Module 11: Reproduction and Development III Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 phases of the human sex act? Describe each phase.

A
  1. Excitement: erotic stimuli prepare for copulation.
  2. Plateau: changes that started during excitement intensify.
    • Increased heart rate, BP, blood flow, respiratory rate
  3. Orgasm (climax): in both sexes is a series of muscle contractions accompanied by intense pleasurable sensations and increased blood pressure, heart rate and respiration rates
  4. Resolution: parameters return to normal
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2
Q

Erection in both sexes is a state of _____. Describe what this means.

A

Vasocongestion. Arterial blood flow into spongy erectile tissue exceeds venous outflow (increased blood flow)

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3
Q

Erotic stimuli are sexually arousing _____, _____ and _____ stimuli, which can vary greatly from person to person.

A

Tactile, sensory and psychological

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4
Q

What are erogenous zones?

A

Regions of body with receptors for tactile stimuli

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5
Q

Describe the erection reflex. (5 steps)

A
  1. Stimuli excite higher brain centers causing autonomic pathway activation (output).
  2. The PNS response (ACh) is stimulated while the SNS is inhibited. ACh released from parasympathetic nerves binds muscarinic ACh receptors on endothelial cells, resulting in the production of nitric oxide (NO) in endothelial cells.
  3. NO then enters smooth muscle cell and causes relaxation of vascular smooth muscle (↑MLCP, ↓Ca2+i).
  4. Penile arterioles vasodilate, causing an erection.​
  5. Engorgement caused by blood in corporal tissue compresses veins, preventing blood flow back into the veins, maintaining the erection
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6
Q

Climax coincides with _____ and _____. Define each action and the muscle control involved.

A

Emission, ejaculation.

Emission (sympathetic activation of smooth muscle): the movement of sperm out of the vas deferens and into the urethra, where it is joined by secretions from the accessory glands to make semen.

Ejaculation (somatic [skeletal] muscle): the expulsion of semen (about 3 ml) by a series of rapid muscular contractions accompanied by sensations of pleasure.

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7
Q

Does emission and ejaculation require mechanical stimulation?

A

No, erection and ejaculation can occur in absence of mechanical stimulation, non-sexual erection occurs in REM sleep

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8
Q

Define erectile dysfunction. Is it defined as a form of infertility?

A

The inability to achieve or sustain an erection, disrupts the sex act for both men and women. It is not defined as infertility.

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9
Q

What are the 4 causes of erectile dysfunction?

A
  1. Diabetes: damage to nerves and vascular
  2. Cardiovascular disease and atherosclerosis: ED can be an early warning sign of CVD
  3. Neurological disorders: MS, Parkinson’s, stress, anxiety
  4. Various drugs, alcohol and tobacco
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10
Q

What is the primary treatment for male ED? Describe the mechanism.

A

Sildenafil (Viagra) and other PDE5 inhibitors blocks the enzyme PDE5, which converts cGMP to GMP. This activates myosin light chain phosphatase and increases SR Ca2+ reuptake. Reducing the activity of vascular smooth muscle in the body.

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11
Q

Female sexual dysfunction is commonly what? What are 3 treatments?

A

Low sexual desire.

  1. Flibanserin (Addyi) helps restore prefrontal cortex control over the brain’s motivation/ reward pathways that enable sexual desire
    • Activates the serotonin 1A receptors, increasing NE and dopamine release
  2. Androgen therapy: given to post-menopausal women, no FDA approved ones
  3. Bremelanotide, a synthetic hormone given via injection that acts in the hypothalamus, where it targets the melanocortin receptor, believed to be involved in upregulating a woman’s sexual response to appropriate cues
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12
Q

One disadvantage of sexual intercourse for pleasure rather than reproduction is the possibility of _____.

A

An unplanned pregnancy

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13
Q

What are the 3 categories of contraceptive practice? Which is the most effective?

A
  1. Abstinence
  2. Sterilization (most effective)
  3. Interventional methods
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14
Q

Define abstinence.

A

The total avoidance of sexual intercourse, or avoidance at times of expected fertility (cyclical abstinence)

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15
Q

What are the two forms of sterilization for men and women? Why is it recommended that it is only performed when an individual does not want kids?

A

Tubal ligation (females) or vasectomy (males). Sterilization is not easily reversible but sometimes can be, so it is recommended that the risk isn’t taken.

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16
Q

How does tubal ligation affect the menstrual cycle?

A

The menstrual cycle still occurs, the egg just gets stuck.

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17
Q

What are the 3 categories of interventional methods?

