Module 10 - Flight Physiology, Safety, Survival, CAMTS Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Initial intervention for managing a patient presenting with bariobariatrauma is?

A. Administer high flow oxygen

B. Decrease oxygen to 4 L/minute by NC

C. Administer high flow oxygen by NRM 15 minutes prior to lift off

D. Maintain cabin pressure at 2,500 feet

A
  1. C: Nitrogen, always present in body fluids, comes out of solution and forms bubbles if the pressure on the body drops sufficiently as it does during ascent into the higher altitudes. Overweight persons (bariobariatrauma) are more susceptible to evolved gas decompression sickness (DCS) as fatty tissue contains more nitrogen. Henry’s and Dalton’s laws predict that, as the diver descends, excess nitrogen will enter the blood and all body tissues. These laws also predict that, on ascent (as ambient pressure decreases) the extra nitrogen that accumulated will diffuse out of the tissues and into the circulation. DCS arises when excess nitrogen leaving tissue forms bubbles large enough to cause symptoms. Size of bubbles is important, since small bubbles can often be found in divers with no symptoms. DCS arises when the pressure gradient for nitrogen leaving the tissues is so great that large bubbles form, probably by coalescence of many smaller bubbles. Large bubbles within tissues and the circulation cause the symptoms and signs of DCS. Diving DCS: A diver ascends from a dive. Altitude DCS: An aircraft flies upward (ascent).
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2
Q
  1. An expanding ETT cuff in flight is an indication of what gas law?

A. Henry’s law

B. Dalton’s law

C. Boyle’s law

D. Charles’ law

A
  1. C: Boyle’s law (expansion or contraction of a gas) describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system. The air in the ETT cuff, for example, expands with altitude (ascent) and contracts during descent. Boyle’s law is one of three gas laws that thoroughly describe the behavior of gases under varying temperatures, pressures, and volumes. The other two laws are Gay-Lussac’s law and Graham’s law. Graham’s law of effusion and diffusion states that the rates of movement of gases at the same temperature and pressure are inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass. Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the individual or partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture. Charles’s law, or the law of volumes, states that for an ideal gas at constant pressure, the volume is proportional to the absolute temperature, which describes how gases tend to expand when heated.
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3
Q
  1. Your oxygen tank pressure reading at 1,200 hours was 1,800 psi. The pilot rechecked the unused oxygen tank in the evening and reported that the gauge reading was 1,500 psi. Which gas law best describes the decrease in pressure?

A. Gay-Lussac’s law

B. Dalton’s law

C. Boyle’s law

D. Henry’s law

A
  1. A: Gay-Lussac’s law states that the pressure of a sample of gas at constant volume is directly proportional to its temperature. Simply, if a gas temperature decreases, then so does its pressure, if the mass and volume of the gas are held constant. The oxygen tank pressure (psi) changes are directly proportional to temperature is an example of this law.
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4
Q
  1. How should your flight suit fit to provide space of insulation per CAMTS recommendations?

A. ½ in.

B. 1 in.

C. Skin tight so I look really hot for the firefighters on scene

D. ¼ in.

A
  1. D: The uniform should fit to allow 0.25 in. (1/4 in.) of air space between the suit and undergarments.
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5
Q
  1. You are beginning to prepare for landing and you have news reporter riding along for the day. You see a high-rise tower at 1,100 high. Sterile cockpit applies how?

A. The news reporter can speak anytime during the flight

B. Flight crew members are the only one allowed to speak

C. Say nothing about the high-rise tower

D. Pilot is the only crew member to speak during all phases of flight

A
  1. B: Observance of a sterile cockpit is a regulation of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) (FAR 135.100) that prohibits nonessential communications between the medical crew and pilot during critical phases of flight. The critical phases of flight include all ground operations that involve taxi, takeoff, and landing and all other flight operations except cruise flight. The medical crew should be aware that there are certain times when they should refrain from speaking to the pilot unless absolutely imperative. These times include the following: during takeoff, during landing, during instrument approaches, and in dense air traffic areas.
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6
Q
  1. You have just crash landed your aircraft and your pilot has asked you to exit the aircraft. What should you take with you?

