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BIOL 2200 > module 11: Musculoskeletal and Reproductive Disorders > Flashcards

module 11: Musculoskeletal and Reproductive Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

name the classification of fractures

A
  • complete
  • incomplete
  • open
  • closed
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2
Q

what is a complete fracture?

A

the bone is broken entirely

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3
Q

what is a comminuted fracture?

A

two or more fragments present

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4
Q

what is a spiral fracture?

A

encircles the bone

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5
Q

what is a transverse fracture?

A

straight across

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6
Q

what is an oblique fracture?

A

at an angle

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7
Q

what is a linear fracture?

A

along the length of the bone

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8
Q

what is a greenstick fracture?

A

only one side is broken

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9
Q

what is a torus fracture?

A

the outer portion of the bone buckles, but does not break

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10
Q

what is a bowing fracture?

A

in bone pairs

  • one bone breaks, but the other only bends
  • difficult to treat since there are 2 different situatiions
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11
Q

what is an open fracture?

A

skin is broken

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12
Q

what is a closed fracture?

A

skin is intact

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13
Q

Describe the three causal classifications of fractures.

A
  • sudden injury
    • results of a fall, blow, or massive muscle contraction
  • pathologic
    • due to. prior disease that weakens a bone
  • stress
    • in normal bone due to repeated stress
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14
Q

Outline the 6 stages of fracture healing.

A
  • a clot forms in the medullary cavity, under the periosteum and between the ends of bone fragments
  • adjacent bone tissue dies (necrosis)
    • torn blood vessels are unable to perform exchange of nutrients to site
  • inflammation occurs
  • phagocytotic cells move in and remove dead tissue
    • fibroblasts lay down collagen fibers and cartilage
    • fibrocartilaginous callus= procallus os formed between bone ends
  • osteoblasts within the procallus synthesize bone matrix, forming bony callus
  • the callus is remodelled by osteoblasts and osteoclasts
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15
Q

Define dislocation and subluxation and where these are most likely to occur.

A
  • dislocation = displacement of one or more bones in a joint in which opposing surfaces lose all contact
    • shoulder, elbow, wrist, finger, hip, and knee
  • subluxation = partial dislocation; displacement of one or more bones in a joint in which opposing surfaces lose only some contact
    • same joints as above
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16
Q

Define kyphosis, lordosis and scoliosis and name one cause for each.

A
  • kyphosis: increased curvature of upper spine
    • brought about through diseases causing loss of bone density in vertebrae or fusion of joints between vertebrae
  • lordosis: excessive curvature of lower spine
    • brought about through misaligned vertebrae
  • scoliosis: lateral deviation of the spinal column, with/without rotation
    • can be idiopathic, due to systemic conditions, conditions not directly affecting spine, etc.
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17
Q

Define sprain, avulsion and strain and where these are most likely to occur.

A
  • strain: tearing or stretching of a muscle or tendon
    • most coming in lower back, and neck portion of spine
  • sprain: tearing of a ligament
    • most common in ankle
  • avulsion: complete separation of ligament from bone
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18
Q

Define osteoporosis, and the general process that leads to this condition.

A
  • decrease in mineralized bone mass, leading to fragile bones
  • general process:
    • old bone is being reabsorbed faster than new bonw is bein deposited, resulting in bones losing density
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19
Q

Name 4 hormones that can affect bone density and how their influence is possible

A
  • estrogen: osteoclast inhibiting activity
    • decrease in estrogen = presence of more bone resorbing cells
  • long term corticosteroid use
  • hyperthyroidism
  • oversecretion of cortisol
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20
Q

Describe differences in male and female bone density and the age at which peak bone density occurs.

A
  • the decrease in bone protecting hormones (testosterone, estrogen) in men is more gradual than in women, so there is slower loss. of bone in men than women during aging
  • men also begin with dense bones, so osteoporotic levels are reached at an older age
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21
Q

Name the hormone linked to post-menopausal osteoporosis and describe how this hormone affects bone density?

A
  • estrogen
  • has an overall osteoclast inhibiting activity.. decrease in estrogen = more bone resorbing cells
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22
Q

What are 4 risk factors associated with osteoporosis?

