Module 10.3 - Other Cancers Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors associated with lung cancer development?

A
  • Tobacco smoking is the most common cause of lung cancer
  • Environmental smoke exposure (second hand smoke)
  • Occupation risk factors, including:
    • Asbestos dust
    • Arsenic, chromium, nickel dusts
    • Ionizing radiation,
    • Chloromethyl methyl ether (used as a solvent in the manufacture of water repellents and industrial polymers.
    • Coal products
    • Mustard gas- used in chemical warfare situations, such as Vietnam
    • Vinyl chloride
    • Genetic susceptibility
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2
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of lung cancer

A
  • Environmental carcinogens found in tobacco smoke and asbestos are associated with malignant transformations
  • Tobacco smoke contains as many as 30 lung carcinogens
  • Carcinogens, along with an inherited genetic predisposition to cancers and epigenetic mechanisms results in tumor formation and development of a microenvironment that promotes tumor progression
  • Carcinogen-induced mutations occur, further tumor development is promoted by growth factors that alter cell growth and differentiation and by cells and products of inflammation that promote immune suppression, neoangiogenesis, lymphangiogenesis, remodeling of extracellular matrix, invasion and metastasis.
  • Bronchial mucosa exposed to repetitive tobacco smoke, has eventual epithelial cell changes which progress from metaplasia to carcinoma in situ and finally to invasive carcinoma
  • Tumor progression includes invasion of surrounding tissues and metastasis to distant sites, including brain, bone marrow and liver.
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3
Q

What is the most common type of lung cancer?

A

Non-small cell lung carcinoma (NSCLC) – bronchogenic lung cancer; makes up 85% of all lung cancers.

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4
Q

What are some characteristics of Squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • 30% of all bronchogenic carcinomas
  • Associated with smoking and COPD
  • Typically located near hila and project into bronchi
  • Nonproductive cough or hemoptysis is common
  • Pneumonia and atelectasis often associated with SCC
  • Slow to metastasize until late in disease course
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5
Q

What are some characteristics of adenocarcinomas?

A
  • Tumors usually arise in the periphery of pulmonary parenchyma
  • Metastasize early
  • Includes bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma- which arises from terminal bronchioles and alveoli
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6
Q

What are some characteristics of Large cell undifferentiated carcinoma?

A
  • Constitute about 10-15% of bronchogenic carcinomas
  • Transformed epithelial cells that have lost all evidence of differentiation
  • Commonly arise centrally and can grow to distort trachea and cause widening of carina
  • Radiation and chemotherapy has not been shown to increase survival in metastasis
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7
Q

What are some characteristics of Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC)?

A
  • Most common neuroendocrine lung cancer- approx.15%
  • Arise from neuroendocrine cells that contain neurosecretory granules and exist throughout tracheobronchial tree.
  • Often associated with tumor-derived hormone production, with resultant signs and symptoms of paraneoplastic syndromes
  • Tumors arise from central part of lung
  • Most common type of lung cancer that causes signs and symptoms of SIADH
  • SIADH manifestations include changes in mental status, lethargy, seizures. In some patients there are no symptoms despite very low sodium levels.
  • Paraneoplastic syndrome examples include: Cushing’s syndrome, hypocalcemia, gynecomastia, carcinoid syndrome and hyponatremia
  • Cell type has strongest correlation with tobacco smoking
  • Metastasize early and have a rapid rate of growth
  • Worst prognosis of all lung cancer types
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8
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of lung cancer?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Chest pain
  • Dyspnea
  • Loss of appetite
  • Cough
  • Hemoptysis
  • Hoarseness
  • Wheezing
  • Sputum production
  • Recurring infections- bronchitis and pneumonia
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9
Q

What laboratory/diagnostic tests are done for lung cancer?

A
  • Biopsy- only definitive test, such as CT guided fine needle aspiration or bronchoscopy for sputum cytology or needle aspiration
  • Pleural effusion- approx. 40-50% are malignant pleural effusions
  • Chest x-ray presentation varies with cell type
  • Comparison with old films is extremely valuable
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10
Q

Which type of lung cancers are present in the periphery, centrally, or in the cavitation?