A. Helmet

B. Bags of normal saline

C. Survival kit

D. Seat cushion

A
  1. C: Survival equipment (kit or bag) should be standard on every air medical aircraft. Specific service area, climate, type of aircraft, and time of year are considerations when survival gear is assembled. The survival gear should be assembled and stored in a manner that affords easy access.
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7
Q
  1. You are transporting a non-intubated seventy-year-old man with a history of bilateral pneumonia on 2 L of oxygen by nasal cannula. You are at 10,000 feet and the patient’s vital signs are BP 190/100, HR 102, RR 24, and SaO2 86%. What is the immediate intervention for this patient?

A. Decrease cabin pressure

B. Increase oxygen delivery to the patient

C. Administer fluid bolus to increase perfusion to heart

D. RSI and intubate the patient

A
  1. B: Hypoxic hypoxia is also referred to as altitude hypoxia because its primary cause is exposure to low barometric pressure. It is a deficiency in alveolar oxygen exchange, which interferes with gas exchange in two phases of respiration: ventilation and diffusion. A reduction in PO2 in inspired air or the effective gas exchange area of the lung may cause oxygen deficiency. The result is an inadequate oxygen supply to the arterial blood, which in turn decreases the amount of oxygen available to the tissues. Decreased barometric pressure at high altitudes causes a reduction in the alveolar partial pressure of oxygen (PaO2). The blood oxygen saturation, which is 98% at sea level, is reduced to 87% at 10,000 feet and 60% at 22,000 feet. The most effective way to prevent physiologic problems is to provide an aircraft pressurization system so that occupants of the aircraft are never exposed to pressure outside the physiologic zone. In those cases in which ascent above the physiologic zone is required, protective oxygen equipment must be provided. Treatment of hypoxia is administration of 100% oxygen.
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8
Q
  1. You are transporting a thirty-year-old man who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. He has a closed femur fracture with a history of alcohol consumption of unknown amount. On the basis of the physiologic effects elicited on the body, which type of hypoxia problems may occur in flight?

A. Histotoxic and hypemic

B. Hypoxic and stagnant

C. Stagnant and hypemic

D. Hypoxic and hypemic

A
  1. A: Histotoxic hypoxia is the inability of cells to take up or utilize oxygen from the bloodstream, despite physiologically normal delivery of oxygen to such cells and tissues. Histotoxic hypoxia results from tissue poisoning, such as that caused by alcohol, narcotics, cyanide (which acts by inhibiting cytochrome oxidase), and certain other poisons like hydrogen sulfide (byproduct of sewage and used in leather tanning). Hypemic hypoxia is where arterial oxygen pressure is normal, but total oxygen content of the blood is reduced, as from various types of anemia or from a loss of blood. Stagnant hypoxia occurs when conditions exist (cerebral ischemia, ischemic heart disease, intrauterine hypoxia) that result in reduced cardiac output, pooling of the blood within certain regions of the body, a decreased blood flow to the tissues, or restriction of blood.
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9
Q
  1. Which one of the following has been determined to be an unreliable sign of hypoxia?

A. Cyanosis

B. Hypertension

C. Tachycardia

D. Tachypnea

A
  1. A: Cyanosis has been determined to be an unreliable sign of hypoxia because the oxygen saturation must be below 75% in patients with normal hemoglobin before it is detectable. Hypotension and cyanosis are late signs of hypoxia. Providing adequate supplemental oxygen is the prime consideration in the treatment of hypoxia.
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10
Q
  1. An increase in altitude produces?

A. High humidity and high temperature

B. Low humidity and low temperature

C. High humidity and low temperature

D. Low humidity and high temperature

A
  1. B: Humidity is the concentration of water vapor in the air; as air cools, it loses its ability to hold moisture because temperature is inversely proportional to altitude; an increase in altitude produces a decrease in temperature and, therefore, a decrease in the amount of humidity. Increase in altitude = low temperature and low humidity.
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11
Q
  1. After a forced aircraft landing, the pilot is incapacitated; your main priority is to?

