA, VA, USDA, and HUD

A

FHA, VA, USDA, and HUD

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128
Q

On average, a typical anaerobic, gravity fed septic system costs about _ to replace.

$6,000

$6,500

$7,000

$7,500

$8,000

A

$7,500

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129
Q

Which of the following statements is/are principal objectives when installing an electrical system?

To provide a safe way for electricity to enter the home, perform work, and leave the home

To find the a route for current to travel from the transformer to the electrical outlets in the home

To disperse the excess heat generated from electricity evenly

To provide multiple outlets for electricity to enter the home, perform work, and leave the home

All of the above.

A

To provide a safe way for electricity to enter the home, perform work, and leave the home

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130
Q

A/An _ is the unit of measurement for electrical resistance.

Volt

Amp

Ohm

Joule

Kilowatt

A

Ohm

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131
Q

What does AWG stand for when stamped on wire sheathing?

Amperage and Wattage Generator

Amperage When Grounded

American Western and General

American Wire Gauge

American Wattage Gauge

A

American Wire Gague

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132
Q

Plug fuses can be either Type _ or Type _.

V (GE Base); Y

X (GE Base); Y

A (Edison Base); S

T (Edison Base); S

T (Edison Base); T-plus

A

T (Edison Base); S

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133
Q

Per the National Electric Code, when is a light required in a walk-in closet?

A light is always required in a walk-in closet

If the closet size is over 10 square feet

If the closet size is over 15 square feet

If there is no natural light source (like a skylight or window)

A light is not required in a walk-in closet per the National Electric Code

A

A light is not required in a walk-in closet per the National Electric Code

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134
Q

Any outlet on a kitchen island needs to be a minimum of _ below the countertop.

4 inches

6 inches

12 inches

18 inches

24 inches

A

12 inches

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135
Q

Which of the following is/are ASHI Standard of Practice for home inspection?

Service Drop

Service entrance conductors, cables, and raceways

Service equipment and main disconnects

Service groundings

All of the above

A

All of the above

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136
Q

Which of the following is NOT included in the ASHI glossary for the definition wiring method?

Identification of electrical conductors by their specific type

Identification of wires by their general type

Identification of non-metallic sheathed cable if present

Identification of armored cable if present

Identification of knob and tube if present

A

Identification of electrical conductors by their specific type

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137
Q

How often does the National Fire Protection Agency NFPA recommend that every smoke alarm be replaced?

Every 6 years

Every 7 years

Every 8 years

Every 10 years

Every 12 years

A

Every 10 years

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138
Q

Which of the following is/are true about how electricity is delivered?

Electricity moves through conductors

Conductors are any material that allows electrons to move through the material

Metals are excellent conductors

Wood, rubber or plastic are nonconductors

All of the above

A

All of the above

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139
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of how electricity is delivered?

The load is necessary to convert the energy delivered by the current into work

A circuit without a load results in a “short circuit”

The energy is used up at the load to produce work

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

A complete circuit must include a load

A

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

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140
Q

What is the correct information in the definition of amps or amperage?

The amount of quantity of the electrical current

The pressure behind the current

It is measured in pounds per square inch (psi)

The rate of work or power produced by the energy in the current

Is the resistance to current flow of wires or other conductors in the circuit.

A

The amount of quantity of the electrical current

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141
Q

Which of the following appliances does not usually operate with just 120 volts?

Lamps

Small appliances

Clothes dryers

Coffee maker

Space heater

A

Clothes dryers

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142
Q

If we have 20 amps of current flowing, the temperature of the conductor rises to?

20 degrees celsius

30 degrees celsius

40 degrees celsius

50 degrees celsius

60 degrees celsius

A

40 degrees celcius

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143
Q

A service lateral that is an underground service must be protected by either a metal conduit or a…

A schedule 60 RNC

A schedule 60 RMC

A schedule 80 IMC

A schedule 80 RNC

A schedule 80 RMC

A

Schedule 80 RNC

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144
Q

Which of the following is the inspector NOT required to inspect related to heating systems?

Heating equipment

Vent systems and the interior of vent systems

Chimneys

Flues

Distribution systems

A

Vent systems and the interior of vent systems

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145
Q

On a high efficiency furnace, the air intake and the exhaust components should be

6 to 12 inches apart

8 to 14 inches apart

10 to 18 inches apart

12 to 24 inches apart

18 to 30 inches apart

A

12 to 24 inches apart

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146
Q

What type of vent is used for gas fired units?

Single wall B-vent

Single wall L-vent

Double wall B-vent

Double wall L-vent

Both single and double wall B-vent

A

Double wall B-vent

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147
Q

How many inches does there need to be in front of the furnace in an attic for servicing?

12 inches

15 inches

20 inches

30 inches

36 inches

A

30 inches

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148
Q

How much cubic feet of air for each pint of number 2 heating oil is required for an oil burning furnace?

125 cubic feet

150 cubic feet

175 cubic feet

200 cubic feet

215 cubic feet

A

215 cubic feet

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149
Q

According to the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), return air intake grilles must be a minimum of _ from any combustion source.

8 feet

10 feet

12 feet

15 feet

18 feet

A

10 feet

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150
Q

For fuel oil furnaces, a double wall L-vent requires a minimum of _ of clearance all the way around.

½ inch

1 inch

1 ½ inches

2 inches

3 inches

A

3 inches

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151
Q

When checking the ductwork, what should be inspected?

All habitable rooms for a permanent source of heat

All rooms should have registers

All registers should have air flow

All rooms should be consistent in temperature

All of the above

A

All of the above

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152
Q

What is by far the most common type of boiler?

Convection

Circulated

Gravity type

Hydronic or wet boilers

Circulating using pumps

A

Circulated

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153
Q

Which type of boiler has an expansion tank in an attic of other high point above the radiators?

Convection

Circulated

Gravity type

Hydronic

Wet boiler

A

Gravity type

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154
Q

Which type of boiler is known for its nice even heat and simple technology?

Mini-boiler

Circulated

Gravity type

Hydronic

Wet boiler

A

Gravity type

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155
Q

According to the standard of practice for plumbing, what should the inspector inspect?

Interior water supply

Distribution systems

Fixtures and faucets

Waste and vent systems

All of the above

A

All of the above

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156
Q

Which type of plumbing piping has a life expectancy of 40 to 50 years, was used from the 1920’s through the 1960s, and is known for interior surface corrosion over time?

Galvanized steel pipe

Lead pipe

Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride

Stainless steel

Copper

A

Galvanized steel pipe

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157
Q

Which type of plumbing piping was replaced by PEX and is known for leaking at fitting?

Lead

Galvanized steel pipe

Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride

Polybutylene

Polyvinyl chloride

A

Polybutylene

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158
Q

Plumbing vents should terminate _ away and at least 2 feet above any operable window, and at least 1 foot away from any wall.

3 feet

5 feet

7 feet

10 feet

12 feet

A

10 feet

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159
Q

Which type of plumbing piping was introduced in 1940 and comes in types K, L, M or DWV?

Galvanized steel

Copper

Brass

Polybutylene

PEX

A

Copper

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160
Q

When measuring and reporting on water pressure, it should be 30 to 80 psi. For the best pressure check, use…

A kitchen faucet

A tub spigot

A garden hose bib, upstream from the pressure regulator, if present

A garden hose bib, downstream from the pressure regulator, if present

Any of these will provide the optimal pressure check

A

A garden hose bib, downstream from the pressure regulator, if present

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161
Q

What is the minimum slope for a horizontal drain pipe to ensure proper wastewater flow?

A

The minimum slope for a horizontal drain pipe to ensure proper wastewater flow is 1/4 inch per foot.

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162
Q

What is the purpose of a plumbing trap, and where are they typically located?

A

The purpose of a plumbing trap is to create a water barrier that prevents sewer gases from entering the home. They are typically located under sinks, showers, bathtubs, and other plumbing fixtures.

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163
Q

What are the signs of a leaking or faulty pressure relief valve on a water heater?

A

Signs of a leaking or faulty pressure relief valve on a water heater include water leaking from the valve, a hissing or dripping sound from the valve, or no water flow from the valve when the temperature and pressure relief test is performed.

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164
Q

What is the recommended clearance between a water heater and combustible materials?

A

The recommended clearance between a water heater and combustible materials is typically 18 inches, but it can vary depending on local building codes and the type of water heater.

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165
Q

What are the different types of venting systems for plumbing fixtures, and how do they function?

A

Different types of venting systems for plumbing fixtures include:
Atmospheric venting: Uses natural air pressure to vent gases.
Air admittance valves (AAVs): Allow air to enter the system to equalize pressure.
Mechanical venting: Uses a fan to actively vent gases.

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166
Q

What are the common causes of low water pressure in a house, and how can they be diagnosed?

A

Common causes of low water pressure in a house include:
Clogged or partially closed water valves.
Leaks in the water supply line.
A malfunctioning pressure regulator.
Mineral buildup in pipes.

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167
Q

What is the purpose of a cleanout in a plumbing system, and where are they typically located?

A

A cleanout in a plumbing system provides access for clearing clogs or blockages. They are typically located outside the house, near the foundation, or inside the house in basements or crawl spaces.

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168
Q

What are the signs of a clogged or blocked drain line, and how can it be addressed?

A

Signs of a clogged or blocked drain line include slow drains, gurgling sounds from drains, sewage backups, and foul odors from drains.

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169
Q

What are the different types of water supply pipes used in residential plumbing, and what are their pros and cons?

A

Different types of water supply pipes used in residential plumbing include:
Copper: Durable and corrosion-resistant, but can be expensive.
PEX: Flexible and easy to install, but may not be allowed in all areas.
CPVC: Similar to PVC but can handle higher temperatures.
Galvanized steel: Older homes may have these, but they are prone to corrosion.

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170
Q

What is the purpose of a backflow preventer, and where is it typically installed?

A

A backflow preventer prevents contaminated water from flowing back into the potable water supply. It is typically installed on irrigation systems, fire sprinkler systems, and other systems that could potentially backflow.

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171
Q

What are the different types of electrical wiring used in residential homes, and what are their characteristics?

A

Different types of electrical wiring used in residential homes include:
Non-metallic (NM) cable: Most common type, used for general wiring.
Armored (AC) cable: Provides additional protection, often used in exposed areas.
Underground feeder (UF) cable: Designed for underground use.

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172
Q

What is the purpose of a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI), and where are they typically required?

A

A ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) protects against electrical shocks by quickly shutting off power if it detects a ground fault. They are typically required in bathrooms, kitchens, garages, and outdoor outlets.

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173
Q

What is the difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker, and how do they protect electrical circuits?

A

A fuse is a one-time-use device that melts when the current exceeds its rating, while a circuit breaker can be reset after it trips. Both protect electrical circuits from overloads.

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174
Q

What are the signs of an overloaded electrical circuit, and what are the potential dangers?

A

Signs of an overloaded electrical circuit include flickering lights, warm or discolored outlets or switches, burning smells, and frequently tripped circuit breakers or blown fuses. Overloaded circuits can cause fires.

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175
Q

What is the purpose of a main electrical panel, and what components are typically found inside?

A

The main electrical panel distributes electricity throughout the house. It typically contains circuit breakers, a main disconnect switch, and grounding and neutral bars.

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176
Q

What is the difference between a 15-amp and 20-amp circuit, and what types of appliances are typically connected to each?

A

A 15-amp circuit is typically used for lighting and small appliances, while a 20-amp circuit is used for larger appliances like refrigerators, microwaves, and hair dryers.

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177
Q

What are the safety precautions that should be taken when working with electrical wiring and components?

A

Safety precautions when working with electrical wiring and components include turning off power at the breaker, using insulated tools, wearing safety glasses, and avoiding wet conditions.

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178
Q

What is the purpose of an electrical ground, and how does it contribute to safety?

A

An electrical ground provides a safe path for electrical current to flow in the event of a fault, reducing the risk of electrical shock.

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179
Q

What are the different types of electrical outlets and switches, and what are their specific uses?

A

Different types of electrical outlets and switches include:
Standard outlets: 15-amp or 20-amp, used for general purposes.
GFCI outlets: Protect against ground faults.
AFCI outlets: Protect against arc faults.
Single-pole switches: Control one light or outlet from one location.
Three-way switches: Control one light or outlet from two locations.
Four-way switches: Control one light or outlet from three or more locations.

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180
Q

What is the purpose of an arc fault circuit interrupter (AFCI), and where are they typically required?

A

An arc fault circuit interrupter (AFCI) protects against electrical fires caused by arc faults. They are typically required in bedrooms and other living areas.

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181
Q

What is the difference between a single-stage and two-stage air conditioner, and how do they affect energy efficiency?

A

A single-stage air conditioner has one compressor speed, while a two-stage air conditioner has two compressor speeds. Two-stage air conditioners are generally more energy-efficient because they can run at a lower speed most of the time.