A

Central lesions tend to be:

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Small cell carcinoma (SCC)

Peripheral lesions tend to be:

  • Adenocarcinoma
  • Large cell carcinoma
  • Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma

Cavitation tends to be:

  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Large cell carcinoma
  • Early mediastinal involvement tends to be small cell carcinoma
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11
Q

How do you manage a patient with small cell carcinoma?

A
  • Oncology referral
  • Therapy dependent on: cell type, pre-morbid conditions, underlying lung function
  • Almost always treated with chemotherapy – cisplatin or carboplatin based
  • RARELY treated with surgical excision (pneumonectomy)
  • Commonly spreads to brain
  • If extensive stage- radiation sometimes used with chemotherapy
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12
Q

What are some characteristics of colorectal cancer?

A
  • 3rd most common cause of cancer and cancer death in the U.S.
  • Incidence declining due to successful screening programs, removal of polyps and increased use of NSAIDs
  • Tends to occur in persons over age 50, rare in children
  • Prevalence is highest worldwide in black population- primarily due to lack of access to screening and treatment
  • Develops in individuals with an acquired or inherited genetic predisposition who are exposed to a combination of environmental risk factors
  • Lifestyle modifications related to diet, alcohol, tobacco use, exercise and weight control are the most effective approaches to primary prevention of CRC
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13
Q

What are some risk factors for the development of colorectal cancer?

A
  • Gene mutations may be acquired or inherited (ON TEST)
    • Cells that have mutations in certain genes that are involved in correcting mistakes made when DNA is copied in a cell are termed as having a ‘mismatch repair deficiency (MMR)’. It is common in colorectal cancer (and other types of GI cancer and endometrial cancer).
    • Knowing if a tumor is MMR deficient helps to plan treatment or predict how well the tumor will respond to treatment.
  • Family history occurs in about 25% of all cases –
    • Familial adenomatous polyposis (100% risk of developing CRC)
    • Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) (40% of developing CRC)
  • Chronic inflammatory bowel disease increased risk of CRC after 10-15 years of disease.
  • Most colorectal cancers arise from adenomatous polyps, with the exception of HNPCC, which arises from apparently normal intestinal epithelial tissue and is more rapidly spreading.
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14
Q

What are tubular adenomas?

A

has a stalk projecting from intestinal wall; most prevalent type of polyp

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15
Q

What are Villous adenomas?

A

has fingerlike projections of epithelium without stalks and tending to be larger than 1 cm

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16
Q

What are some characteristics of adenomatous polyps?

A
  • When polyps are larger than 2 cm, more numerous (> 20) and have a villous architecture, they have the most malignant potential.
  • The adenomatous polyp forms in an area of epithelial cell hyper proliferation and crypt dysplasia
  • When the adenoma traverses the muscularis mucosae, it becomes highly invasive and highly malignant.
  • Screening colonoscopy with polypectomy is important since adenomas can be detected early and removed prior to submucosa being penetrated.
  • Progression from polyps to colon cancer involves a multistep cascade of genetic mutations that occur over 10-15 years.
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17
Q

What are some subjective/physical exam findings associated with colorectal cancer?

A
  • Patients usually asymptomatic with polyps and early-stage tumors, making screening all important
  • Symptoms of CRC dependent on location, size, shape and metastasis of lesion
  • Digital rectal examination, combined with stool guaiac testing, is most important part of PE.
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18
Q

What are some characteristics of right-sided colon tumors?

A
  • Polypoid and extend along one wall of cecum and ascending colon
  • Tumors may be silent, evolving to pain with a palpable mass in RLQ
  • Fatigue, dark red or mahogany colored blood mixed with stool and anemia
  • Tumors become large & bulky with necrosis and ulceration, contributing to persistent blood loss and anemia
  • Obstruction uncommon since tumors do not encircle colon.
  • More common in women
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19
Q

What are some characteristics of left-sided colon tumors?

A
  • Tumors in descending colon, small, elevated, button like masses
  • Grows circumferentially, encircling entire bowel wall
  • Eventually ulcerating as tumor penetrates blood supply
  • Obstruction is common but occurs slowly
  • CLASSIC SIGNS: change in bowel habits, stools become narrow and pencil-shaped, bright red blood on stools.
  • Progressive abdominal distention and pain
  • Vomiting, constipation, need for laxatives, cramps and bright red blood on the surface of stool and anemia
  • More common in men
20
Q

What are some characteristics of breast cancer?