A. Assume crash position

B. Turn off oxygen

C. Turn off throttle, fuel, and then battery

D. Turn on the emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

A
  1. C: After a forced aircraft landing, the main danger is fire. If the pilot has become incapacitated, the throttle, fuel switch and master battery in sequence, should be turned off. The position of these switches varies with the aircraft, and the flight team must be familiar with the procedure for their specific aircraft.
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12
Q
  1. Your immediate concerns of survival after an aircraft accident include all of the following, except?

A. Obtain water and go for help

B. Building a fire

C. Making appropriate fire signals

D. Creating or seeking shelter

A
  1. A: Knowledge of the rule of threes when priorities are set will greatly increase the chances of survival in the outdoors. This rule states that the average person can survive three minutes without oxygen, three hours without shelter in extreme conditions, three days without water, and three weeks without food. Medical concerns and safety are important in accident, but once these are addressed, the rule of threes should guide priorities. With this rule in mind, the flight team’s immediate concerns after an accident should be creating or seeking shelter, building a fire, and making appropriate fire signals.
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13
Q
  1. No pilot may takeoff or land an aircraft under visual flight rules (VFR) when the reported ceiling or visibility is less than which of the following for local day weather minimums?

A. 1,000 feet and 1 mile

B. 500 feet and 1 mile

C. 500 feet and 2 miles

D. 800 feet and 1 mile

A
  1. B: One of CAMTS’s standards is a recommendation for weather minimums. It seems that weather, particularly fog, which can impair pilot visualization, continues to be a cause of helicopter crashes. Flight programs need to establish weather minimums based on the terrain in which they operate and then adhere to them. The definition of weather minimums is the lowest (worst) visibility conditions under which an aircraft may legally be flown under (VFR). When visibility is less than specified minimums, an aircraft must fly under IFR or not at all. VFR “response” weather minimums must meet or exceed as outlined in FAA-A021.
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14
Q
  1. The emergency transmit frequency is?

A. 121.5

B. 155.5

C. 120.5

D. 105.5

A
  1. A: Airband frequencies of 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz are internationally designated distress signal channels.
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15
Q
  1. Average time of useful consciousness (TUC) for a non-pressurized aircraft at 45,000 feet is?

A. 90 seconds

B. 3-5 minutes

C. 30-60 seconds

D. 15 seconds or less

A
  1. D: TUC refers to the elapsed time from the point of exposure to an oxygen-deficient environment to the point at which deliberate function is lost. Rapid decompression, which occurs when a quick loss of cabin pressure occurs in a pressurized aircraft at high altitudes, dramatically reduces the time of useful consciousness. On decompression at altitudes above 33,000 feet, an immediate reversal of oxygen flow in the alveoli takes place, caused by higher PO2 within the pulmonary capillaries that depletes the blood’s oxygen reserve. The causes of hypoxia include high altitude, hypoventilation, and pathologic condition of the lung.
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16
Q
  1. You are asked to respond to a local scene call with night vision goggles (NVG) capability involving an MVA with multiple injured patients at 2,300. You have been having bad weather off and on. The pilot-in-command (PIC) advises you that weather minimums are currently at 800 and 1. What will you do?

A. Continue and fly to the scene

B. Attempt to fly to the scene and see if you can get there

C. Abort the flight due to weather

D. Say nothing because the PIC is responsible for deciding wheather or not you continue with the mission

A
  1. C: Each program must have a policy that allows any crew member to refuse or abort a flight if they feel uncomfortable. The flight is aborted because the weather minimum of 800 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility is less than the specified minimums recommended for local-night with the use of NVG of a 800 foot ceiling and 3 mile of visibility.
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17
Q
  1. The percentage of oxygen at 25,000 MSL is

A. 4%

B. 21%

C. 18%

D. 7%

A
  1. B: Oxygen concentration remains at 21% regardless of altitude. However, oxygen availability decreases with altitude because the oxygen molecules are farther apart, potentially resulting in hypoxia.
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18
Q
  1. The altitude at which one begins to lose their night vision is

A. 500 feet

B. 1,000 feet

C. 3,000 feet

D. 5,000 feet

A
  1. D: Night vision loss occurs at 5,000 feet, which is part of the first stage of hypoxia which is called the indifferent stage. Four stages of hypoxia need to be considered when examining its effect on human pathophysiology. The four stages are divided by altitude.
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19
Q
  1. The pilot made contact upon the aircraft lifting at 1455. The second contact was at 1510 after landing. The communication center has not heard from the transport team since the last flight following transmission. The postaccident incident plan (PAIP) should be initiated at what time?