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182
Q

What is the purpose of a refrigerant in an air conditioning system, and how does it work to cool the air?

A

Refrigerant in an air conditioning system absorbs heat from the indoor air and releases it outdoors, cooling the air in the process.

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183
Q

What are the common causes of an air conditioner not cooling properly, and how can they be diagnosed?

A

Common causes of an air conditioner not cooling properly include:
Dirty air filters.
Low refrigerant levels.
Frozen evaporator coils.
Malfunctioning thermostats.
Blocked or leaking ductwork.

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184
Q

What is the importance of regular maintenance for an air conditioning system, and what tasks are typically involved?

A

Regular maintenance for an air conditioning system is important to ensure efficient operation and prevent breakdowns. Tasks typically involved include:
Changing air filters.
Cleaning condenser coils.
Checking refrigerant levels.
Inspecting and cleaning condensate drain lines.

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185
Q

What are the signs of a refrigerant leak in an air conditioning system, and what are the potential dangers?

A

Signs of a refrigerant leak in an air conditioning system include:
Warm air blowing from vents.
Hissing or bubbling sounds from the unit.
Frozen evaporator coils.
Increased energy bills.

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186
Q

What is the difference between a central air conditioner and a ductless mini-split system, and what are their advantages and disadvantages?

A

A central air conditioner cools the entire house through a system of ducts, while a ductless mini-split system cools individual rooms or zones. Mini-splits are easier to install and can be more energy-efficient for cooling specific areas.

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187
Q

What is the purpose of a condensate drain line in an air conditioner, and how can it be maintained to prevent clogs?

A

A condensate drain line in an air conditioner removes condensation produced during the cooling process. It can be maintained by regularly flushing it with water or a bleach solution to prevent clogs.

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188
Q

What are the energy efficiency ratings for air conditioners (SEER, EER), and how do they affect operating costs?

A

Energy efficiency ratings for air conditioners include:
SEER (Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio): Measures cooling efficiency over an entire season.
EER (Energy Efficiency Ratio): Measures cooling efficiency at a specific outdoor temperature. Higher SEER and EER ratings indicate greater energy efficiency and lower operating costs.

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189
Q

What are the different types of air filters used in air conditioners, and how do they affect indoor air quality?

A

Different types of air filters used in air conditioners include:
Fiberglass filters: Basic and inexpensive, but less effective at filtering smaller particles.
Pleated filters: More effective at filtering smaller particles than fiberglass filters.
HEPA filters: Highest level of filtration, removing most allergens and pollutants.

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190
Q

What are the safety precautions that should be taken when working with or around an air conditioning system?

A

Safety precautions when working with or around an air conditioning system include turning off power at the breaker, avoiding contact with electrical components, and wearing gloves and safety glasses when handling refrigerant.

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191
Q

What is the purpose of a septic tank, and how does it function in a septic system?

A

A septic tank is a large underground container that holds wastewater from the house. It allows solids to settle and be partially decomposed by bacteria, while liquids flow to the drain field for further treatment.

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192
Q

What is the difference between a conventional drain field and a mound system, and when is each used?

A

A conventional drain field is a series of trenches filled with gravel and perforated pipes that distribute wastewater for absorption into the soil. A mound system is an elevated drain field used when the soil has poor drainage or a high water table.

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193
Q

What are the signs of a failing septic system?

A

Signs of a failing septic system include:
Slow drains.
Gurgling sounds from drains.
Sewage backups.
Foul odors from drains or the drain field.
Soggy ground or lush vegetation over the drain field.

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194
Q

What are the maintenance requirements for a septic system?

A

Maintenance requirements for a septic system include:
Regular pumping, typically every 3-5 years.
Avoiding flushing non-biodegradable items like wipes, feminine hygiene products, and grease.
Conserving water to reduce the load on the system.
Having the system inspected periodically.

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195
Q

What are the environmental concerns associated with septic systems, and how can they be mitigated?

A

Environmental concerns associated with septic systems include:
Contamination of groundwater and surface water with nitrates, bacteria, and viruses.
Release of greenhouse gases like methane and nitrous oxide.

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196
Q

What is the role of bacteria in a septic system, and how do they break down waste?

A

Bacteria in a septic system break down organic waste into simpler substances, helping to treat the wastewater.

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197
Q

What is the purpose of a distribution box in a septic system, and how does it work?

A

A distribution box in a septic system evenly distributes wastewater from the septic tank to the drain field.

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198
Q

What are the different types of septic system additives, and are they necessary or effective?

A

Septic system additives are not usually necessary or effective. Regular pumping and proper maintenance are more important for the system’s health.

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199
Q

What are the regulations and permits required for installing or modifying a septic system?

A

Regulations and permits for installing or modifying a septic system vary by location. It’s important to check with local authorities for specific requirements.

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200
Q

What are the alternatives to traditional septic systems?

A

Alternatives to traditional septic systems include aerobic treatment units (ATUs), which use oxygen to enhance the breakdown of waste, and sand filters, which filter wastewater before it’s discharged to the drain field.

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201
Q

What are the safety guidelines for pool chemicals, including storage, handling, and disposal?

A

Safety guidelines for pool chemicals include storing them in a cool, dry, well-ventilated area away from incompatible chemicals, handling them with gloves and eye protection, and disposing of them according to local regulations.

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202
Q

What is the purpose of a pool skimmer, and how does it help maintain water quality?

A

A pool skimmer removes debris like leaves, insects, and hair from the water’s surface, preventing them from clogging the filter and decomposing in the water.

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203
Q

What are the different types of pool filters and how do they work?

A

Different types of pool filters include:
Sand filters: Use sand to trap debris, requiring backwashing for cleaning.
Cartridge filters: Use a replaceable cartridge to trap debris.
Diatomaceous earth (DE) filters: Use DE powder to coat grids that trap very fine debris, requiring backwashing for cleaning.

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204
Q

What are the signs of a leak in a pool or spa, and how can they be detected and repaired?

A

Signs of a leak in a pool or spa include a drop in water level, wet spots around the pool or equipment, and unexplained increases in water bills. Leaks can be detected by dye testing, pressure testing, or using electronic leak detectors.

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205
Q

What is the importance of maintaining proper water chemistry in a pool or spa, and what are the key parameters to monitor (pH, chlorine, alkalinity)?

A

Maintaining proper water chemistry is crucial for bather comfort, equipment longevity, and preventing algae growth and scaling. Key parameters to monitor include pH (7.2-7.8), chlorine (1-3 ppm), and alkalinity (80-120 ppm).

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206
Q

What are the different types of pool heaters, and what are their operating costs and efficiency?

A

Different types of pool heaters include:
Gas heaters: Fast heating but higher operating costs.
Electric heaters: Slower heating and high operating costs.
Solar heaters: Eco-friendly but dependent on sunlight.

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207
Q

What are the safety features required for pools and spas?

A

Safety features required for pools and spas include fences at least 4 feet high with self-closing, self-latching gates, alarms on doors leading to the pool area, and safety covers.

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208
Q

What is the purpose of a pool pump?

A

A pool pump circulates water through the filter and heater, ensuring proper filtration and distribution of chemicals.

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209
Q

What are the common problems with pool equipment, such as pumps, filters, and heaters, and how can they be troubleshooted?

A

Common problems with pool equipment include:
Pumps: Motor failure, leaks, or clogged impeller.
Filters: Clogged media, leaks, or faulty valves.
Heaters: Ignition problems, thermostat malfunctions, or low gas pressure.

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210
Q

What are the energy-saving tips for pool and spa owners?

A

Energy-saving tips for pool and spa owners include using pool covers to reduce heat loss and evaporation, using timers to run the pump and heater during off-peak hours, and lowering the water temperature when the pool is not in use.

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211
Q

What is the purpose of a sump pump, and where is it typically located in a house?

A

A sump pump removes excess water from a basement or crawlspace, preventing flooding. It is typically located in a sump pit, the lowest point of the area.

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212
Q

What are the signs of a malfunctioning sump pump, and how can it be tested?

A

Signs of a malfunctioning sump pump include a flooded basement, unusual noises from the pump, and a pump that runs continuously or not at all. It can be tested by pouring water into the sump pit to see if the pump activates.

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213
Q

What are the different types of sump pumps and what are their advantages and disadvantages?

A

Different types of sump pumps include:
Pedestal pumps: Motor is above the sump pit, easier to access for maintenance.
Submersible pumps: Motor is submerged in the water, quieter and more durable.

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214
Q

What is the importance of a battery backup for a sump pump, and how does it work?

A

A battery backup for a sump pump is important because it ensures the pump can continue to operate during power outages, which often occur during storms when sump pumps are needed most.

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215
Q

What are the maintenance tasks for a sump pump?

A

Maintenance tasks for a sump pump include cleaning the pump and pit, checking the float switch for proper operation, and testing the pump regularly.

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216
Q

What are the common causes of a sump pump failure?

A

Common causes of sump pump failure include power outages, switch problems, clogged or frozen discharge lines, and motor failure.

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217
Q

What are the alternatives to a traditional sump pump?

A

Alternatives to a traditional sump pump include water-powered backup pumps, which use municipal water pressure to pump out water, and battery-powered backup pumps.

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218
Q

What are the safety precautions that should be taken when working with or around a sump pump?

A

Safety precautions when working with or around a sump pump include disconnecting the power before handling the pump, avoiding contact with water when the pump is plugged in, and wearing gloves and eye protection.

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219
Q

What is the recommended frequency for testing a sump pump, especially during rainy seasons?

A

It is recommended to test a sump pump at least once a year, especially before the rainy season.

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220
Q

What are the signs that a sump pump is not properly sized for the house, and how can it be addressed?

A

Signs that a sump pump is not properly sized for the house include frequent cycling on and off, inability to keep up with water flow during heavy rain, and a pump that runs continuously.

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221
Q

What is the purpose of a chimney liner, and what materials are commonly used for liners?

A

A chimney liner protects the chimney walls from heat and corrosive byproducts of combustion. Common materials for liners include clay tiles, stainless steel, and cast-in-place concrete.

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222
Q

What are the signs of a damaged or deteriorating chimney liner?

A

Signs of a damaged or deteriorating chimney liner include cracks, missing mortar, soot buildup, and rust (if it’s a metal liner).

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223
Q

What are the dangers of a chimney fire, and how can they be prevented?

A

Chimney fires can cause damage to the chimney structure, spread to the house, and release dangerous gases and embers. They can be prevented by regular chimney cleaning and inspection, burning only seasoned wood, and using a chimney cap.

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224
Q

What is the importance of regular chimney inspections and cleaning, and how often should they be done?

A

Regular chimney inspections and cleaning are crucial for safety and preventing chimney fires. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) recommends an annual inspection and cleaning as often as necessary, depending on usage.

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225
Q

What are the different types of chimney caps, and how do they protect the chimney?

A

Different types of chimney caps include:
Single flue caps: Cover one flue opening.
Multi-flue caps: Cover multiple flue openings.
Draft-increasing caps: Help improve chimney draft.
Chimney caps protect the chimney from debris, animals, and rain, and can help prevent downdrafts.

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226
Q

What is the difference between a masonry chimney and a prefabricated chimney, and what are their maintenance requirements?

A

A masonry chimney is built with bricks, stones, or concrete blocks, while a prefabricated chimney is made of metal or ceramic components. Masonry chimneys require more frequent inspection and maintenance due to potential mortar deterioration and liner damage.

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227
Q

What is the purpose of a chimney damper, and how does it control airflow?

A

A chimney damper controls airflow through the chimney. When open, it allows smoke and gases to escape; when closed, it helps prevent heat loss when the fireplace is not in use.

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228
Q

What are the signs of a chimney leak and how can they be repaired?

A

Signs of a chimney leak include water stains on the chimney walls or ceiling, efflorescence (white mineral deposits), and a damp or musty smell. Repairs may involve sealing cracks, replacing damaged flashing, or rebuilding sections of the chimney.

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229
Q

What are the safety codes and regulations regarding chimney installation and maintenance?

A

Safety codes and regulations regarding chimney installation and maintenance are typically enforced by local building departments and may reference national standards like the NFPA 211.

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230
Q

What are the environmental concerns associated with wood-burning fireplaces and stoves, and how can they be addressed?

A

Environmental concerns associated with wood-burning fireplaces and stoves include air pollution from particulate matter and carbon monoxide emissions. These can be addressed by using EPA-certified appliances, burning only seasoned wood, and ensuring proper ventilation.

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231
Q

What are the different types of insulation materials used in attics?

A

Different types of insulation materials used in attics include fiberglass, cellulose, and spray foam.

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232
Q

What is the recommended R-value for attic insulation in different climate zones?

A

The recommended R-value for attic insulation varies depending on the climate zone. Colder climates require higher R-values (e.g., R-49 to R-60), while warmer climates may only need R-30 to R-38.