A
  1. Barrier methods
  2. Implantation prevention
  3. Hormonal treatments
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18
Q

Give 3 examples of barrier methods. Why do the ones for women have lower rates of pregnancy in women who haven’t delivered a child?

A
  1. Sponge
  2. Cervical cap
  3. Condoms

Women who haven’t delivered a child have a tighter cervix.

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19
Q

Describe implantation prevention. Give the primary method and its side effects.

A

Do not prevent fertilization but rather prevent the implantation of a fertilized egg in the uterine wall. Include intrauterine devices (IUD) as well as chemicals that change the properties of the endometrium (progesterone causing an inflammatory response and increased thick mucus)

IUD: plastic devices (some wrapped in copper) that create a mild inflammatory reaction in the endometrium that prevents the implantation of a fertilized egg as well as kill sperm. Side effects range from pain and bleeding to infertility caused by pelvic inflammatory disease and blockage of the fallopian tubes.

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20
Q

Describe how hormonal treatments work. Give 5 examples of current treatments.

A

Techniques for decreasing gamete production depend on altering the hormonal environment of the body.

  1. Phytoestrogen pills (the pill), administered daily
  2. Progesterone injection (monthly)
  3. Vaginal ring (monthly)
  4. Back of arm implant
  5. Transdermal patch
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21
Q

Hormone treatments consist of various combinations of what 2 hormones? How do these hormones work to prevent pregnancy? What 2 things does this result in?

A

Estrogenandprogesterone, which inhibit gonadotropin secretion (LH and FSH) from the anterior pituitary necessary for ovulation. This:

  1. Prevents recruitment of dominant follicle
  2. Progesterone also thickens cervical mucus
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22
Q

Give the 5 male contraceptives in development and how they work.

A
  1. RISUG/VasalGel: reversible inhibition of sperm under guidance, administered via injection of polymer gel into vas deferens. Kills the cells due to pH change, charge (alters cell membrane)
  2. Male hormone contraception: combination progestin/androgen therapy (NES/T), given via topical gel. Progestin stops HPG axis, androgen supplements the lost testosterone. Initial results are a complete suppression of spermatogenesis in 90% of men
  3. Vaccines: produce antibodies to ovum or sperm (so far unsuccessful)
  4. Small molecule inhibition: tries to block driver of testis-specific gene expression and post-meiotic chromatin reorganization, which is only involved in spermatogenesis
  5. Ouabain analogues: ouabain is an aeropoison, prevents sperm from properly swimming
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23
Q

What are the 5 causes of male infertility (VIRSH)? What do they all center around?

A
  1. Hormone related
  2. Infections: STI’s (chlamydia, gonorrhea), prostatitis, mumps
  3. Varicocele: defective valves in the veins cause pooling of blood in the testis, heating up the sperm
  4. Retrograde ejaculation: sperm is directed into the bladder rather than the urethra
  5. Sperm antibodies: produced by either males or females

All are related to sperm abnormalities

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24
Q

What are the 4 causes of infertility in females?

A
  1. Damaged fallopian tubes: STI’s, surgery, pelvic tuberculosis
  2. Ovulation disorders: PCOS (follicles freeze state, appear cystic), hypothalamic dysfunction, premature ovarian insufficiency (run out of follicles at a young age [< 40])
  3. Endometriosis: endometrium is located where it is not supposed to be
  4. Uterine/cervical disorders: cervical stenosis, uterine polyps and fibroids
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25
Q

What are the two forms of assisted reproductive technology?

A
  1. In vitro fertilization
  2. Artificial insemination
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26
Q

When is artificial insemination typically used? What are the 3 types?

A

Typically used if the male has a low sperm count

3 types:

  1. Intracervical insemination (ICI)
  2. Intratubual insemination (ITI)
  3. Intrauterine insemination (IUI)
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27
Q

What is the process for IVF?

A
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28
Q

Describe sperm capacitation and its role.

A

Sperm capacitation involves the sheddding of surface molecules (proteins and carbohydrates) allowing them to rapidly swim and penetrate an egg.

Shedding speeds motility and exposes head proteins that aid in insertion

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29
Q

Sperm capacitation is believed to depend on what?

A

Substances produced in uterus (albumin, lipoproteins, proteolytic enzymes)

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30
Q

Fertilization of egg by sperm occurs by _____, possibly aided by _____ produced by the egg

A

Chance, chemical attractants

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31
Q

An egg is viable to be fertilized for ___-___hours post ovulation. Sperm will remain viable in the female reproductive tract for ___-___ days

A

12-24, 5-6

32
Q

Fertilization commonly occurs in _____, with the movement of the oocyte aided by _____.