A
  • Breast cancer is the most common cancer in U.S. women
  • Caucasian women with the highest incidence of breast cancer, followed by African American women

Women under age 45 have a higher incidence of breast cancer if risk factors are present, including:

  • Close relatives who were diagnosed with breast/ovarian cancer when younger than 45
  • Alterations in BRCA2 and BRCA2 genes, or close relatives with this mutation
  • Ashkenazi Jewish heritage
  • Treatment with radiation therapy to breast/chest during childhood
  • Have been diagnosed with other breast problems, such as lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS), DCIS, or atypical ductal hyperplasia or typical lobular hyperplasia
  • High breast density
21
Q

Describe the pathophysiology associated with breast cancer

A
  • The majority of breast cancers are adenocarcinomas and they arise from the ductal/lobular epithelium as carcinoma in situ (early stage, noninvasive, proliferation of epithelial cells confined to ducts and lobules)
  • Breast cancer is heterogeneous- due to genetic, epigenetic, and micro environmental influences that tumor cells undergo during cancer progression
  • Cellular subpopulations from different sections of the same tumor vary in many ways including growth rate, immunogenicity, and ability to metastasize and drug response, demonstrating significant heterogeneity.
  • In many breast cancer cases a significant number of somatic mutations as well as a considerable number of germline mutations are found which are tumor enhancers and impose the risk of breast cancer tumorigenesis. Most of the driver mutations occur at the somatic level which a small number of mutations are passed on the lineages, which cause for 5-10% of all familial breast cancer types.
  • Examples of driver genes are HER2 and MYC, PTEN and examples of tumor suppressor genes include TP53, BRCA1 and BRCA2.
22
Q

What are the risks associated with having a BRCA 1 mutation?

A
  • Carriers also have a risk of ovarian cancer also
  • Is considered a High grade cancer
  • 40% of BRCA 1 mutation individuals are at risk for also developing colon cancer.
23
Q

What are the subjective/physical exam findings associated with breast cancer and what is the possible cause of the symptoms?

A
  • Palpable, usually painless breast lump often detected by patient – Commonly FIRST SIGN of breast cancer
  • Chest pain – lung metastasis?
  • Dilated blood vessels- obstruction of venous return?
  • Dimpling of skin- invasion of dermal lymphatics?
  • Edema – local inflammation or lymphatic obstruction?
  • Edema of the arm – obstruction of lymphatic draining in axilla?
  • Hemorrhage – erosion of blood vessels?
  • Local Pain- local obstruction caused by tumor?
  • Nipple/areolar eczema – Paget disease?
  • Nipple discharge in a non-lactating female – Spontaneous or intermittent obstruction by tumor?
  • Nipple retraction – shortening of mammary ducts?
  • Pitting of skin (Peau d’ orange) - obstruction of subcutaneous lymphatics, resulting in pooling of fluid
  • Reddened skin local tenderness and warmth – Inflammation?
  • Skin retraction – Involvement of suspensory ligaments?
  • Ulceration – Tumor necrosis?
24
Q

What are the 3 common types of breast cancer?

A

Carcinoma in situ (confined to ducts or lobules without invasion of surrounding tissue/organs)

  1. Lobular carcinoma in situ – usually does NOT progress to invasive cancer
  2. Ductal carcinoma in situ- MOST COMMON site of NON-invasive breast caner

Infiltrative (invasive) ductal carcinoma

3. MOST COMMON type of invasive breast cancer

25
Q

What are some characteristics of cervical cancer?

A
  • Leading cause of death in most Africa, Central American and South-Central Asia
  • Lower prevalence in the U.S. due to increased screening with PAP test
  • 80-90% of cervical cancer is squamous cell
  • Infection with Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 16, 18,31,33,35,45,51,52 and 56 strongly linked to cervical cancer. HPV 16 is the MOST carcinogenic and accounts for up to 60% of cervical cancers.
26
Q

Describe the pathophysiology associated with cervical cancer

A
  • Cervical cancer is almost exclusively caused by cervical HPV infection.
  • Infection with high risk oncogenic types of HPV is a necessary precursor to the development of cervical dysplasia, known as precancerous cell changes that lead to invasive cancer
  • Precancerous dysplasia, also termed cervical intraepithelial carcinoma (CIN) and cervical carcinoma in situ (CIS) are a more advanced form of cell changes.
  • IMPORTANTLY, cervical dysplasia can be detected noninvasively through examination of cervical cells (Make sure they get their PAP smears)
  • If detected early, treatment is available to prevent invasive cancer.
27
Q

What is the Transformation zone (Squamous Columnar Junction)?