A
  • age
  • sex
  • long term corticosteroid use
  • endocrine disorders
  • alcoholism
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23
Q

Name 3 clinical manifestations of osteoporosis

A
  • kyphosis: hunched back due to vertebral collapse
  • fractures: due to thin and sparse traberculae in spongy bone and porous compact bone
  • fractures of long bones, radius, ribs, and vertebrae
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24
Q

Define osteomyelitis

A

infectious bone disease

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25
Q

describe exogenous osteomyelitis

A
  • most common
  • caused by pathogens entering joint
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26
Q

describe hematogenous osteomyelitis

A
  • pathogens are carried in the blood from site of infection elsewhere in the body
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27
Q

What is the primary causative organism for osteomyelitis?

A

staphylococcus aureus

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28
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hematogenous osteomyelitis in children

A
  • affects affects area in metaphyseal region close to the growth plate in long bones
  • purulent exudate develops within bone and beneath periosteum
    • cuts off blood supply and causes bone in cortex to die = sequestrum (involucrum)
29
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of hematogenous osteomyelitis in adults

A
  • long bones no longer have conditions that favour bacterial attachment
    • usually affects the axial skeleton
30
Q

Outline the clinical manifestations of osteomyelitis.

A
  • bacteremia
  • pain
  • loss of movement of affected area
  • infection can become chronic
31
Q

Define osteoarthritis, outline its primary and secondary causes describe where they occur in the body.

A
  • local areas of loss of articular cartilage, new bone formation of joint margins (osteophytosis), subchondral cone changes, variable degrees of mild synovitis, and thickening of the joint capsule
  • usually in hands, hips, or spine
32
Q

Describe the pathological changes that occur to joints during the development of osteoarthritis.

A

primary defect = loss of articular cartilage

  • early in disease, articular cartilage changes structure
    • surface flakes off and underlying layers develop cracks
  • exposed articular bone becomes hardened and may develop cysts
  • cartilage coated projections of bone at the edges of the joint (osteophytes) may grow out and alter the anatomy of the joint
  • small pieces of these projections may break off (joint mice) and go into the synovial cavity
  • synovitis and joint effusion develop
  • joint capsule becomes thickened and may stick to the underlying bone = restricted movement
33
Q

Describe the clinical manifestations of osteoarthritis, including the causes of joint enlargement and how this affects joint function.

A
  • appear around 50-60
  • pain in one or more joints
  • primary signs:
    • pain
    • stiffness
    • swelling
    • deformity of joints
  • stiffness usually only in first few minutes of use
  • swelling due to bone enlargement around the joint
    • may also be due to inflammatory exudate or blood entering the joint cavity = increase synovial fluid
  • ROM limited due to cartilage degeneration
34
Q

Define rheumatoid arthritis and outline how it differs in etiology from osteoarthritis

A
  • chronic, systemic, inflammatory autoimmune disease distinguished by joint swelling and tenderness, and destruction of synovial joint
  • first tissue affected = synovial membrane
  • involves the production of antibodies (rheumatoid factors) that react to portions of host antibodies present in the synovial membrane
35
Q

Describe the underlying pathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis, the role played by the immune system and the significance of rheumatoid factor.

A
  • unknown, but probably due to interaction of genetic factors with inflammatory mediators
  • rheymatoid factors = antibodies produced that bind to IgG and activates complement protein = further stimulates immune response
36
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of joint destruction in rheumatoid arthritis, including the inflammatory processes involved.

A
  • an unknown antogen in the synovial tissue triggers immune response
  • b cells produce antibodies (RF) against the Fc portion of IgG
  • RF form complexes with IgG = activation of complement proteins = further stimulates immune response
  • immune cells and large production of cytokines stimulate edema and production of granulation tissue (pannus)
    • pannus has fibroblasts to release collagen = inhibits joint movement and destroy the joint
37
Q

Define pannus and describe its role in the process of joint destruction of rheumatoid arthritis.