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233
Q

What are the signs of inadequate attic insulation?

A

Signs of inadequate attic insulation include ice dams forming on the roof edges, high energy bills, uneven temperatures in different rooms, and cold drafts in the house.

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234
Q

What is the importance of proper attic ventilation, and how does it prevent moisture buildup and heat accumulation?

A

Proper attic ventilation is essential to prevent moisture buildup, which can lead to mold growth, wood rot, and damage to insulation. It also helps regulate temperature, preventing ice dams in winter and reducing heat buildup in summer.

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235
Q

What are the different types of attic ventilation systems?

A

Different types of attic ventilation systems include ridge vents, soffit vents, gable vents, and powered attic fans. A balanced system with intake and exhaust vents is crucial for proper airflow.

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236
Q

What are the common problems with attic insulation?

A

Common problems with attic insulation include gaps or voids in the insulation, compressed insulation that loses its effectiveness, and moisture damage that reduces R-value.

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237
Q

What are the safety precautions that should be taken when working in an attic?

A

Safety precautions when working in an attic include wearing a dust mask and gloves, using a headlamp or flashlight for illumination, and walking only on secure joists or beams to avoid falling through the ceiling.

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238
Q

What is the role of a vapor barrier in attic insulation?

A

A vapor barrier is a layer of material (e.g., plastic sheeting) that prevents moisture from entering the insulation. It is typically installed on the warm side of the insulation (facing the living space) to prevent condensation from forming within the insulation.

239
Q

What are the energy-saving benefits of proper attic insulation and ventilation?

A

Proper attic insulation and ventilation can significantly reduce energy costs by minimizing heat loss in winter and heat gain in summer. It also helps maintain a more comfortable and consistent temperature throughout the house.

240
Q

What are the different types of roof vents?

A

Different types of roof vents include ridge vents, box vents, turbine vents, and static vents.

241
Q

What is the importance of proper roof ventilation, and how does it affect the lifespan of the roof and prevent moisture problems?

A

Proper roof ventilation is crucial for:
Extending the lifespan of the roof: It prevents moisture buildup that can lead to rot and deterioration of roofing materials.
Preventing ice dams: In winter, proper ventilation helps maintain a consistent roof temperature, reducing the risk of ice dams forming at the eaves.
Improving energy efficiency: In summer, ventilation helps release trapped heat, reducing the load on the air conditioning system.

242
Q

What are the signs of inadequate roof ventilation?

A

Signs of inadequate roof ventilation include:
Mold growth in the attic: Indicates excess moisture.
Premature aging of roofing materials: Curling or cracking shingles can be a sign of heat and moisture damage.
Ice dams in winter: A clear indicator of poor ventilation.
High energy bills: Inadequate ventilation can lead to increased cooling costs in summer.

243
Q

Choose a method that can be used to estimate the capacity of an air conditioning unit.

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 2 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 3 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 5 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 8 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

A

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

244
Q

When inspecting air conditioning, you are required to inform the client

The age of the unit.

The capacity of the unit.

The serial number, model number, and maximum amperages.

The age, capacity, and model number.

The circuit breaker amperage exceeds the listed maximum amperage for the unit.

A

The circuit breaker amperage exceeds the listed maximum amperage for the unit.

245
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

Determining the exact age of a condenser/compressor is required.

ASHI® SOP require reporting when components are “near the end of the service lives”…

You need to know the approximate age of the condenser/compressor.

Some association SOPs not ASHI® regulated exclude commenting on the life expectancy of components.

Some state licensing laws specifically exclude commenting on the life expectancy of components.

A

Determining the exact age of a condenser/compressor is required.

246
Q

When inspecting Central A/C interior air handler and line set. The following warrants reporting and a referral to the client to contact a qualified heating contractor for further investigation.

Obvious signs of leakage with orange staining in an attic unit.

Rust is present on the coil in the air handler.

Only ½ inch of water in the drip pan.

Water stains in a new unit that has dried up.

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

247
Q

** If you see the condensate drain connected to a plumbing vent in the attic you should**

Recognize that this is a best practice.

Recommend further evaluation by a licensed plumber.

Recommend further evaluation by a heating contractor.

This is a minor issue and can be resolved by a heating contractor.

Include it in your report and recommend further evaluation by a heating contractor.

A

Recommend further evaluation by a licensed plumber.

248
Q

When measuring the supply temperature in a conventional A/C unit, if the range is less than or greater than , there is probably something wrong.

5 degrees and greater than 10 degrees

10 degrees and greater than 15 degrees

12 degrees and greater than 22 degrees

15 degrees and greater than 20 degrees

15 degrees and greater than 25 degrees

A

15 degrees and greater than 25 degrees

249
Q

What are best practices for air filter maintenance?

Replace 1-inch thick disposables monthly.

Replace 1-inch thick disposables quarterly.

Replace 1-inch thick disposables one to two times per year.

Replace 1-inch thick disposables annually.

Replace 1-inch thick disposables seasonally.

A

Replace 1-inch thick disposables monthly.

250
Q

A single-wall vent connector at the furnace needs at least

Six inches of clearance from combustibles.

Eight inches of clearance from combustibles.

Ten inches of clearance from combustibles.

Twelve inches of clearance from combustibles.

Eighteen inches of clearance from combustibles.

A

Six inches of clearance from combustibles.

251
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate action when a line-set is frozen in an A/C unit you are inspecting?

It is appropriate to tell any real estate agents that you are involved with the sale of the home.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Ask the client for permission to talk to the current owner about this.

A

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

252
Q

Most mini-split ductless systems will not operate if the interior temperature is below

75 degrees

70 degrees

65 degrees

60 degrees

A mini-split ductless system will operate at any interior temperature.

A

70 degrees

253
Q

How many evaporator/air handlers can a ductless split system’s exterior condenser unit serve?

2-3

3-4

4-5

Not more than 3

Not more than 4

A

4-5

254
Q

Which of the following is true of high velocity (Hi-V) A/C systems?

Hi-V systems are more flexible than systems with conventional large ductwork.

Hi-V systems provide less efficient moisture removal than conventional systems.

Hi-V systems are less energy-efficient than conventional systems.

Hi-V systems have similar operating characteristics to convention systems.

Hi-V systems are more difficult to install than systems with conventional ductwork.

A

Hi-V systems are more flexible than systems with conventional large ductwork.

255
Q

A hi-V system removes 30% more humidity than a conventional central air conditioning system because the actual temperature of the air can be _ to _ degrees higher for the same relative comfort level as conventional air conditioning.

2-3

3-4

4-5

5-6

7-9

A

2-3

256
Q

What is the last thing you should do when inspecting an air source heat pump?

The condensate drain.

The location and condition of the exterior unit and the line set and data from the exterior nameplate.

The condition of the interior air handler and line set.

Make sure that it sounds OK when it is operating.

The filter and blower compartment.

A

Make sure that it sounds OK when it is operating.

257
Q

What is the approximate expected life span for an air source heat pump?

10-15 years

12-14 years

11-16 years

12-17 years

13-18 years

A

12-14 years

258
Q

While a heat pump can be operated at any temperature in cooling mode, what degree is the benchmark when testing?

50 degrees

55 degrees

60 degrees

65 degrees

70 degrees

A

60 degrees

259
Q

At what temperature is the compressor no longer able to create sufficient heat (balance point)?

18 degrees

20 degrees

25 degrees

30 degrees

32 degrees

A

30 degrees

260
Q

What temperature can a heat pump be operated in cooling mode?

50 degrees

55 degrees

60 degrees

65 degrees

A heat pump can be operated in cooling mode at any temperature.

A

A heat pump can be operated in cooling mode at any temperature.

261
Q

Geothermal installation cost are _ the cost of conventional HVAC, but the additional cost is returned in years.

1-2 times, 5-10 years

1-2 times, 5-15 years

2-3 times, 5-10 years

2-3 times, 5-15 years

3-4 times, 5-15 years

A

3-4 times, 5-15 years

262
Q

Evaporative Coolers operate by evaporating water and moving air to reduce indoor temperatures in dry climates up to degrees.

15

20

25

30

35

A

30

263
Q

A hi-V system removes more humidity than a conventional central air conditioning system.

10%

15%

20%

25%

30%

A

30%

264
Q

Using Ohm’s law, which of the following scenario is NOT an acceptable circuit load for a single outlet that is 15-amp, 120-volt circuit?

A client can run a 2-slice toaster (rated 800 watts) and a hand mixer (rated at 250 watts) on the same outlet.

A client cannot run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

A client can run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

A client can run an electric oven (rated 1000 watts) and a microwave (rated 800 watts) on the same outlet.

All of these scenarios require a combined wattage that exceeds Ohm’s law for a 15-amp, 120-volt circuit.

A

A client can run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

265
Q

Which of the following is/are the proper wire gauge on branch circuits?

14 AWG on 15-amp breaker fuse

12 AWG on 20-amp breaker/fuse

10 AWG on 30-amp breaker/fuse

8 AWG on 40-amp breaker/fuse

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

266
Q

The outer sheathing of non-metallic (NM) cable must extend into any panel, box or fixture by at least .

¼ inch

½ inch

¾ inch

1 inch

2 inches

A

¼ inch

267
Q

Grounding rods must be fully driven into the ground _.

15 feet

12 feet

10 feet

8 feet

6 feet

A

8 feet

268
Q

Ground fault circuit interrupters (GFCI) save lives because they limit the duration of an electrical shock to about

1/10th of a second

1/20th of a second

1/30th of a second

1/40th of a second

1/50th of a second

A

1/40th of a second

269
Q

Modern kitchen need at least two dedicated receptacles that are

10 amp circuits

12 amp circuits

15 amp circuits

17 amp circuits

20 amp circuits

A

20 amp circuits

270
Q

Which of the service entrance cables GEC (main ground wire) size and amperage is/are accurate?

125 amps or less/min. 8 gauge copper (#6 al.)

150 amps or less/min. 8 gauge copper (#6 al.)

200 or 175 amps/min. 6 gauge copper (#4 al.)

200 amps/min. 2 gauge copper (#4 al.)

All of the above.

A

125 amps or less/min. 8 gauge copper (#6 al.)

271
Q

Which of the following is NOT accurate about armor & metal clad cable?

Armored cable, type AC is commonly known as “BX” and used since the early 1900s.

Type AC uses the outer steel jacket at the ground path and has paper filler.

Type BX has been used since the late 1950s.

Metal clad cable, type MC is very common in residential.

A

Metal clad cable, type MC is very common in residential.

272
Q

As a “rule of thumb,” all junction boxes and conduits should visually appear to be more than __ empty.

20%

25%

30%

40%

50%

A

50%

273
Q

Which type of silicon-based cells used in photovoltaics has the most longevity?

Monocrystalline

Thin film

Polycrystalline

Tetracrystalline

Silicon-based cells used in photovoltaics have around the same longevity.

A

Silicon-based cells used in photovoltaics have around the same longevity.

274
Q

In what year did the NEC® require that all receptacles at kitchen counters and everywhere in any bathroom require GFCI protection.

1975

1980

1984

1990

1996

A

1996

275
Q

Which of the following does NOT meet the minimum clearance for service drop safety measured from the lowest/closest point or bottom of the drip loop.

Areas adjacent to the house – 10 feet

Balconies, decks and porches – 10 feet, for a distance of 3 feet past the railing or edge

Yards and driveways – 10 feet

Openable windows – 3 feet

Roads – 18 feet

A

Yards and driveways – 10 feet

276
Q

According to NEC® what is the requirement for along the wall line of a countertop from a receptacle?

12 inches

14 inches

18 inches

20 inches

24 inches

A

24 inches

277
Q

An island requires at least one outlet with _ maximum countertop protection if the receptacle is on the side and maximum below countertop surface on any side island or peninsula?

3 inches, 6 inches

4 inches, 8 inches

6 inches, 12 inches

8 inches, 10 inches

10 inches, 12 inches

A

6 inches, 12 inches

278
Q

Forced air efficiencies are as follows, low-efficiency furnaces operate at , mid-efficiency operate at , and high efficiency operate at _.

50 to 55%, 60 to 65%, 70-75%

60 to 65%, 70 to 70%, 80-85%

60 to 65%, 80 to 85%, 90+%

65-70%, 75-80%, 90+%

70-75%, 80-85%, 90+%

A

60 to 65%, 80 to 85%, 90+%

279
Q

Based on the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), using what they tell us is unconfined space, calculate the required minimum square footage for a 100,000 BTU furnace with a 34,000 BTU water heater right next to it.

638 square feet

700 square feet

738 square feet

800 square feet

838 square feet

A

838 square feet

280
Q

For combustion furnaces, what is the required distance above the floor for burners, pilots, and spark igniters?

10 inches

12 inches

18 inches

20 inches

24 inches

A

18 inches

281
Q

When inspecting a combustion furnace heating system, how long should you let I operate to observe the operation sequence?