A

Distal portion of fallopian tube, cilia

33
Q

Of the millions of sperm released, how many reach the distal portion of the fallopian tube?

A

About 100

34
Q

Describe the acrosomal reaction and it’s role.

A

Acrosomal reaction: sperm must penetrate loosely connected granulosa cells and the zona pellucida layer, which is accomplished via powerful enzymes that dissolve cell junctions and zona pellucida, allowing the sperm to gain access to the secondary oocyte.

35
Q

What are the 5 steps of sperm penetration into the oocyte?

A
  1. Sperm and secondary egg plasma membranes fuse
  2. Cortical reaction: once a single sperm enters the oocyte, sperm binding receptors signal the cortical granules secrete substances that change the zona pellucida, making it impenetrable
  3. Sperm (n) nucleus moves into the cytoplasm of egg (2n)
  4. Oocyte nucleus completes meiotic division (n x 2), with half of the chromosomes being converted into a polar body (n)
  5. Sperm and egg nuclei fuse to form zygote nucleus (2n)
36
Q

The zygote is a single (diploid/haploid) cell.

A

Diploid

37
Q

How long does the cleavage process (2 to 8 cells) last?

A

The entire cleavage process (2 to 8 cells) lasts around 5 days

38
Q

_____ slows down smooth muscle contraction in fallopian tubes. Does it act when the oocyte is fertilized or when it isn’t?

A

Progesterone. Whether the oocyte is fertilized or not, progesterone acts.

39
Q

Using gestational dating, when does pregnancy start?

A

Ovulation

40
Q

Blastocyst

  1. How many cells?
  2. Structure
  3. When does it implant after ovulation?
A
  1. About 100 cells
  2. Outer cell layer (trophoblast) surrounding an inner cell mass
  3. Implants approximately 7 days after ovulation
41
Q

Upon contact between the endometrium and blastocyst, what occurs?

A

Trophoblasts proliferate and secrete proteolytic enzymes allowing blastocyst to penetrate wall. Endometrial cells will completely surround the implanted blastocyst.

42
Q

What do the outer and inner cell layers of the blastocyst form during implantation?

A

Outer cell layer of blastocyst forms an extra embryonic membrane (chorion), enclosing the embryo and forming the placenta.

Inner cell mass forms embryo and other extraembryonic membranes

43
Q

What are the 2 extraembryonic membranes that the inner cell mass of the blastocyst will form, and what are their roles?

A
  1. Amnion: secretes amniotic fluid (protective function and assists skeletal muscle development)
  2. Allantois: becomes part of the umbilical cord
44
Q

Describe the structure of the placenta and how it develops.

A

Outer layer of cells, chorion, that will become placenta begin to form chorionic villi that penetrate vascularized endometrium.

45
Q

How does the placenta develop a blood supply? Is there direct connection between maternal and embryonic blood?

A

The chorion secrete enzymes that break down walls of maternal blood vessels. Nutrients, gases and wastes exchange across membranes of villi mainly by diffusion

There is no direct connection between maternal and embryonic blood

46
Q

What is the max size of the placenta? How much of the cardiac output can go to the placenta?

A

Placenta grows to about 20cm in diameter (good surface area) and can receive up to 10% of maternal CO

47
Q

What is human chorionic gonadotrophin secreted by and what is it’s role? How soon is it produced by the blastocyst?

A

The chorionic villi of developing placenta secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). Similar to LH, binds LH receptors of corpus luteum, continues hormone secretion, keeping endometrium intact. It is almost immediately produced by blastocyst.

48
Q

In male fetuses, what does hCG stimulate?

A

hCG stimulates testosterone production in developing testes

49
Q

What is hCG used for diagnostically? When can it be sensed?

A

hCG is the hormone detected by pregnancy tests, and can be sensed right after implantation

50
Q

After ___ weeks of development, the placenta takes over hormone production from the _____, and it degenerates

A

7 weeks, corpus luteum

51
Q

What 3 hormones does the placenta secrete? What are their roles?

A
  1. Progesterone: maintains endometrium, suppress contractions (prevents premature contractions)
    • Relaxation hormone
  2. Estrogen: develop milk secreting ducts in breasts
    • Both P & E give negative feedback to HPG axis prevents follicle development
  3. Human placental lactogen (hPL) (human chorionic somatomammotrophin (hCS)): similar to growth hormone and prolactin, alters mother’s glucose and fatty acid metabolism to support fetal growth (decreases insulin sensitivity, increased lipolysis). Increases blood glucose and blood TAG concentration for fetus
52
Q

Gestational diabetes can be attributed to which hormone?