A

pannus = granulation tissue consisting of lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts, and mast cells

  • can grow over and erode articular cartilage and bone, expanding and destroying the joint
38
Q

Outline the clinical manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • begins with general systemic maifestations of inflammation
    • fever
    • fatigue
    • weakness
  • joints become painful, tender, and stiff
  • stiffness lasts for about 1 hour
  • initial joints affected are hands, and wrists
  • loss of ROM can progress into deformities
  • loss of mobility = atrophy of surrounding muscles
39
Q

Define ankylosing spondylitis, including how it is manifested and probable underlying pathogenesis.

A
  • chronic inflammatory joint disease of the sarcroiliac joint and the vertebral column
  • characterized by excessive bone formation that occurs at the joint = fusion of the joint
  • primary affects men between 15-40
  • progression
    • fibrocartilage in vertebral joints becomes inflamed
    • damage occur from macrophages and lymphocytes
    • fibroblasts repair the damage, secreting collagen and eventually becomes ossified
    • fusion of the joints
40
Q

Define equinovarus, including how it is manifested and probable causation

A
  • clubfoot
  • one or both feet turn inward and downward
  • can be positional, idiopathic, or as a result of another syndrome
  • can be corrected by manipulation and casting begun soon after birth
41
Q

Define dysplasia of the hip, including how it is manifested and probable causation.

A
  • imperfect development of the hip joint, ranging from unstable to dislocation
  • numerous causes
  • may be corrected with pavlik harness
    • 2-3 weeks if successful
    • if not successful, requires surgery and body casting
42
Q

define primary dysmenorrhea

A

painful mesntruation due to monthly releas of prosglandins from endometrium

43
Q

define secondary dysmenorrhea

A

panful mentrruation releated to pelvic pathological conditions and can occur anytime in cycle

44
Q

define primary amenorrhea

A

lack of menstruation caused by hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis disorder

45
Q

define secondary amenorrhea

A

lack of menstruation for at least 6 months after establishing normal mentrual cycle

  • caused by ovarian, pituitary, or hypothalamic dysfunction, anorexia nervosa, etc
46
Q

Define anovulatory cycle

A

a menstrual cycle in which ovulation, or the release of an egg from the ovaries, does not occur

47
Q

Define dysfunctional uttering bleeding (DUB) and describe its underlying causation and manifestations in relation to anovulatory cycles.

A
  • heavy or irregular bleeding in the absence of disease
    • ovulation does not occur, so no progesterone is produced
    • estrogen continues to be produced, resulting in a very thick endometrium
    • is estrogen levels decrease due to degeneration of follicles, or endometrial tissue exceeds supporting capacity of estrogen produced, heavy bleeding can result
48
Q

Define retrograde mensturation

A

when a woman’s menstrual flow moves in the wrong direction

49
Q

Define endometriosis, including its possible etiology and manifestations.

A
  • presence of functioning endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
  • possible etiology:
    • could be retrograde mentrustion
    • remnants from embryonic development
    • spread through lymph/blood
  • manifestations:
    • inflammation and pain in surrounding tissues
    • fibrosis
    • scarring
    • adhesions
50
Q

Describe cervical cancer, including its cause, associated risk factors and detection.

A
  • second most common cancer of women
  • almost exclusively caused by HPV
  • risk factors:
    • early intercourse/multiple sex partners
    • history of STI’s
    • smoking
    • immunosuppression
  • 90% of cervical cancers can be detected early through the use of Pap smears and HPV testing
51
Q

Describe endometrial cancer, including its incidence and associated risk factors

A
  • most prevalent malignancy of female reproductive tract
  • primary risk factor = unopposed estrogen exposure resulting in hyperplasia
  • mostly occurs in post-menopausal women
52
Q

Describe ovarian cancer, including its incidence and prognosis, associated risk factors and detection.