A. 1525

B. 1540

C. 1555

D. 1610

A
  1. C: The PAIP becomes the road map for the communication center staff to initiate the necessary critical steps that enhance crew survival and limit the program’s liability. Priorities include verifying facts (crash location, etc.); dispatching rescue crews (civil air patrol, air medical, or ambulance response to the crash site); activating notification list according to the PAIP; and notifying security for crowd control at base of operations and/or hospitals. CAMTS recommends the following for time between each communication during flight and ground operations.
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20
Q
  1. Gas that diffuses from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, best describes which gas law?

A. Graham’s law

B. Charles’ law

C. Gay-Lussac’s law

D. Henry’s law

A
  1. A: Graham’s law, also known as Graham’s law of effusion states that the rate at which gas molecules diffuse is inversely proportional to the square root of its density (same as the square root of its molecular weight). This means that gases will flow from a higher pressure or concentration to an area of lower pressure or concentration. Simple diffusion and gas exchange at the cellular level are examples of this gas law.
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21
Q
  1. Your patient would most likely experience barodontalgia during which phase of flight?

A. Ascent

B. Descent

C. Cruise flight

D. None of the above

A
  1. A: Barodontalgia or aerodontalgia is a toothache that is caused by exposure to changing barometric pressure during actual or simulated flight. It is common for this to occur during ascent, with descent bringing relief. Barotitis media, frequently referred to as ear block, results from failure of the middle ear space to ventilate when going from low to high atmospheric pressure (descent). Barosinusitis, referred to as sinus block, usually present little problem when subjected to changes in barometric pressure. Sinus block is an acute or chronic inflammation of one or more of the paranasal sinuses produced by the development of a pressure difference, usually negative (ascent), between the air in the sinus cavity and that of the surrounding atmosphere. Patient should be monitored closely during ascent and descent.
22
Q
  1. You will be transporting a stable twenty-seven-year-old man with nontraumatic pneumocephalous secondary to gas producing necrotizing bacteria from rural hospital at 8,500 feet elevation to a local hospital at 1,200 feet sea level. What might be the best transport option? What gas law will most affect this patient negatively?

A. Ground; Boyle’s law

B. Fixed wing transport pressurized to 9,000 AGL; Charles’ law

C. Rotor transport; Boyle’s law

D. Rotor transport; Charles’ law

A
  1. A: The most correct answer is ground transport; Boyle’s law. Pneumocephalus is the presence of air or gas within the cranial cavity. It is usually associated with disruption of the skull: after head and facial trauma, tumors of the skull base, after neurosurgery or otorhinolaryngology, and rarely, spontaneously. Pneumocephalus can occur in scuba diving, but is very rare in this context. Unpressurized aircraft is not recommended for this patient’s condition.
23
Q
  1. You are transporting a sixty-year-old man with a history of nonembolic stroke by rotor-wing aircraft in the middle of a sunny afternoon. When the pilot begins to turn the rotors, the flight team notices that the patient’s eyes are blinking rapidly and he begins to experience a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The monitor shows what appears to be ventricular fibrillation, but a pulse can be palpated. The seizure activity ceased when the rotor blades stopped and started again with start-up. The seizure activity is most likely due to?