3 minutes

5 minutes

8 minutes

10 minutes

15 minutes

A

5 minutes

282
Q

Which of the following is/are “common” duct defects?

Excessive leaky joints

Disconnected ductwork

Sagging

Broken supports

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

283
Q

You may find gravity boilers in homes built before _?

1980

1975

1970

1960

1950

A

1950

284
Q

**When inspecting hot steam boilers for basic operation sequences, it is recommended to let the heating equipment operate for at least **

5 minutes

10 minutes

12 minutes

15 minutes

15+ minutes

A

5 minutes

285
Q

Do NOT operate a circulated boiler unless there is at least of pressure on the gauge.

3 pounds

5 pounds

10 pounds

12 pounds

14 pounds

A

10 pounds

286
Q

What is the most common type of ductwork used for forced air heating and cooling?

Fiberglass board

Flex-duct

Foil-lined insulated metal coil

Plastic

Steel

A

Steel

287
Q

Which is the most common boiler used to heat residential homes?

Steam boiler

Gravity boiler

Circulated boiler

Convection boiler

Conventional boiler

A

Circulated boiler

288
Q

The sight glass or gauge glass normal water starting level is about ½ to ⅔ full, while the normal operating level is about .

½ to ⅔ full

⅓ full or less

⅓ full or more

½ to ¾ full

¾ full or less

A

⅓ full or less

289
Q

What temperature does a steam boiler operate at?

175 to 183 degrees Fahrenheit

185 to 188 degrees Fahrenheit

190 to 198 degrees Fahrenheit

200 to 203 degrees Fahrenheit

215 to 218 degrees Fahrenheit

A

215 to 218 degrees Fahrenheit

290
Q

While combustion space heater sensors are not always reliable, they are supposed to stop the equipment when oxygen levels fall below _.

15%

18%

20%

21%

24%

A

18%

291
Q

Any type of wall heater, electric or combustion, should be a minimum of _ away from the edge of a door and never behind it.

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

18 inches

A

12 inches

292
Q

Which of the following is the inspector NOT required to inspect for fireplaces and fuel-burning appliances?

Fuel-burning fireplaces, stoves, and fireplace inserts

Fuel-burning accessories installed in fireplaces

Chimneys

Combustion air components to determine their adequacy

Vent systems

A

Combustion air components to determine their adequacy

293
Q

When inspecting fireplaces, exterior clearances include no combustible material should be within _ of the firebox opening for material up to 1.5 inches thick (sealed direct vent or vent-free units are usually exempt). No combustible material should be within _ inches if over 1.5 inches thickness.

6 inches, 12 inches

8 inches, 12 inches

12 inches, 18 inches

15 inches, 18 inches

18 inches, 24 inches

A

6 inches, 12 inches

294
Q

According to the U.S. Fire Administration, chimney and flue fires are on the list of residential fires.

First

Second

Third

Fourth

Fifth

A

Second

295
Q

Which of the following is/are included in a level II chimney inspection that is not included in a level I chimney inspection?

Removal of panels

Entering attics and crawl spaces

Video scanning to examine Flue liner condition

Video scanning material, sizing, and clearances

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

296
Q

Wood stoves should sit on a non-combustible hearth, which extends at least _ inches out from the front of the stove and _ at the sides and rear (or as per listing).

12 inches, 10 inches

14 inches, 8 inches

18 inches, 8 inches

18 inches, 10 inches

20 inches, 12 inches

A

18 inches, 8 inches

297
Q

Single wall stove pipes need 18 inches clearance to combustibles, while double wall stove pipes need _clearance.

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

15 inches

A

6 inches

298
Q

What type of boiler operates at an average range of 215 degrees Fahrenheit?

Gravity

Circulated

Steam

Water vapor

Condensating

A

Steam

299
Q

Which of the following is/are Standard of Practice for plumbing inspection?

Sewage injectors, sump pumps, and related piping

Wells and well pumps

Septic and other sewage disposal systems

Fire extinguishing and sprinkler systems

Water storage related equipment

A

Sewage injectors, sump pumps, and related piping

300
Q

Which of the following plumbing supply piping is only for cold water service and distribution?

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

Chlorinated Polyvinyl chloride (CPVC)

Chlorinated chloride (PC)

Polybutylene (PB)

Cross-linked polyethylene (PEX)

A

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

301
Q

Horizontal metal pipe for copper is 1 inch diameter or less should be supported every . If it is 1 ¼ inch in diameter, it should be supported every _.

4 feet, 6 feet

6 feet, 10 feet

6 feet, 8 feet

8 feet, 10 feet

10 feet, 12 feet

A

8 feet, 10 feet

302
Q

When inspecting plumbing distribution systems, which of the following should you refer the client for review by a licensed plumber?

A pipe that you cannot determine if it is or is not abandoned

A galvanized pipe in direct contact with a copper pipe that is corroded

A hose bib that is not secured to the wall

A slight kink in a copper pipe

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

303
Q

Plumbing vents should terminate _ away and at least _ above any operable window and 1 foot away from any wall.

4 feet, 1 foot

5 feet, 1 foot

6 feet, 2 feet

8 feet, 2 feet

10 feet, 2 feet

A

10 feet, 2 feet

304
Q

While measuring and reporting on water pressure is not required by the Standard, if you choose to measure water pressure, it should be _ to PSI.

20 to 70

20 to 80

30 to 70

30 to 80

30 to 90

A

30 to 80

305
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding inspecting bathroom fixtures?
Toilets should be right to the floor.

Check for “soft floor” at toilets, tubs, and showers

Run fixtures in multiple bathrooms to ensure concurrent flow/pressure

Report anything leaking

Reporting anything cracked or damaged

A

Run fixtures in multiple bathrooms to ensure concurrent flow/pressure

306
Q

How many inches should there be from the front of a toilet to any opposing wall or door that would be able to close?

20 inches

21 inches

22 inches

23 inches

24 inches

A

21 inches

307
Q

Hot water heaters that are not Flammable Vapor Ignition Resistant (FVIR), burners and pilots/igniters must be at least above a garage floor.

12 inches

14 inches

16 inches

18 inches

20 inches

A

18 inches

308
Q

Water heater piping must have union fittings on all pipes with _ of the water heater to facilitate with replacement of the water heater.

3 feet

4 feet

5 feet

6 feet

8 feet

A

5 feet

309
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the inspection of combustion water heater operation?

If gas/oil is off, leave it off.

If the standing pilot is out, light it.

If readjusting the temperature to fire the unit, be sure to re-set it

Check the back-drafting at the diverter

Popping noises indicate the tank has sediment at the bottom and is near the end of its life

A

If the standing pilot is out, light it.

310
Q

Which type of gas piping must be labeled with size and usage?

Corrugated stainless steel (CSST)

Polybutylene (PB)

High density polyethylene (HDPE)

Cooper

Brass

A

Corrugated stainless steel (CSST)

311
Q

Crawl space ventilation requires ventilation openings to be within of each corner of the building.

1 foot

2 feet

3 feet

4 feet

5 feet

A

3 feet

312
Q

Crawl space exposed earth should be covered with a continuous class I ground vapor barrier retarder, and the joints of the vapor retarder should overlap by at least _ and shall be sealed or taped. The edges of the vapor retarder shall extend not less than _ up the stem wall and shall be attached and sealed to the stem wall or insulation.

4 inches, 4 inches

4 inches, 6 inches

5 inches, 6 inches

6 inches , 6 inches

6 inches, 8 inches

A

6 inches , 6 inches

313
Q

If a crawl space has exhaust-powered ventilation, the continuous mechanical exhaust ventilation should operate at a rate equal to 1 cubic foot per minute for each _ or crawl space floor area, including an air pathway to the common area, such as a duct to transfer grille and perimeter walls insulated.

25 square feet

50 square feet

75 square feet

100 square feet

125 square feet

A

50 square feet

314
Q

If there is a plenum in the crawl space, access to an underfloor plenum shall be provided through an opening in the floor with minimum dimensions of .

14 inches by 20 inches

16 inches by 22 inches

18 inches by 24 inches

20 inches by 24 inches

24 inches by 24 inches

A

18 inches by 24 inches

315
Q

When it comes to the crawl space and finish grade, to circumvent moisture accumulation in the crawl space area, which of the following is/are accurate?

The grade in the underfloor space must be at least the same level as the grade outside of the building

There needs to be a positive slope away, typically 1 inch per foot for a minimum of 6 inches over 10 feet.

The ground level outside should be lower than the ground level around the crawl space.

The finished grade underfloor surface should be located at the bottom of the footings.

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

316
Q

Attic vent ventilation opening should have at least dimensions of a 1/16 inch minimum and _ maximum opening.

⅛ inch

½ inch

¼ inch

⅔ inch

¾ inch

A

¼ inch

317
Q

Radiant energy accounts for over _ of all the heat transfer, whether into the home or out of the home.

75%

80%

85%

90%

95%

A

95%

318
Q

Which type of insulation is very resistant to fire and can typically take over 500 degrees before combusting?

Fiberglass

Rockwool batts

Cellulose

Vermiculite

Asbestos

A

Rockwool batts

319
Q

Extruded polystyrene, a type of rigid board insulation, has an R-value of about _ per inch.

4

4.5

5

5.5

6

A

5

320
Q

What does a compromised thermal envelope lead to?

Dew points on the inside or exterior walls in the winter

Dew points and humidity-related problems in the summertime

Ice damming in the winter months

Inefficiency and increased energy usage for the home

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

321
Q

For mechanical ventilation of the attic space, according to the National Roofing Contractors Association (NRCA) a power vent with an air flow rate of one cubic foot per minute per square foot of the attic space measured at the attic floor is generally considered to be equivalent to ventilation ratio.

1 to 75 square feet

1 to 100 square feet

1 to 125 square feet

1 to 150 square feet

1 to 200 square feet

A

1 to 150 square feet

322
Q

Low density spray foam insulation’s R-value starts at _ per inch.

2.6

3.6

4.6

5.6

6.6

A

3.6

323
Q

How many BTUs is equivalent to 1 ton of cooling?

6,000 BTUs

8,000 BTUs

10,000 BTUs

12,000 BTUs

14,000 BTUs

A

12,000 BTUs

324
Q

How many Watts is equivalent to 1 horsepower (HP)?

327.9 Watts

372.9 Watts

545.7 Watts

654.7 Watts

745.7 Watts

A

745.7 Watts

325
Q

For a ½ HP motor rating what is the corresponding wattage?

276 Watts

373 Watts

521 Watts

540 Watts

560 Watts

A

373 Watts

326
Q

When choosing an air filter for an HVAC system, what Minimum Efficiency Reporting Values (MERV) filter rating is likely beyond what the HVAC equipment can handle?

MERV 6

MERV 8

MERV 11

MERV 13

MERV 14

A

MERV 14

327
Q

When using combustion in HVAC systems, it is important to be aware that for every 20,000 BTUs of combustion, _ of liquid water is created.

1 cup

1 pint

2 pints

1 quart

2 quarts

A

1 quart

328
Q

If you want to make something feel hotter, you increase the amount of water vapor in the air and you heat up the air. In close approximations, of air is composed of nitrogen (N2), of air/oxygen (O2), and about _ water vapor. This is important because the majority of heat energy is absorbed in the water vapor (H2O), not the N2 or O2.

58%, 29%, 3%

64%, 34%, 2%

71%, 26%, 3%

75%, 23.5%, 1.5%

78%, 21%, 0.5%

A

78%, 21%, 0.5%

329
Q

ASHRA recommends intermittent or continuous ventilation rates for bathrooms to be _ to _ cubic feet per minute (CFM) and _ to _ CFM for kitchens.

10 to 30, 100 to 50

20 to 40, 90 to 25

50 to 20, 100 to 25

40 to 10, 90 to 35

50 to 30, 100 to 35

A

50 to 20, 100 to 25

330
Q

Dryer vents must be a minimum size of _in diameter.

4 inches

5 inches

6 inches

7 inches

8 inches

A

4 inches

331
Q

Which type of ventilation system is most applicable in hot or mixed climates?

Closed ventilation systems

Open ventilation systems

Supply ventilation systems

Exhaust ventilation systems

Balanced ventilation systems

A

Supply ventilation systems

332
Q

** improves the effectiveness of ventilation systems by removing pollutants at their source as they are generated.
**
Natural ventilation

Spot ventilation

Whole house ventilation

Unrestricted ventilation

Outdoor to indoor ventilation

A

Spot ventilation

333
Q

To determine the required capacity for range hood exhaust systems capacity by cubic feet per minute (CFM) you calculate the total heat output of the range in British thermal units (BTUs) and divide by 100 for intermittent systems or by _ for continuous systems.

100

200

300

400

500

A

400

334
Q

An underwater luminaire must be designed to assure freedom from electrical shock without a GFCI device in its circuit. Any light fixture operating at more than _ must have GFCI protection.