A
  • causes more deaths than any other cancer of the female reproductive system
  • risk factors:
    • increasing age
    • family history
    • higher frequency of ovulation
  • risk is reduced by factors that suppress ovulation
  • early stages very difficult to detect
53
Q

Define the following terms in relation to breast disorders: galactorrhoea

A
  • secretion of breast milk in a nonlactating breast
  • caused by hormonal imbalances, pituitary tumour
  • usually benign
54
Q

Define the following terms in relation to breast disorders: mastitis

A

inflammation of the breast, usually from infection occurring during lactation

55
Q

Define the following terms in relation to breast disorders: ductal disorders

A
  • benign epithelial tissue tumours that manifest with a bloody nipple discharge
56
Q

Define the following terms in relation to breast disorders: intraductal papillomas

A

benign epithelial tissue tumours that manifest with a bloody nipple discharge

57
Q

Regarding benign breast tumours, outline the terms fibrodenoma including appearance, age occurrence, and manifestation

A
  • seen in premenopausal women (30-50)
  • firm, rubbery, sharply-defined mass, easily moeable
  • asymptomatic
  • not throught to be pre-cancerous
    • surgically removed
58
Q

Regarding benign breast tumours, outline fibrocystic changes including appearance, age occurrence, and manifestation

A
  • same age range (30-50)
  • most frequent breast lesion
  • granular breast masses that are more prominent and painful during luteal portion of the cycle
  • term encompasses a wide variety of changes, from cysts to proliferative lesions with atypical cells
59
Q

Outline the incidence, pathogenesis and initial manifestation breast cancer

A
  • most common cancer in women and the leading cause of death in women
  • most breast cancers arise from the epithelium of the ducts, but can occur in the lobules or in the stroma
  • edges of the lesion can invade local tissue, which is then followed by malignant cells scattering into the lymph nodes
  • cancer can metastasize into other body sites
  • first sign is usually a painless lump
60
Q

Describe six risk factors associated with breast cancer

A
  • hormonal changes
  • giving birth at more than 35 years
  • family history
  • age
  • lobular involution
  • breast density
61
Q

describe how hormonal changes is a risk factor for breast cancer

A
  • length of exposure to estrogen and progesterone has been observed to have an effect
  • early menarche and late menopause increases the risk
62
Q

describe how family history is a risk factor for breast cancer

A
  • specific gene mutations have been linked with increased risk
63
Q

describe how lobular involution is a risk factor for breast cancer

A
  • the glandular structures and connective tissue between the glands are replaced with fatty tissue `
  • more this occurs, the lower the risk of cancer
64
Q

Regarding disorders of the male reproductive system, define the following terms: cryptorchidism

A

a condition in which one or both of the testes fail to descend from the abdomen into the scrotum

65
Q

Regarding disorders of the male reproductive system, define the following terms: hydrocele

A

a type of swelling in the scrotum that occurs when fluid collects in the thin sheath surrounding a testicle

66
Q

Regarding disorders of the male reproductive system, define the following terms: varicocele

A

an enlargement of the veins that transport oxygen-depleted blood away from the testicle

67
Q

Describe torsion of the testis, including its common causes, manifestation and treatment

A
  • when the testis rotates on its axis, interrupting its blood supply
  • usually cogenital abnormalities of tunica vaginalis or spermatic cord exists that predispose
  • causes ischemia
    • must be corrected withing 6 hrs of symptoms to preserve 100% normal function
68
Q

Describe “benign prostatic hyperplasia” (BPH) including its incidence and manifestation

A
  • age related, non-malignant enlargement of the prostate gland
  • > 50% men older than 60 have BPH
  • becomes a problem if enlargement interferes with passage of urine through urethra
  • manifestations
    • frequent urges to urinate
    • delay in starting urination
    • decreased force of flow
69
Q

Describe cancer of the prostate gland, including risk factors, detection, location and manifestaions.

A
  • increases with increasing age- more than 85% diagnosed men older than 65
  • prostate specific antigen (PSA)
    • compound secreted by prostate cells that can be used to screen for prostate cancer
  • confirmation through biopsy
  • risk factors:
    • diet
    • inflammation
    • hormones
    • genetic factors
  • tumour usually located in periphery of prostate
  • manifestations:
    • bone pain at sites of bone metastasis
    • enlargement of lymph nodes
    • liver enlargement
    • mental confusion associated with brain metastases ›

BIOL 2200 (12 decks)

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