A. Flicker vertigo

B. Spatial disorientation

C. Hypoxia

D. Increasing intracranial pressure

A
  1. A: Flicker vertigo can occur when transport team members and patients are exposed to lights that flicker at a rate of 4-20 cycles per second. Flicker vertigo can cause nausea and vomiting. In severe cases, it can cause seizures and unconsciousness. Even though flicker vertigo is not a common condition, sunlight flickering through rotor blades can trigger seizure activity in persons with seizure disorders or neurologic disorders. This patient had been recently diagnosed as having a stroke. Other clues to consider that flicker vertigo was the cause of the seizure activity included; sunny afternoon and the seizure activity ceased when the rotor blades stopped and started again with start-up. Treatment can include covering the patient’s eyes to prevent flicker vertigo from occurring.
24
Q
  1. You are doing a night flight when you encounter bad weather. The helicopter suddenly impacts the ground and the cockpit is filled with smoke. The best action of the flight team immediately after experiencing the hard landing should be which of the following?

A. Grab the fire extinguisher and portable radio

B. Make a call for help on the emergency frequency

C. Exit the helicopter after the aircraft has come to a complete stop and meet at a predesignated position a safe distance from the aircraft

D. Stay in the helicopter as it offers the only available shelter in the area

A
  1. C: After the aircraft has come to a complete stop, the aircraft should be exited by normal means first, jettison doors only if necessary, and forcible means if required. Crew members should meet at a predesignated position (usually meeting at the nose of the aircraft, which is twelve o’clock position) a safe distance from the aircraft.
25
Q
  1. Your IABP begins to purge during ascent. The triggering mechanism for this function was initiated as a result of which gas law?

A. Boyle’s law

B. Gay-Lussac’s law

C. Charles’ law

D. Henry’s law

A
  1. A: Boyle’s law describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system.
26
Q
  1. Henry’s law best describes which of the following patient conditions?

A. Bends

B. Barotrauma

C. Shallow water blackout

D. Arterial gas embolism (AGE)

A
  1. A: Henry’s law states that at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas dissolved in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An everyday example of Henry’s law is given by carbonated soft drinks. Before the bottle or can is opened, the gas above the drink is almost pure carbon dioxide at a pressure slightly higher than atmospheric pressure. The drink itself contains dissolved carbon dioxide. When the bottle or can is opened, some of this gas escapes, giving the characteristic hiss (or “pop” in the case of a champagne bottle). Because the pressure above the liquid is now lower; some of the dissolved carbon dioxide comes out of solution as bubbles. If a glass of the drink is left in the open, the concentration of carbon dioxide in solution will come into equilibrium with the carbon dioxide in the air, and the drink will go “flat.”
27
Q
  1. On a long fixed wing flight, an option may be to place water on the ET tube cuff to counteract. Which gas law is it?

A. Henry’s law

B. Graham’s law

C. Dalton’s law

D. Boyle’s law

A
  1. D: Boyle’s law (expansion or contraction of a gas) describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system. The air in the ETT cuff, for example, expands with altitude (ascent) and contracts during descent.
28
Q
  1. Overdue aircraft procedures during flight start after

A. 15 minutes without contact

B. 30 minutes without contact

C. 45 minutes without contact

D. 60 minutes without contact

A
  1. C: Time between each communication should not exceed 15 minutes while in flight unless a system of continuous automatic position tracking is utilized or 30 minutes on ground transport. Time between communications should not exceed 45 minutes while on the ground.
29
Q
  1. The absolute minimum hours required by the Federal Aviation Regulation (FAR) Part 135 with regard to a pilot’s “bottle to throttle” rule is

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 48

A
  1. A: The FARs are rules prescribed by the FAA governing all aviation activities in the United States. Pilots need to be mindful that the “eight-hour bottle-to-throttle” rule is the absolute minimum. Some individuals may require a longer period between drinking and flying depending on the amount of alcohol consumed and their personal metabolism.
30
Q
  1. Who has the ultimate authority to initiate or complete a mission?

A. The flight paramedic

B. The flight nurse

C. The PIC

D. The communication specialist

A
  1. C: The PIC is accountable for nonmedical aspects of the flight and has final authority in flight-related issues. It is imperative that the PIC establishes clear leadership and command authority and appropriately applies the use of authority based on the current situation. Flight team members are in a valuable position to observe the pilot and assist in making safe decisions. Flight crew members assist in flight-related duties as outlined by the PIC. Each program must have a policy that allows any crew member to refuse or abort a flight if they feel uncomfortable.
31
Q
  1. The flight team should be prepared that an aircraft will capsize when it hits water because helicopters are top heavy as a result of the weight of the engines and transmission. Once in the water, the flight team can minimize heat loss by using which of the following?