15 volts

18 volts

20 volts

80 volts

125 volts

A

15 volts

335
Q

Electric radiant heaters should not be installed over a pool or within horizontally from the inside walls of the pool, and should be at least _vertical feet away from the pool deck.

4 feet; 10

4 feet; 12

5 feet; 10

5 feet; 12

6 feet; 10

A

5 feet; 12

336
Q

It is recommended that the water temperature for a pool be set between _, and spas should be no hotter than .

78° F and 82° F; 102° F

78° F and 82° F; 104° F

78° F and 82° F; 106° F

80° F and 84° F; 104° F

80° F and 84° F; 106° F

A

78° F and 82° F; 104° F

337
Q

The working definition of a swimming pool considered a permanent structure in the ground, or partially in the ground, that is capable of holding water with a depth greater than 42 inches outside a building, and pools installed inside a building, .

30 inches

36 inches

42 inches

48 inches

All depths

A

All depths

338
Q

Which type of PVC pipes are the best choice for pool or spa’s circulation systems?

Schedule 40 PVC

Schedule 50 PVC

Schedule 60 PVC

Schedule 70 PVC

Schedule 80 PVC

A

Schedule 40 PVC

339
Q

Which of the following is true about solar panels?

Solar panels should face the sun, generally installed facing south

Solar panels should face the sun, generally installed facing west

They should only be cleaned with water

They should be inspected for leaks every 6 months

They should be inspected for leaks every 3 months

A

Solar panels should face the sun, generally installed facing south

340
Q

Luminaires and paddle fans can be installed at least above the water level without GFCI protection.

8 feet

9 feet

10 feet

11 feet

12 feet

A

12 feet

341
Q

To calculate the Maximum Applied Water Allowance (MAWA) to establish a water budget for irrigation systems, you use the formula MAWA = ETo x AF x LA x .

0.32

0.42

0.52

0.62

0.72

A

0.62

342
Q

For the formula used to establish a water budget for irrigation systems, MAWA = ETo x AF X LA X 0.62, the ETo adjustment factor varies, but is commonly or .

0.5, 1.0

0.6, 1.0

0.7. 1.0

0.8, 1.0

0.9, 1.0

A

0.8, 1.0

343
Q

For irrigation control systems, pressure regulators are often needed to reduce water supply line pressure for proper irrigation system operation. Sprinkler systems run at pressures ranging from to PSI depending on the type of system used.

15 to 75 PSI

20 to 80 PSI

25 to 85 PSI

30 to 90 PSI

40 to 100 PSI

A

25 to 85 PSI

344
Q

When using the calendar method for irrigation frequency, what is the first thing you need to determine?

The number of irrigation days per week

The minutes of runtime per week

Calculate run time per day

Observe if runoff occurs

The minutes per week over irrigation days per week.

A

The minutes of runtime per week

345
Q

Which of the following is NOT a method used to evaluate when to irrigate?

Runoff Capture Method

Flexible Method

Soil Moisture Sensors Method

Calendar Method

Flexible and Calendar Method

A

Runoff Capture Method

346
Q

Which is the correct formula for determining the system flow rate and area irrigated?

PR(IN/HR) = Gallons Per Minute (GPM) X 61.3 divided by landscape area in square feet

PR(IN/HR) = GPM X 63.3 divided by landscape area in square feet

PR(IN/HR) = GPM X 93.6 divided by landscape area in square feet

PR(IN/HR) = GPM X 96.1 divided by landscape area in square feet

PR(IN/HR) = GPM X 96.3 divided by landscape area in square feet

A

PR(IN/HR) = GPM X 96.3 divided by landscape area in square feet

347
Q

When running a catch can test, for low precipitation rates less than 0.4 inches per hour, the test run time may take as long as _.

50 minutes

60 minutes

90 minutes

1 hour 45 minutes

Over 2 hours

A

90 minutes

348
Q

What is NOT a critical question you consider related to the inspection of outbuildings?

Do they affect safety?

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

Do they affect the function of other systems on the property?

What is the intended function?

Is it performing its intended function?

A

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

349
Q

When inspecting open outbuildings, which of the following is NOT information you include in the report?

Fall protection

The foundation

Horizontal structural members

Vertical structural members

Materials used for construction

A

Materials used for construction

350
Q

Which of the following is NOT included as an animal when inspecting for pest infestation?

Snakes

Lizards

Raccoons

Bats

Rats

A

Lizards

351
Q

Which type of water source is closest to the surface and the most susceptible to contamination?

Water table

Unconfined aquifer

Confined aquifer

Restricted aquifer

Unconsolidated aquifer

A

Water table

352
Q

What is the average depth of a confined aquifer?

100 feet

150 feet

200 feet

250 feet

300 feet

A

250 feet

353
Q

** Which type of wells can often cost over $10,000 and may go down as far as 1,000 feet without the guarantee of getting water?**

Water table

Unconfined aquifer

Confined aquifer

Restricted aquifer

Unrestricted aquifer

A

Confined aquifer

354
Q

Which type of pump is commonly used for shallow wells (depths 25 feet or less)?

Jet pumps

Submersive pumps

Piston pumps

Diaphragm pumps

Positive displacement pumps

A

Jet pumps

355
Q

The pressure switch that signals the well pump to start is typically preset with the lower limit at and higher at .

10 psi, 30 psi

20 psi, 40 psi

30 psi, 50 psi

40 psi, 60 psi

50 psi, 70 psi

A

40 psi, 60 psi

356
Q

** Pump systems relief valves protect against pressure build up. These are “typically” set at a relief pressure of _.**

75 psi

100 psi

125 psi

140 psi

150 psi

A

100 psi

357
Q

An ideal system supplies chlorine to treat for microorganisms, small animals, plant material, tastes, odors, and colors at a concentration of .

0.1-0.3 mg/l

0.2-0.3 mg/l

0.2-0.4 mg/l

0.3-0.5 mg/l

0.3-0.6 mg/l

A

0.2-0.3 mg/l

358
Q

Along with local and state oversight agencies and mortgage lenders who have minimum requirements for water flow and yield testing, the Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) requires at least _ gallons per minute (GPM).

1-2 GPM

2-3 GPM

2-4 GPM

3-4 GPM

3-5 GPM

A

3-5 GPM

359
Q

When providing inspections that are an auxiliary service such as inspecting septic systems, which of the following need to be obtained?

Required certification

Licensure

Education

Training

All of the above

A

All of the above

360
Q

A gravity fed plumbing drop for a septic system should have a drop of ⅛ inch to ¼ inch per 1 foot.

⅛ inch, ¼ inch

½ inch, ⅔ inch

⅔ inch, ¾ inch

¾ inch, 1 inch

1 inch, 2 inches

A

⅛ inch, ¼ inch

361
Q

Which type of tank is becoming more desirable due to longevity and resistance?

Plastic

Fiberglass

Steel

Concrete

Aluminum

A

Plastic

362
Q

For septic tank sizing is based on the assumed load of the dwelling. An example of the number of bedrooms and total square footage includes a three bedroom dwelling having less _ will require at least a _ tank.

2,250 square feet, 900 gallon

2,250 square feet, 800 gallon

2,250 square feet, 750 gallon

2,250 square feet, 700 gallon

2, 250 square feet, 500 gallon

A

2,250 square feet, 900 gallon

363
Q

What type of septic systems are the most common variety of residential drainfields?

Pressurized flow

Bed layout flow

Trench layout flow

Trench style flow

Gravity flow

A

Gravity flow

364
Q

Which type of drain field system material is cheap and should be utilized on most systems where soil can encroach and enter the system?

Gravel

Filter cloth

Rockless

Multi-pipes

Dry well

A

Filter cloth

365
Q

** For top cover for drain fields, a minimum depth of ________ of topsoil is preferred and often required above any of the drain lines.**

4 inches

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

A

6 inches

366
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about your safety related to recommended personal protection equipment for home inspectors performing septic system inspections?

The Tyvek suit can be cleaned and reused.

The Tyvek non-permeable gloves can be cleaned and reused.

All tools should be cleaned after every inspection.

All tools should be stored in a location that limits cross contamination

Tools should not be kept on the interior of a vehicle.

A

The Tyvek non-permeable gloves can be cleaned and reused.

367
Q

When inspecting a septic system using a dye and flow test, flowing it for __ would give provide the minimum flow for this test if one faucet flows at approximate 2.5 gallons per minute (GPM).

20 minutes

30 minutes

45 minutes

50 minutes

60 minutes

A

60 minutes

368
Q

If the sludge level in a septic tank is determined to be more than of the tank, a pump out should be recommended.

¼ from the bottom

⅓ from the top

⅓ from the bottom

½ from the top

½ from the bottom

A

⅓ from the bottom

369
Q

Which of the following lenders “typically” have a mandated requirement to inspect septic systems?

FHA, HUD, and VA

VA, HUD, and USDA

FHA and HUD

VA and HUD

FHA, VA, USDA, and HUD

A

FHA, VA, USDA, and HUD

370
Q

On average, a typical anaerobic, gravity fed septic system costs about to replace

$6,000

$6,500

$7,000

$7,500

$8,000

A

$7,500

371
Q

What voltage does a small appliance (such as lamps) typically require?

100 volts

120 volts

160 volts

200 volts

500 volts

A

120 volts

372
Q

A/An is the unit of measurement for electrical resistance.

Volt

Amp

Ohm

Joule

Kilowatt

A

Ohm

373
Q

If the current in Amps is doubled, this _ the amount of heat generated.

does not impact

doubles

trebles

triples

quadruples

A

quadruples

374
Q

Federal Pacific Stab-Lok and _ are older service panels that have been identified as causing a fire risk.

Cutler Hammer

GE

Zinsco

Siemans

Leviton

A

Zinsco

375
Q

Per the National Electric Code, when is a light required in a walk-in closet?

A light is always required in a walk-in closet

If the closet size is over 10 square feet

If the closet size is over 15 square feet

If there is no natural light source (like a skylight or window)

A light is not required in a walk-in closet per the National Electric Code

A

A light is not required in a walk-in closet per the National Electric Code

376
Q

Any outlet on a kitchen island needs to be a minimum of below the countertop.

4 inches

6 inches

12 inches

18 inches

24 inches

A

12 inches

377
Q

Which of the following is NOT Standard of Practice (SOP) for inspection of electrical systems?

Interior components of service panels

Interior components of sub panels

Removal of covers off of electrical panels

Service entrance raceways

Overcurrent protections devices

A

Removal of covers off of electrical panels

378
Q

Which of the following is/are the inspector NOT required to test for electrical?

Remove control devices

Smoke alarms

Carbon monoxide alarms

Security systems

All of the above

A

All of the above

379
Q

Which of the following is NOT true regarding reporting electrical defects?

Major defects should be reported

Minor defects should be reported

Recommend further evaluation and correction by a qualified electrician for all electrical defects

It is important to say “licensed” even if you know for sure an electrician is licensed in your area

Always report defect in terms of safety, not code

A

It is important to say “licensed” even if you know for sure an electrician is licensed in your area

380
Q

What type of material are most wires made of?

Aluminum

Copper

Metal

Gold

Silver

A

Copper

381
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of how electricity is delivered?

The load is necessary to convert the energy delivered by the current into work

A circuit without a load results in a “short circuit”

The energy is used up at the load to produce work

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

A complete circuit must include a load

A

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

382
Q

What is the correct information in the definition of Watts?

The amount of quantity of the electrical current

The pressure behind the current

It is measured in pounds per square inch (psi)

The rate of work or power produced by the energy in the current

Is the resistance to current flow of wires or other conductors in the circuit.

A

The rate of work or power produced by the energy in the current

383
Q

Which of the following is/are residential electrical ratings in amps?

60 amps

100 amps

125 amps

150 amps

All of the above

A

All of the above

384
Q

For service lateral drops, the three service entrance conductors consist of?

1 hot wire and a single neutral wire

2 hot wires and 2 neutral wires

2 hot wires and a single neutral wires

3 hot wires and 2 neutral wires

4 hot wires and 2 neutral wires

A

2 hot wires and a single neutral wires

385
Q

A service lateral that is an underground service must be protected by either a metal conduit or a

A schedule 60 RNC

A schedule 60 RMC

A schedule 80 IMC

A schedule 80 RNC

A schedule 80 RMC

A

A schedule 80 RNC

386
Q

What type of cables are most service drops?

Monoplex

Duplex

Triplex

Pairplex

Quadplex

A

Triplex

387
Q

What is NOT true about low-efficiency furnaces?

They are typically old

They are natural draft furnaces

They vent up with the help of a blower

There are not many left

They may have an induced draft

A

They vent up with the help of a blower

388
Q

How wide should the solid walkway be from the attic access to the unit?