A
  • The line where the above 2 cell types meet.
  • Very vulnerable to oncogenic effects of HPV
  • Location where carcinoma in situ is most likely to develop
  • In this zone, columnar epithelium is constantly being replaced by squamous epithelium in a process known as metaplasia
  • Metaplasia is thought to be affected by hormonal levels
  • Metaplastic cells are at increased risk of incorporating foreign or abnormal genetic material; therefore, are more prone to neoplastic changes.
28
Q

What are the subjective/physical exam findings associated with cervical cancer?

A
  • Predominately asymptomatic
  • Post coital spotting – Most COMMON 1st symptom
  • Vaginal Discharge (less common)- bloody or purulent, odorous, non-pruritic discharge
  • Late symptoms include:
    • Urinary dysfunction
    • Rectal or Bowel dysfunction
    • Fistulas (recto-vaginal) and pain
29
Q

What are risk factors for ovarian cancer development?

A
  • Conditions that increase ovulation over lifetime
    • Early menarche,
    • Late menopause
    • Nulliparity (never gave birth)
  • History of endometriosis
  • Genetic predisposition: BRCA 1 of BRCA 2 mutation
  • Personal history of breast, endometrial or colon cancer
  • Perineal talc powder exposure
  • Family History
30
Q

What are 4 factors that decrease the risk of ovarian cancer?

A
  1. Multiple pregnancies
  2. Prolonged lactation
  3. Use of hormonal contraceptives that limit ovulation
  4. Tubal ligation and hysterectomy
31
Q

What are the symptoms associated with ovarian cancer?

A
  • Commonly asymptomatic until late stage and metastasis occurs; termed ‘silent killer’
  • No sensitive or specific test for ovarian cancer
  • No screening test shown to be beneficial
  • Initial symptoms vague and include:
    • Persistent abdominal fullness/distention
    • Loss of appetite due to early satiety
    • Pelvic pain
  • Screening is warranted if women have new onset of these symptoms that persist for more than 12 days each month
  • Late symptoms include:
    • Pain and abdominal swelling from primary ovarian mass
    • Ascites and distention
    • Dyspepsia, Vomiting, Alterations in bowel habits from mechanical obstruction
    • Vaginal bleeding- may occur due to ulcerations through vaginal wall or hormone secreting tumors
    • Feeling of pressure in the pelvis and leg pain due to large tumor mass
    • Tumor obstruction in vascular channels can cause venous and arterial thrombosis, leading to clot formation
    • Metastasis can cause pleural effusions, frequently malignant in nature.
32
Q

What are some characteristics of prostate cancer?

A
  • Most common male cancer, non-skin cancer, in the U.S.
  • PSA screening is considered overused; thereby amplifying the incidence of prostate cancer by allowing detection of prostate lesions that although meeting pathologic criteria for malignancy, may have a low potential for growth and metastasis
  • PSA is organ specific but NOT specific for prostate cancer, but can be elevated in prostatitis or benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
  • MOST cancers are adenocarcinoma and arise in the peripheral zone of the prostate
  • Prostate cancer rare before 50 years of age.
  • Most prostate cancer is diagnosed in men >65 years of age
33
Q

What are some risk factors for prostate cancer?

A
  • African American race,
  • Family history of prostate cancer/genetic predisposition
  • Northern European and North American men
  • Older age
34
Q

What dietary factors may play a role in prostate cancer?