A. Heat escape-lessening posture (HELP)

B. Lateral recumbent position

C. Seat cushions

D. Arms and legs should be moved quickly during ascent to the surface

A
  1. A: Once in the water, the flight team can minimize heat loss by using the HELP. Flight crew members can achieve this position by bringing the knees up to the chest and putting the arms across the chest. The flotation device must be used with the HELP to stay afloat. The surviving flight team should huddle together to decrease heat loss. Protection against exposure, care of the raft, and signaling are the primary objectives in open-water survival.
32
Q
  1. The total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the partial pressures of all gases. Which gas law best describes?

A. Boyle’s law

B. Graham’s law

C. Dalton’s law

D. Charles’ law

A
  1. C: Dalton’s law of partial pressures states that the total pressure of a gas mixture is the sum of the individual or partial pressures of all the gases in the mixture.
33
Q
  1. Malpractice is based on a professional standard of care. The elements that must be proved for a malpractice case include all of the following, except?

A. Causation

B. Injury

C. Abandonment

D. Damages

A
  1. C: Elements that must be proved in a malpractice case are causation, injury, and damages. Negligence and malpractice are often incorrectly used as interchangeable terms. Negligence is a deviation from accepted standards of performance. Malpractice is based on a professional standard of care, as well as the professional statutes of the caregiver. Other elements included in a malpractice case are presence of duty, breach of duty, and forseeability.
34
Q
  1. Air medical programs that frequently fly over large bodies of water need to be familiar with emergency egress procedure in the event of a forced water landing. All of the following are correct regarding the emergency egress, except?

A. During surface ascent, exhalation should be done rapidly to prevent serious lung injury

B. Personal flotation devices should be worn

C. No attempt should be made to exit the aircraft until the blades have completely stopped

D. Maintain a fixed reference orientation with hands

A
  1. A: Air bubbles travel to the surface observing them may help crew members establish orientation; however, poor lighting conditions may prevent adequate visualization of bubbles. Crew members should gently use their arms to push themselves out of the aircraft and avoid kicking to prevent injury to crew members following behind. During surface descent the crew member should exhale slowly to prevent serious lung damage, should they attempt to hold their breath.
35
Q
  1. Administration of the wrong medication to a patient best describes which element of malpractice?

A. Breach of duty as a result of malfeasance

B. Breach of duty as a result of nonfeasance

C. Breach of duty as a result of forseeability

D. Negligence

A
  1. A: Once it is established that a duty exists, the second element is a breach of duty. Breach of duty may occur as a result of malfeasance (act of commission) or nonfeasance (act of omission). Administering the wrong medication would be malfeasance, whereas failure to follow a procedure would be nonfeasance.
36
Q
  1. During descent, gas will

A. Expand

B. Contract

C. Equalize

D. Purge

A
  1. B: Boyle’s law describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system. Boyles law: Volume decreases and pressure increases; pressure increases and volume decreases. Charles’ law: Temperature decreases and volume decreases; temperature increases and volume increases. Gay-Lussac’s law: Pressure decreases and temperature decreases; pressure increases and temperature increases.
37
Q
  1. The radio signal that follows the curvature of the earth and has the greatest range is?

A. Very high frequency (VHF) AM

B. VHF high-band FM

C. VHF low-band FM

D. Ultra high frequencies (UHF)

A
  1. C: VHF low-band FM (30-50 MHz); the VHF radio signal in this band follows the curvature of the earth and has the greatest range.
38
Q
  1. The ELT takes a minimum of ____________ g’s to activate.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

A
  1. B: All EMS aircraft are required by the FAA to carry an ELT, which are designed to emit a radio signal when activated that will be received by satellites and relayed to rescue personnel. The radio signal does not pinpoint the position of the aircraft but gives rescuers a general area in which to begin search. The ELT is activated by an impace exceeding 4g’s (four times the force of gravity) and broadcasts on the universal distress channel 121.5. Flight team members should know the location of the ELT and ensure that it has been activated. If an impact does not automatically activate the ELT, it can be activated manually by use of the directions on the box.
39
Q
  1. A repeater system is a type of which of the following radio systems?