1 foot

1 ½ feet

2 feet

2 ½ feet

3 feet

A

2 ½ feet

389
Q

What type of furnace is common in homes that are on slabs or have crawl spaces?

Down-flow unit

Up-flow unit

Horizontal unit

Side-flow unit

Draft induced up-flow

A

Down-flow unit

390
Q

Most furnaces built today require what kind of clearance for the cabinet and the wall?

Zero inches

Three inches

Four inches

Five inches

At least six inches

A

Zero inches

391
Q

In the dead of winter, an oil furnace can blow through a pint of Number 2 oil in about

10 to 12 minutes

13-15 minutes

16-18 minutes

19-20 minutes

About 30 minutes

A

10 to 12 minutes

392
Q

A natural gas and propane single wall vent requires a minimum of _ of clearance.

3 inches

4 inches

5 inches

6 inches

8 inches

A

6 inches

393
Q

For gas furnaces, with a single wall vent a minimum of of clearance from anything combustible.

3 inches

4 inches

5 inches

6 inches

8 inches

A

6 inches

394
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a common duct defect?

Excessively dirty ducts

Excessively leaky joints

Sagging

Corrosion or moister

Asbestos in older homes

A

Excessively dirty ducts

395
Q

Which of the following is/are features of a steam boiler?

Pressuretrol controls boiler pressure

Usually have an automatic water feed

Has a low water cut off device

Has a temperature gauge

All of the above

A

All of the above

396
Q

Which type of boiler system has a compression tank without a vent or overflow pipe?

Closed system convection

Open system circulated

Open system gravity type

Closed system gravity type

Open system wet boiler

A

Closed system gravity type

397
Q

Which of the following should be included in a boiler inspection?

Location for proper combust air

Vent and exterior boiler jacket

Gauges, outer controls, pumps,and nearby piping and fittings

Inner controls and burners

All of the above

A

All of the above

398
Q

Which type of plumbing piping gets its name from the Latin word plumbus and was used up until the 1920s?

Galvanized steel pipe

Lead pipe

Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride

Stainless steel

PEX

A

Lead pipe

399
Q

Which type of plumbing piping replaced polybutylene, has been in use for hot and cold water since the mid 1990s, and is resistant to freeze damage?

Polyvinyl chloride

Galvanized steel pipe

Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride

Polybutylene

PEX

A

PEX

400
Q

Which of the following is not true about air admittance valves (AAVs)?

They are gravity operated

They close when drainage flow creates positive pressure

They allow air to enter the vent to equalize pressure

They close quickly to contain sewer gasses

They are not allowed in some states and regions

A

They close when drainage flow creates positive pressure

401
Q

Which of the following plumbing piping was used mostly in the 1920s and 1930s, is soft and easily bent, and is no longer accepted by plumbing codes?

Galvanized steel

Copper

Brass

Polybutylene

Lead

A

Lead

402
Q

Every house that you see must have either a minimum of one plumbing vent extending through the roof by at least, or a whole house air admittance valve in the attic.

6 inches

8 inches

10 inches

12 inches

18 inches

A

6 inches

403
Q

What is the minimum distance allowed between a vent pipe termination and a window, door, or other ventilation opening?

A

3 feet

404
Q

In a plumbing system, what does the term “DWV” stand for?

A

Drain-Waste-Vent

405
Q

What is the purpose of a trap in a plumbing fixture?

A

To prevent sewer gases from entering the home

406
Q

What is the maximum allowable distance between a fixture drain and a vent for a 1-1/4 inch drain pipe?

A

5 feet

407
Q

What type of pipe is typically used for water distribution systems in residential homes?

A

Copper, PEX, or CPVC

408
Q

What is the function of a pressure relief valve on a water heater?

A

To prevent the water heater from exploding due to excessive pressure buildup

409
Q

What is the difference between a sanitary drain and a storm drain?

A

A sanitary drain carries wastewater from the home, while a storm drain carries rainwater and surface runoff.

410
Q

What is the purpose of a cleanout in a plumbing system?

A

To provide access for clearing clogs or blockages in the drain line

411
Q

What type of vent is used to prevent sewer gases from being drawn out of traps?

A

Common vent

412
Q

What is a cross-connection in a plumbing system, and why is it a concern?

A

A cross-connection is an unintended connection between potable (drinking) water and non-potable water sources, which can lead to contamination of the drinking water supply.

413
Q

What is the minimum size vent pipe required for a toilet?

A

2 inches

414
Q

What is the purpose of a dielectric union?

A

To prevent galvanic corrosion between dissimilar metals

415
Q

What is the difference between a ball valve and a gate valve?

A

Ball valves provide quick on/off control, while gate valves are used for flow regulation.

416
Q

What is the maximum allowable temperature for a residential hot water system?

A

120 degrees Fahrenheit

417
Q

What is the purpose of a backflow preventer?

A

To prevent contaminated water from flowing back into the potable water supply

418
Q

What is the minimum slope required for a horizontal drain pipe?

A

1/4 inch per foot

419
Q

What is the difference between a waste arm and a tailpiece?

A

A waste arm connects a sink trap to the drain line, while a tailpiece connects the sink drain to the trap.

420
Q

What is the purpose of a plumbing permit?

A

To ensure that plumbing work is done according to code and safety standards

421
Q

What is the purpose of a trap primer?

A

To automatically refill traps to prevent sewer gases from entering the home

422
Q

What is the difference between a water closet flange and a shower drain?

A

A water closet flange secures a toilet to the floor and connects it to the drain line, while a shower drain collects water from the shower and directs it to the drain line.

423
Q

What type of pipe is typically used for sanitary drain lines?

A

PVC or ABS

424
Q

What is the purpose of a vent stack?

A

To equalize pressure in the drainage system and allow sewer gases to escape

425
Q

What is the difference between a tee (T) fitting and a wye (Y) fitting?

A

A tee fitting creates a branch at a 90-degree angle to the main line, while a wye fitting creates a branch at a 45-degree angle.

426
Q

What is the function of a check valve?

A

To allow flow in one direction only, preventing backflow

427
Q

What is the purpose of a vacuum breaker?

A

To prevent back-siphonage in a plumbing system

428
Q

What is the minimum size trap required for a kitchen sink?

A

1-1/2 inches

429
Q

What type of solder is typically used for copper piping?

A

Lead-free solder

430
Q

What is the purpose of a water hammer arrestor?

A

To absorb shock waves caused by the sudden closing of valves, preventing water hammer

431
Q

What is the difference between a fixture supply stop and a main water shutoff valve?

A

A fixture supply stop controls water flow to an individual fixture, while a main water shutoff valve controls water flow to the entire house.

432
Q

What is the difference between a P-trap and an S-trap?

A

A P-trap has a U-shaped bend that holds water to create a seal, while an S-trap has an S-shaped bend and is not allowed by most plumbing codes due to its tendency to self-siphon.

433
Q

SHOULD Inspect:

Visible leaks or signs of moisture intrusion in plumbing systems.
The type, age, and capacity of the water heater.
The presence and operation of safety devices like pressure relief valves.
Exposed and accessible plumbing pipes for condition and material.
Evidence of previous plumbing repairs or modifications.
The condition and operation of plumbing fixtures (toilets, sinks, faucets).
Drainage for proper flow and absence of leaks.
The presence and location of main water and gas shut-off valves.
Fuel storage and distribution systems (if applicable).
Venting systems for proper termination and functionality.

A

SHOULD NOT Inspect:

Plumbing components concealed behind finished walls or ceilings.
Underground plumbing lines or septic systems.
The interior workings of plumbing fixtures or appliances (e.g., toilet tanks).
Water quality or potability.
Systems requiring specialized expertise (e.g., backflow preventers, irrigation).
Plumbing permits or compliance with local codes.
Private wells or water treatment systems.
Sewage ejector pumps or grinder pumps.
Swimming pools or spas.
Repairs or replacements of plumbing components.

434
Q

SHOULD Inspect:

The type and amperage rating of the main service panel.
The condition of the service entrance conductors (wires from the utility pole/underground to the house).
The presence and operation of main disconnects and circuit breakers.
Accessible electrical panels for rust, water damage, or overheating signs.
The condition and type of visible wiring and wiring connections.
The presence and operation of Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter (GFCI) outlets in required locations.
The presence and operation of Arc Fault Circuit Interrupter (AFCI) breakers in required locations.
Proper polarity at outlets and light fixtures.
Proper grounding at outlets and light fixtures.
The operation of a representative number of switches and outlets.

A

SHOULD NOT Inspect:

Electrical components concealed behind finished walls or ceilings.
Low voltage systems (e.g., security, intercom, data).
The interior of electrical panels or breaker boxes.
The adequacy of the electrical service for the home’s needs.
Systems requiring specialized expertise (e.g., solar panels, generators).
Electrical permits or compliance with local codes.
Electrical components buried underground.
Appliances or fixtures not permanently installed (e.g., lamps, TVs).
Electrical systems in detached structures (e.g., sheds, garages).
Repairs or replacements of electrical components.

435
Q

SHOULD Inspect:

The type of heating and cooling systems present (e.g., furnace, boiler, heat pump, central air).
The location, size, and energy source of the primary heating and cooling equipment.
The approximate age of the heating and cooling systems.
Accessible heating and cooling components for rust, leaks, or damage.
The condition and type of visible ductwork and insulation.
Filters for cleanliness and proper installation.
Thermostats for proper operation and response.
Vents, registers, and grilles for obstructions or damage.
Combustion air supply and venting for proper clearance and termination (for fuel-burning systems).
Safety controls, such as limit switches and pressure relief valves (if applicable).

A

SHOULD NOT Inspect:

Internal components of heating and cooling equipment (e.g., heat exchangers, compressors).
Refrigerant charge levels or leaks.
The capacity or efficiency of the heating and cooling systems.
Systems requiring specialized expertise (e.g., geothermal, solar).
Heating and cooling permits or compliance with local codes.
Underground components (e.g., buried ductwork, geothermal loops).
Accessory components not permanently installed (e.g., window air conditioners).
Heating and cooling systems in detached structures (e.g., sheds, garages).
Repairs or replacements of heating and cooling components.
Air quality or the presence of hazardous materials (e.g., asbestos, mold).

436
Q

What is the minimum cub feet required of unconfined space required per 1,000 BTUH?

A

minimum of 50 cubic feet per 1,000 BTUs per hour total of all appliances in that space

437
Q

1) Choose a method that can be used to estimate the capacity of an air conditioning unit.

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 2 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 3 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 5 for a very old unit or 4 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

A

Divide the compressor RLA (rated load average) by 7 for a very old unit or 6 for a 10 SEER unit or better (typically since 1995).

438
Q

2) Which of the following statements is false?

Determining the exact age of a condenser/compressor is not required.

ASHI® SOP exclude reporting when components are “near the end of the service lives”…

You need to know the approximate age of the condenser/compressor.

Some association SOPs not ASHI® regulated exclude commenting on the life expectancy of components.

Some state licensing laws specifically exclude commenting on the life expectancy of components.

A

ASHI® SOP exclude reporting when components are “near the end of the service lives”…

439
Q

3) The following is accurate information on age and capacity data (national averages).

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 10 years, air-source heat pumps last about 8-10 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 10-15 years.

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 15 years, air-source heat pumps last about 12-14 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 20-25 years.

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 10 years, air-source heat pumps last about 12-14 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 10-15 years.

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 15 years, air-source heat pumps last about 8-10 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 10-15 years.

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 10 years, air-source heat pumps last about 8-10 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 20-25 years.

A

Exterior condenser/compressor units typically last about 15 years, air-source heat pumps last about 12-14 years, and geothermal heat pump equipment 20-25 years.

440
Q

4) Which of the following is not an appropriate action when a line-set is frozen in an A/C unit you are inspecting?

The unit should be turned off immediately.

It is not appropriate for you to share this information with any real estate agents.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Suggest that the client get the equipment serviced before it fails.

Ask the client for permission to talk to the current owner about this.

A

It is not appropriate for you to share this information with any real estate agents.

441
Q

5) A single-wall vent connector at the furnace needs at least

A

Six inches of clearance from combustibles.

442
Q

6) When you arrive at the home, the unit is off. What is the minimum amount of time the unit should operate before testing temperature drop?

A

5-10 minutes

443
Q

7) The following is true of an air conditioning Split System.

The compressor and condenser are inside.

It includes conventional forced air, high velocity, and ductless, or mini-splits.

The evaporator coils are outside with the air handler.

It cannot be a stand-alone system.

All of the above are true statements.

A

It includes conventional forced air, high velocity, and ductless, or mini-splits.

444
Q

8) Which of the following is not an appropriate action when a line-set is frozen in an A/C unit you are inspecting?

It is appropriate to tell any real estate agents that you are involved with the sale of the home.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

If they are not at home, leave a note.

Ask the client for permission to talk to the current owner about this.

A

Turn the unit off until the line is thawed and resume use.