A
  • Reduce red meat intake and dairy and saturated animal fat intake (dietary fat may increase androgens, increase oxidative stress in reactive oxygen species)
  • Increase vegetables and fruit intake, including tomatoes (lycopene inhibits DNA strand breaks)
  • Reduce body weight (higher BMI associated with poorer outcomes)
  • Vitamin E and Selenium supplements to reduce risk of prostate cancer.
  • Vitamin D and soy isofavones purported to have antiprostate cancer properties
  • Increase green tea consumption- associate with a reduced incidence of several cancers including prostate cancer; contains polyphenols which supposedly binds directly with carcinogens
  • Curcumin has anticarcinogenic and anti-inflammatory properties
35
Q

Where does prostate cancer occur?

A
  • Most occur in the periphery of the prostate (peripheral zone)
  • Prostatic adenocarcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors with a diverse spectrum of molecular and pathologic characteristics
  • Biological aggressiveness related to degree of differentiation rather than size of tumor.
36
Q

What are the subjective/physical exam findings associated with prostate cancer?

A
  • Normally asymptomatic until late stage
  • Initial manifestations:
    • Symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction (as in BPH), such as slow urinary stream, incomplete emptying, frequency, nocturia and dysuria
    • Unlike symptoms of BPH, prostate cancer symptoms are progressive and do not remit with treatment
  • Late stage:
    • Local extension of prostate cancer can obstruct ureters and bowel
    • Bone pain at sites of bone metastasis
    • Edema of lower extremities
    • Enlargement of lymph nodes
    • Development of pathologic bone fractures
    • Mental confusion- brain metastasis
37
Q

What is Leuprolide (Lupron)?

A
  • It is an analogue of a gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) that acts as a partial agonist of the gonadotropin receptors in the pituitary that induce secretion of LH and FSH, responsible for the production and secretion of testosterone by male testes
  • Will cause hypogonadism- ‘chemical castration’
  • Side effects: loss of libido, erectile dysfunction, depression, nausea, diarrhea, weight gain and fluid retention.
  • Causes mild LFT elevations
38
Q

What is doxorubicin used for?

A
  • Used along or in combination with other medications to treat: ALL, AML, Breast Ca, HL, and Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL), Ovarian Ca, Small cell lung ca, + more.
  • An anthracycline-based chemotherapy drug
39
Q

What are the side effects associated with doxorubicin?

A

Risk of heart failure (cardiac toxicity) is 2 times higher for patients who are treated with doxorubicin compared to patients who received other cancer treatments.

40
Q

What is vincristine used for?

A
  • It is approved to treat: HL, NHL, Acute leukemia (AML, ALL)
  • Classified as a plant alkaloid
41
Q

What are the side effects associated with vincristine?

A

Development of peripheral neuropathy (dosage may need to be decreased if this develops)

42
Q

What is methotrexate used for?

A

Used alone or with other drugs to treat ALL, Breast Cancer, Lung Cancer, NHL

43
Q

What are some side effects associated with methotrexate?

A

mucositis, n/v, abnormal liver function tests, fatigue, fever/chills and dizziness

44
Q

What are 2 precautions to be aware of with patients taking methotrexate?

A
  • Do NOT receive a live vaccine while taking methotrexate (includes MMR, polio, typhoid, yellow fever, varicella and zoster vaccines)
  • DO NOT take folic acid on the same day as Methotrexate due to a moderate drug interaction between the 2 drugs
    • Folic acid reduces the therapeutic effects of methotrexate.
45
Q

What is Leuprolide (Lupron) used for?

A
  • Used for palliative treatment of prostate cancer that has advanced.
  • Utilized for androgen suppression therapy; blocks the production and use of androgens.
  • Classified as a luteinizing hormone releasing hormone agonist (LHRH)
46
Q

What are the side effects associated with Leuprolide (Lupron)?

A
  • Hot flashes, fatigue, cardiovascular changes/ischemia, impotence, decreased bone density plus more
  • Recommend calcium, vitamin D and exercise to prevent osteoporosis in men
47
Q

What is Tamoxifen used for?

A
  • Hormone receptor-positive Breast cancer in men and women and ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
  • Is approved to prevent breast cancer in women who are at high risk for the disease
  • Is the oldest and most prescribed selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
  • Tamoxifen WILL NOT work on hormone receptor-negative breast cancer
  • Reduces the risk of breast cancer recurrence by 40-50% of post-menopausal women and by 30-50% in premenopausal women.
  • Will also help stop bone loss after menopause and lower cholesterol levels