A

Human placental lactogen (hPL). In about 4% of women insulin insensitivity leads to gestational diabetes

53
Q

What is partition?

A

The birth process

54
Q

When does partition typically occur?

A

Normally occurs between the 38th-40th week of gestation

55
Q

Partition begins with _____, the rhythmic contractions of the uterus.

A

Labor

56
Q

What is theorized to be the signal of labor?

A
  1. Signal could be oxytocin, but it doesn’t usually increase until after labor begins (is used to induce labor)
  2. The placenta releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (increased CRH in weeks leading up to birth)
    • Stimulates the local production of prostaglandins
57
Q

What is the sequence of events of the initiation of labor? (3)

A
  1. Days prior to onset of labor the cervix softens and ligaments holding pelvic bones together loosens under enzymatic control (estrogen or relaxin)
  2. At the initiation of contractions fetus repositions lower in abdomen putting pressure on and stretching cervix initiating a positive feedback loop
  3. Labor then begins with spontaneous contractions
58
Q

Describe the birth process in terms of the signals, starting with the stimulation of oxytocin neuron cell bodies.

A
  1. Oxytocin neuron cell bodies in the hypothalamus increase AP frequency
  2. Oxytocin is secreted from the posterior pituitary
  3. Increased uterine contractions (progesterone and oxytocin mix)
  4. Fetus pushes head deeper into the cervix, increasing stretch
  5. Increased stretch acts as positive feedback loop, increasing oxytocin release and uterine contractions
  6. Loop continues until baby leaves womb
59
Q

What is the role of mammary glands? How many lobes are typically there and what do these lobes produce?

A

Mammary glands secrete milk during lactation. There are 15-20 lobes, which produce milk substance in alveoli or acini, similar in structure to the sweat glands

60
Q

During puberty _____ stimulates the growth and branching of milk ducts and deposition of fat. Glands further develop at pregnancy due to _____, _____ and _____.

A

Estrogen, estrogen, growth hormone and cortisol

61
Q

The final development of lactation is that _____ converts epithelium into a secretory structure.

A

Progesterone

62
Q

Estrogen and progesterone inhibit milk production (colostrum [first secretion] initially about 3 days), and are only responsible for the growth and conversion of cells. So what controls milk production? Where is it secreted from?

A

Milk production controlled by prolactin secreted from anterior pituitary

63
Q

What hormone controls milk production? When does it begin to drop?

A

Prolactin, which begins to drop later in pregnancy

64
Q

What hormone controls prolactin? What is this hormone also known as?

A

Prolactin inhibitory hormone (PIH), also known as dopamine

65
Q

_____ causes milk ejection “let down reflex”. Describe this reflex.

A

Oxytocin. Contraction of smooth muscle in breast (myoepithelial) and uterus.

66
Q

Is pregnancy required for milk production?

A

No

67
Q

Puberty in females can be visualized through what physiological changes? What is the average age?

A

Budding breasts and first menstrual period (menarche). Average age 12 (range 8-13)

68
Q

Puberty in males can be visualized through what physiological changes? What is the average age?

A

Subtle, growth and maturation of genitalia, pubic and facial hair, lowering of voice, change in body shape and height. 9-14 years of age

69
Q

Puberty is caused by the maturation of which pathway? What is it controlled by?

A

Maturation of hypothalamic-pituitary pathway: hypothalamic GnRH-secreting neurons increase their pulsatile secretion

Controlled by:

  1. Genetically programmed (increase firing rate = increased GnRH production)
  2. Adipose tissue in females (produces leptin)
    • Low levels of fat cause low leptin causing less GnRH leading to fewer periods
70
Q

What is menopause and when does it occur?

A

The cessation of the female reproductive cycle, occuring approximately 40 years after first menstrual cycle.

71
Q

What is perimenopause and what is it marked by?

A

Perimenopause is the 4 years leading up to menopause, where menstrual cycles often skip

72
Q

Do the ovaries respond to gonadotrophins once in menopause? If yes, how?

A

No

73
Q

What are the symptoms of menopause? What are these caused by?

A

Hot flashes, genitalia atrophy, osteoporosis caused by the absence of estrogen

74
Q

What is andropause?

A

The decrease in testosterone production coinciding with age. ~50% of men over 50 yrs of age have symptoms of andropause. Generally not accepted as a real thing.

75
Q

How can testosterone be maintained to prevent symptoms of andropause later in life?

A

Testosterone can be maintained with an active lifestyle

76
Q

How does andropause affect Leydig cells and responsiveness to LH?

A

Decrease in Leydig cells and responsiveness to LH