445
Q

9) Most mini-split ductless systems will not operate if the interior temperature is below

A

70 degrees

446
Q

10) The 2-inch diameter of ductwork in a hi-V system typically needs a minimum length of ________ and a maximum length of ________. It needs to be at least ________ long to act as a muffler.

A

6 feet, 30 feet, 6 feet

447
Q

11) While there is no law that says that R-22 refrigerant has to be removed from A/C units, R-22 (also known under DePont’s(r) brand name-Freon), hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) was phased out in what year?

A

2010

448
Q

12) Which of the following is not a standard way to identify an exterior heat pump over a conventional air conditioning unit?

It may appear taller and narrower.

Only one refrigerant line will be insulated.

It may be on short legs.

The data tag on the exterior unit says “heat pump.”

The thermostat may have an “emergency” heat setting.

A

Only one refrigerant line will be insulated.

449
Q

13) When inspecting a heat pump which of the following is NOT a concern?

A

The owner uses the emergency heat setting instead of running the heat pump.

450
Q

14) To start the heat pump in heating mode, you should adjust the thermostat only _______ up to avoid starting the supplemental heat.

A

2 or 3 degrees

451
Q

15) An unrestricted heat pump unit can still provide some heat down to _______ below 0.

A

10 degrees

452
Q

16) Life expectancy of a geothermal unit is approximately _____

A

20-25 years

453
Q

17) The maximum supply air temperature from a geothermal system in healing mode is about 125 degrees, but more typically, it operates at somewhere between _________ and _______ degrees.

A

85 and 95

454
Q

18) What temperature should you test a heat pump in cooling mode?

A

A heat pump should be tested in cooling mode when the outside temperature is at or above 60 degrees.

455
Q

19) A hi-V system removes ____ more humidity than a conventional central air conditioning system.

A

30%

456
Q

20) What is the approximate expected life span for an air source heat pump?

A

12-14 years

457
Q

21) Using Ohm’s law, which of the following scenario is NOT an acceptable circuit load for a single outlet that is 15-amp, 120-volt circuit?

A

A client can run a coffeemaker (rated 900 watts) and a microwave (rated 1200 watts) on the same outlet.

458
Q

22) A service lateral must be protected by either a metal conduit or a schedule _____ to a depth of ____below grade.

A

80 RNC, 18 inches

459
Q

23) Which of the following is NOT the proper wire gauge for stranded aluminum on branch circuits?

14 AWG on 20-amp breaker fuse

12 AWG on 15-amp breaker/fuse

10 AWG on 20-amp breaker/fuse

8 AWG on 30-amp breaker/fuse

6 AWG on 40-amp breaker/fuse

A

14 AWG on 20-amp breaker fuse

460
Q

24) Non-metallic cable running in a wall cavity should go through holes drilled at the center of the stud and there should be at least ______ of wood on each side of the Romex.

A

1 ¼ inch

461
Q

25) Current best practice for the distance for the grounding of the electrode conductor to connect to the water main is within _____ where it enters a building and on the street side of the water meter.

A

5 feet

462
Q

26) In front of any panel or disconnect, there needs to be _____ clear minimum measured from the outer cover of the panel and ____ clear space side to side for the panel.

A

36 inches and 30 inches

463
Q

27) An island requires at least one outlet with ___ maximum countertop protection if the receptacle is on the side and ____ maximum below countertop surface on any side island or peninsula?

A

6 inches, 12 inches

464
Q

28) As per NEC®, the size of a GEC (main ground wire) of service entrance cables is/are

125 amps or less/min. 8 gauge copper (#6 al.)

150 amps/min. 6 gauge copper (#4 al.)

175 amps/min. 6 gauge copper (#4 al.)

200 amps/min. 4 gauge copper (#2 al.)

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

465
Q

29) Which of the following is/are true about armored cable, type AC?

Metal clad cable, type MC is very common in residential.

Type BX has been used since the early 1900s.

Type AC uses the outer steel jacket at the ground path and has paper filler.

Type MC uses the outer steel jacket as the ground path.

Armored cable has a separate green insulated ground wire similar to Romex® (NM).

A

Type AC uses the outer steel jacket at the ground path and has paper filler.

466
Q

As a home inspector, doing calculations to determine the limit on the conductors within each box or conduit is outside of the scope of a home inspection. Use the following “rule of thumb.”

A

Junction boxes should visually appear to be more than 50% empty.

467
Q

31) On average, a silicon-based photovoltaic cell produces about ____ watts at half volt and ___ amps.

A

5 watts, 10 amps

468
Q

32) In what year did the NEC® require that all receptacles at kitchen counters and everywhere in any bathroom require GFCI protection.

A

1996

469
Q

33) Which of the following does NOT meet the minimum clearance for service drop safety measured from the lowest/closest point or bottom of the drip loop.

Areas adjacent to the house – 10 feet

Balconies, decks and porches – 10 feet, for a distance of 3 feet past the railing or edge

Yards and driveways – 10 feet

Openable windows – 3 feet

Roads – 18 feet

A

Yards and driveways – 10 feet

470
Q

34) According to NEC® what is the requirement for along the wall line of a countertop from a receptacle?

A

24 inches

471
Q

35) Modern kitchen need at least two dedicated receptacles that are

A

20 amp circuits

472
Q

36) Forced air combustion exhaust piping for high efficiency furnaces should be ________ apart.

A

1 to 2 feet

473
Q

37) Based on the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA), using what they tell us is unconfined space, calculate the required minimum cubic feet for a 100,000 BTU furnace with a 34,000 BTU water heater right next to it.

A

6,700 cubic feet

474
Q

38) For fuel oil, a single wall vent requires a minimum of ______ clearance from combustibles, while double wall L-vent requires a minimum of _____ clearance all the way around.

A

9 inches, 3 inches

475
Q

39) Even though this part of the combustion furnace is excluded from every set of standards or practice, you should report any defects that are plainly visible and recommend further evaluation by a qualified heating contractor?

A

Heat exchanger

476
Q

40) Which is the most common boiler used to heat residential homes?

A

Circulated boiler

477
Q

41) When performing a visual check of gauges for a circulated boiler, the pressure on the gauge should read about _____ at room temperature.

A

12 pounds

478
Q

42) When inspecting hot steam boilers for basic operation sequences, it is recommended to let the heating equipment operate for at least ____

A

5 minutes

479
Q

43) Do NOT operate a circulated boiler unless there is at least ______ of pressure on the gauge.

A

10 pounds

480
Q

44) What is the most common type of ductwork used for forced air heating and cooling?

A

Steel

481
Q

45) The sight glass or gauge glass normal water starting level is about ___________, while the normal operating level is about ⅓ full or less.

A

½ to ⅔ full

482
Q

46) Which of the following is NOT true of a steam boiler heating system?

A

Operates at 200 to 203 degrees Fahrenheit

483
Q

47) While combustion space heater sensors are not always reliable, they are supposed to stop the equipment when oxygen levels fall below _____.

A

18%

484
Q

48) Typical clearances for direct vent space heaters are 12 inches on both sides, 36 inches from the top and ____ inches in front.

A

24 inches

485
Q

49) Any type of wall heater, electric or combustion, should be a minimum of _____ away from the edge of a door and never behind it.

A

12 inches

486
Q

50) Which of the following is/are the inspector required to inspect for fireplaces and fuel-burning appliances?

Fuel-burning fireplaces and stoves

Fuel-burning fireplace inserts

Fuel-burning accessories installed in fireplaces

Chimneys and vent systems

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

487
Q

51) When inspecting fireplaces, the hearth extension must be at least ______ in depth from the front of the fireplace and 8 inches to each side for openings less than 6 square feet.

A

16 inches

488
Q

52) According to the U.S. Fire Administration, chimney and flue fires are ______ on the list of residential fires.

A

Second

489
Q

53) According to the U. S. Fire Administration, wood stoves cause over _______ residential fires annually.

A

5,000

490
Q

54) Unlisted, meaning older wood stoves, need at least _____ of clearance to combustibles, even with the best clearance reduction systems as specified by NFPA 211.

A

12 inches

491
Q

55) Single wall stove pipes need _____ clearance to combustibles, while double wall stove pipes need 6 inches clearance.

A

18 inches

492
Q

56) What type of boiler operates at an average range of 215 degrees Fahrenheit?

A

Steam

493
Q

57) Which of the following is/are Standard of Practice for plumbing inspection?

A

Sewage injectors, sump pumps, and related piping

494
Q

58) Which of the following plumbing supply piping is for radiant heat only?

A

HePEX

495
Q

59) Galvanized steel or brass pipe, 1 ¼ inch in diameter or less, should be supported every _____. For 1 ½ inch diameter and up, it should be supported every _____.

A

10 feet, 12 feet

496
Q

60) When inspecting plumbing distribution systems, which of the following should you refer the client for review by a licensed plumber?

A pipe that you cannot determine if it is or is not abandoned

A galvanized pipe in direct contact with a copper pipe that is corroded

A hose bib that is not secured to the wall

A slight kink in a copper pipe

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

497
Q

61) There should be at least one plumbing vent visible through the roof, and in cold weather climates, the vent needs to be a minimum of _____ in diameter.

A

3 inches

498
Q

62) While measuring and reporting on water pressure is not required by the Standard, if you choose to measure water pressure, it should be ___ to ____ PSI.

A

30 to 80

499
Q

63) The required air gap between the discharge end of a faucet and the top of a fixture (above the flood room) needs to be at least _____.

A

2 inches

500
Q

64) Minimum shower stall size is ____ by ________.

A

30 inches by 30 inches

501
Q

65) For hot water heaters that use oil for fuel, a single wall vent requires _______ clearance to combustibles, and a double wall L-vent requires _______ clearance to combustibles.

A

9 inches, 3 inches

502
Q

66) Water heater piping must have union fittings on all pipes with _______ of the water heater to facilitate with replacement of the water heater.

A

5 feet

503
Q

67) For tankless water heaters, NFPA 54 requires two openings with ______ net free area of air per 1,000 btu/hr of gas input.

A

1 inch

504
Q

68) Steel plate protection is required in a wall if the pipping is less than _____ from the face of framing.

A

1 inch

505
Q

69) When inspecting crawl spaces in a home and identifying rotted wood or materials, do not use the word rot. The correct terminology for your report is _______.

A

Wood destroying organisms (WDO)

506
Q

70) For crawl space venting, approved vent coverings should not have more than a _____ gap.

A

1 inch

507
Q

71) Crawl space exposed earth should be covered with a continuous class I ground vapor barrier retarder, and the joints of the vapor retarder should overlap by at least _____ and shall be sealed or taped. The edges of the vapor retarder shall extend not less than _____ up the stem wall and shall be attached and sealed to the stem wall or insulation.

A

6 inches , 6 inches

508
Q

72) If a crawl space has exhaust-powered ventilation, the continuous mechanical exhaust ventilation should operate at a rate equal to ______ per minute for each _______ or crawl space floor area, including an air pathway to the common area, such as a duct to transfer grille and perimeter walls insulated.

A

1 cubic foot, 50 square feet

509
Q

73) If the relative humidity in a crawl space is consistently above_____ then dehumidification is recommended.

A

55%

510
Q

74) For attic ventilation, the absolute minimum is _______ of vent, 50/50 between the ridge to soffit, for every _________ of attic space.

A

1 square foot, 150 square feet

511
Q

75) Attic vent ventilation opening should have at least dimensions of a _____ minimum and _____ maximum opening.

A

1/16 inch, 1/4 inch

512
Q

76) Radiant energy accounts for over _____ of all the heat transfer, whether into the home or out of the home.

A

95%

513
Q

77) Which type of insulation can be found in older homes, is not used in the United States anymore, and has a low R-value of 2.13?

A

Vermiculite

514
Q

78) Polyisocyanurate insulation is foil-faced making it a good thermal radiant barrier, and has an R-value of ____ per inch.

A

7.2

515
Q

79) What does a compromised thermal envelope lead to?

Dew points on the inside or exterior walls in the winter

Dew points and humidity-related problems in the summertime

Ice damming in the winter months

Inefficiency and increased energy usage for the home

All of the above.

A

All of the above.

516
Q

80) Low density spray foam insulation’s R-value starts at _____ per inch.

A

3.6

517
Q

81) If one ton of cooling is equal to 12,000 BTUs, how many BTUs is need for 1 ½ tons of cooling?

A

18,000 BTUs

518
Q

82) How many Watts is equivalent to 1 horsepower (HP)?

A

745.7 Watts

519
Q

83) What is the “typical” efficiency rating for permanently-split capacitor motors?

A

90%

520
Q

85) If you want to make something feel hotter, you increase the amount of water vapor in the air and you heat up the air. In close approximations, ____ of air is composed of nitrogen (N2), ____ of air/oxygen (O2), and about _____ water vapor. This is important because the majority of heat energy is absorbed in the water vapor (H2O), not the N2 or O2.

A

78%, 21%, 0.5%

521
Q

86) The American Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRA) say that the living area of a home should be ventilated at a rate of _____ air change per hour, or ________ per minute per person, whichever is greater. Depending on the climate, that is a complete change of air about every three hours.

A

0.35, 15 cubic feet

522
Q

87) To determine the required capacity for range hood exhaust systems capacity by cubic feet per minute (CFM) you calculate the total heat output of the range in British thermal units (BTUs) and divide by _____ for intermittent systems or by _____ for continuous systems.

A

100, 400

523
Q

88) Which of the following is NOT accurate for dryer ventilation?

Dryer vent connections can be secured with metal tape or duct tape.

Flexible vents connecting the dryer to the wall vent should not be plastic

Vent duct concealed in the wall must be rigid non-flexible.

Solid plastic vent material should never be allowed.

Dryer vents must be a minimum size of 4 inches in diameter

A

Dryer vent connections can be secured with metal tape or duct tape.

524
Q

89) Which type of ventilation system has two fans and two duct systems and is pretty much the dominant type of system available today?

A

Balanced ventilation systems

525
Q

90) ASHRA recommends intermittent or continuous ventilation rates for bathrooms to be ________ cubic feet per minute (CFM) and 100 to 25 CFM for kitchens.

A

50 to 20

526
Q

91) Dryer vents must be a minimum size of _______in diameter.

A

4 inches

527
Q

92) All 15- and 20-Ampere, single-phase, _____ receptacles located within 20 ft. of the _____ walls of the pool or spa shall be protected by a GFCI.

A

125-volt; inside

528
Q

93) Electric radiant heaters should not be installed over a pool or within ____ horizontally from the inside walls of the pool, and should be at least ___vertical feet away from the pool deck.

A

5 feet; 12

529
Q

94) It is recommended that the water temperature for a pool be set between _________, and spas should be no hotter than ____.

A

78° F and 82° F; 104° F

530
Q

95) Some pool codes require one skimmer for every __________ of pool surface water.

A

500 square feet

531
Q

96) For pool PVC piping that is running above the ground and under a deck, the pipes will require support every _________________.

A

6 to 8 feet

532
Q

97) For underwater luminaires in pools and spas, any light fixture operating at more than _______ must have aGFCI protection.

A

15 volts

533
Q

98) There should be at least _________ in any direction to the water level, the edge of the water surface, and the base of a diving platform for overhead conductor clearance/service drop clearance.

A

22.5 feet

534
Q

99) To calculate the Maximum Applied Water Allowance (MAWA) to establish a water budget for irrigation systems, you use the formula MAWA = ETo x AF x LA x ____.

A

0.62

535
Q

100) Which of the following irrigation budget calculation formulas is used for turfgrass inches?

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.9 inches

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.5 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 0.5)/0.8 = 3.1 inches x 40% = 2.3 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 0.5)/0.8 = 3.1 inches x 40% = 1.2 inches

(ETo x PF)/DU = (5.0 x 1.0)/0.6 = 8.3 inches x 10% = 0.8 inches

A

(ETo x Kc)/DU = (5.0 x 0.8)/0.7 = 5.7 inches x 50% = 2.9 inches

536
Q

101) Which of the following is NOT accurate about irrigation system uniformity and efficiency?

Beneficial water is the water held in the root zone for plants use.

Beneficial water does not include the water applied for environmental modification.

Runoff could be considered beneficial if it is reused downstream.

Both system hardware and management affect irrigation efficiency.

The best irrigation system with high uniformity under poor management can also result in poor efficiency.

A

Beneficial water does not include the water applied for environmental modification.

537
Q

102) When using the calendar method for irrigation frequency, what is the first thing you need to determine?

A

The minutes of runtime per week

538
Q

Which of the following are NOT considered physical problems with irrigation systems?

Broken heads or nozzles

Not similar and uneven spacing

High head drainage

Spray pattern blocked

Sunken heads

A

High head drainage

539
Q

104) What is the correct formula for calculating the average precipitation rate (PR)?

A

PR(IN/HR) = Average (GPM) per head divided by Average head spacing in square feet

540
Q

105) Record individual catch can volumes in ___________ and the station(s) test run time in minutes.

A

millimeters

541
Q

106) What is NOT a critical question you consider related to the inspection of outbuildings?

Do they affect safety?

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

Do they affect the function of other systems on the property?

What is the intended function?

Is it performing its intended function?

A

Does its condition impact the value of the home?

542
Q

107) What is/are the more common function defects found in outbuildings?

Deteriorated structural members

Missing structural attachments

No electrical disconnects

Failing roofing and siding materials

All of the above are common defects.

A

All are common defects.

543
Q

108) Which of the following is NOT listed as a wood destroying organism (WDO) for inspecting outbuilding?

Termites

Mud daubers

Powder Post Beetles

Carpenter ants

Carpenter bees

A

Mud daubers

544
Q

109) Which type(s) of well is/are also referred to as an unconsolidated well?

A

Unconfined aquifer

545
Q

110) What is the average depth of a confined aquifer?

A

250 feet

546
Q

111) What is the recommendation for a septic system time-line for inspecting to ensure that it is not contaminating the groundwater and a private well?

A

Every 1 to 2 years

547
Q

112) Which type of pump is most common for deep private wells?

A

Submersive pumps

548
Q

113) The pressure switch that signals the well pump to start is typically preset with the lower limit at ______ and higher at ______.

A

40 psi, 60 psi

549
Q

114) Which type of iron present in wells should be identified for optimum treatment?

A

Ferric

550
Q

115) Which type of ultraviolet radiation has germicidal properties for disinfection that can be used for well water filtration?

A

UV-C

551
Q

116) Who should perform tests to determine the yield of a well?

A

A licensed well contractor

552
Q

117) When providing inspections that are an auxiliary service, such as inspecting septic systems, which two states have no licensing laws or requirements?

A

Virginia and Pennsylvania

553
Q

118) A gravity fed plumbing drop for a septic system should have a drop of __ inch to __ inch per 1 foot.

A

⅛ inch, ¼ inch

554
Q

119) Which type of septic tanks are becoming the standard and may be mandatory depending on the authority having jurisdiction?

A

Multi-section tanks

555
Q

120) Septic tanks with filters installed to prevent suspended solids from entering the drain field should be changed __________.

A

Whenever the system is pumped out.

556
Q

121) What type of septic systems are the most common variety of residential drainfields?

A

Gravity flow

557
Q

122) Which type of drain field systems lends itself to have one of the highest surface areas for leeching or drainage allowing for a smaller drain field?

A

Multi-pipes

558
Q

123) For horizontal placement, surface water including lakes, streams, rivers, ponds, and the ocean set backs and placement of the drain field are “typically” _______________.

A

75 to 100 feet

559
Q

125) When inspecting the tank, what type of permanently affixed structures need to be noted?

Pavers

Sidewalks

Decks

Sheds

All of the above

A

All of the above

560
Q

126) What is the most common problem with septic tanks?

A

Leaks associated with failure in the wall or a pipe fitting attached to the wall

561
Q

128) On average, a typical anaerobic, gravity fed septic system costs about ________ to replace

A

$7,500

562
Q

129) Which of the following is NOT something the electric utility company owns nor is responsible for maintenance?

The service drop

The meter

The service mast

All of the above.

None of the above.

A

The service mast

563
Q

130) A/An ________ is the unit of measurement for electrical resistance.

A

Ohm

564
Q

131) Within a domesticelectrical circuit, where does the current return to?

A

The transformer

565
Q

132) In what areas can Rebar be used for grounding (known as Ufer grounding)?

A

where the ground is extremely hard and rocky

566
Q

133) Per the National Electric Code, when is a light required in a walk-in closet?

A

A light is not required in a walk-in closet per the National Electric Code

567
Q

134) Any outlet on a kitchen island needs to be a minimum of ________ below the countertop.

A

12 inches

568
Q

135) How is representative number for inspection of components such as windows and electric receptacles defined in the ASHI SOP glossary?

A

One component per room for multiple interior components

569
Q

136) Which of the following is/are the inspector NOT required to inspect for electrical?

Signaling or warning devices

Low voltage wiring systems and low voltage components (less than 120 volts)

Ancillary wiring systems and components not a part of the primary electrical power distribution system

Solar, geothermal, wind, or other renewable energy systems

All of the above

A

All of the above

570
Q

137) Which of the following is NOT true about National Electric Code?

It is the oldest used code in America

It is the most widely used code in America

It contains the basic language of electrical inspection

It is an instructional guide or “how to” book

It is not intended for unqualified people

A

It is an instructional guide or “how to” book

571
Q

138) Which of the following is NOT true of how electricity is delivered?

Electrons can move by themselves

We must have use electro-magnetic energy to move the electrons

Energy is imposed on the wires at the source

Energy on wires causes the electrons to move

Moving electrons creates current (electricity)

A

Electrons can move by themselves

572
Q

139) Which of the following is NOT true of how electricity is delivered?

The load is necessary to convert the energy delivered by the current into work

A circuit without a load results in a “short circuit”

The energy is used up at the load to produce work

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

A complete circuit must include a load

A

Current without energy completes the circuit by returning to its source on a hot wire

573
Q

140) What is the correct information in the definition of Ohms?

The amount of quantity of the electrical current

The pressure behind the current

It is measured in pounds per square inch (psi)

The rate of work or power produced by the energy in the current

Is the resistance to current flow of wires or other conductors in the circuit.

A

Is the resistance to current flow of wires or other conductors in the circuit.

574
Q

141) When talking about amps and current, when we double the amps the amount of heat generated is?

A

Quadrupled

575
Q

142) Which of the following is NOT accurate regarding service drop/lateral service masts?

It may be intermediate metal conduit (IMC)

Rigid metal conduit (RMC)

Rigid nonmetallic conduit (RNC)

IMC and RMC are both galvanized steel but are not interchangeable

Rigid nonmetallic conduits (RNC) are stiff gray PVC conduit

A

IMC and RMC are both galvanized steel but are not interchangeable

576
Q

143) A service lateral that is an underground service must be protected by either a metal conduit or a

A

A schedule 80 RNC

577
Q

144) Based on ASHI Standard of Practice for heating, what should be inspected for heating?

Heating equipment

Vent systems

Chimneys and flues

Distribution systems

All of the above

A

All of the above

578
Q

145) What is NOT true about high-efficiency furnaces?

Very high efficiencies equate to over 90% efficiency

They usually have sealed combustion chamber

The combustion air is typically brought in from the interior

They can be known as condensing furnaces

They are known as 90+ furnaces

A

The combustion air is typically brought in from the interior

579
Q

146) What is the last thing to check when inspecting the furnace?

A

Operation

580
Q

147) How many inches does there need to be in front of the furnace for servicing?

A

30 inches

581
Q

148) A working solid platform in front a furnace in an attic should be

A

30 x 30 inches

582
Q

149) According to the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) if the furnace room is not unconfined space, it must have two permanent openings into adjacent rooms. Each one of those openings has to be at least one square inch of free area for 1,000 BTUs per hour input of the gas appliances in that room, and these openings should be within ______ from the floor and ceiling.

A

12 inches

583
Q

150) A double wall B vent requires a minimum of ________ if clearance.

A

1 inch

584
Q

151) A single wall gas vent connector needs _________ of clearance.

A

6 inches

585
Q

152) Which boiler type has been around since the mid-1800s and actually boils water?

A

Steam

586
Q

153) Which type of boiler uses a circulating pump, usually has a tridicator, and uses virtually no make up water?

A

Circulated

587
Q

154) Gravity system boilers tend to run about __________.

A

150 degrees

588
Q

155) Which of the following is Standard of Practice (SOP) for plumbing that the inspector should describe?

Interior water supply

Water heating equipment

Vent piping materials

Location of main water and main fuel shut-off valves

All of the above

A

All of the above

589
Q

156) Which type of plumbing piping was in use as early as the 1960 and requires a solvent weld?

A

Chlorinated Polyvinyl Chloride

590
Q

157) Which type of plumbing piping is commonly used for private wells and is for cold water use only?

A

PEX

591
Q

158) Where is/are atmospheric vacuum breakers (AVB) needed?

At outdoor sprinkler systems

At garden hose bibs

For bidets

Dishwashers

All of the above

A

All of the above

592
Q

159) Which of the following is NOT true about plumbing vents?

Plumbing vents cannot tie together in an attic

They cannot have condensate drains from air conditioning connected to them

They cannot have any other drains connected to them

Horizontal plumbing vents must be pitched to allow rainwater to drain down and out

All of the above are NOT true about plumbing vents

A

Plumbing vents cannot tie together in an attic

593
Q

160) Every house that you see must have either a minimum of one plumbing vent extending through the roof by at least______, or a whole house air admittance valve in the attic.

A

6 inches

594
Q
A