A. Simple duplex

B. Full duplex

C. Half duplex

D. Multiplex

A
  1. C: A radio repeater is a combination of a radio receiver and a radio transmitter that receives a weak or low-level signal and retransmits it at a higher level or higher power, so that the signal can cover longer distances without degradation. A repeater system is a type of half duplex system that involves a base station “repeater” at an elevated site remote from the communications center. A repeater system receives a signal on one frequency and instantly retransmits it on a second frequency to the other radios in the system, extending the communication’s center’s range. The process is reversed when the repeater receives signals coming into the base station.
40
Q
  1. In aviation, “You may fly instrument flight rules (IFR) in visual meteorological conditions (VMC), you cannot fly VFR in _________.”

A. VMC

B. IFR

C. Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)

D. DMC

A
  1. C: In aviation, VMC is an aviation flight category in which VFR flight is permitted—that is, conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility to fly the aircraft maintaining visual separation from terrain and other aircraft. They are the opposite of IMC. IMC, sometimes referred to as blind flying, is an aviation flight category that describes weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments, and therefore under IFR, rather than by outside visual references under VFR. Typically, this means flying in cloud, bad weather or at night. So the rule is, you may fly IFR in VMC, but you cannot fly VFR in IMC. It is important not to confuse IMC with IFR—“IMC” describes the actual weather conditions, while “IFR” describes the rules under which the aircraft is flying. Aircraft can (and often do) fly IFR in clear weather, for operational reasons, or when flying in airspace where flight under VFR is not permitted; indeed by far the majority of commercial flights are operated solely under IFR.
41
Q
  1. Decompression illness is mostly attributed to which gas law?

A. Boyle’s law

B. Charles’ law

C. Henry’s law

D. Dalton’s law

A
  1. C: Henry’s law has two parts: part one states that as pressure increases, solubility of gases in liquids increases; and part two state that as temperature increases, solubility of gases in liquids decreases (colder liquids hold more gas than warmer liquids, as liquid warms up, the gas starts to come out of solution). When a diver goes underwater and subjects the body to increase pressure, the tissues are able to absorb more gases. The oxygen is used up by cellular processes, but the nitrogen is inert and just packs into the tissues. The deeper the diver goes and the longer he stays, the more nitrogen packs into the tissues. Together, Boyle’s and Henry’s laws explain why, as a diver descends while breathing compressed air: 1. Inhaled PO2 and PN2 increase. 2. The amount of nitrogen and oxygen entering the blood and tissues also increase. Henry’s and Dalton’s laws predict that, with descent, inhaled PO2 and PN2 will increase and cause an increased amount of nitrogen and oxygen to enter the blood and tissues. The opposite occurs on ascent: inhaled PO2 and PN2 decrease, and allow the excess nitrogen and oxygen to leave the blood and tissues. The problem begins when the diver ascends and reduces the pressure the body is under, making the nitrogen less soluble in the tissues. If the diver comes up too fast (releases the pressure to fast), the nitrogen comes out in the form of bubbles, just like soda (the bottle of carbonated soda before it is opened is under pressure, when the bottle is opened, you release the pressure and the carbon dioxide becomes less soluble and comes out of solution in the form of bubbles). In order to avoid DCS, “the bends” and to prevent the bubbles from being released from the tissues, the diver must ascend slowly enough that the pressure is released slow enough to allow the nitrogen to leave the tissues without forming bubbles.
42
Q
  1. During flight, you notice that the IV drip rate has increased. Which gas law is responsible for this to occur?

A. Graham’s law

B. Henry’s law

C. Charles’ law

D. Boyle’s law

A
  1. D: Boyle’s law describes the inversely proportional relationship between the absolute pressure and volume of a gas, if the temperature is kept constant within a closed system.
43
Q
  1. The number one cause of aero-medical crashes is

A. Pushing the weather (weather-related)

B. Pilot fatigue

C. Night missions

D. Flying IFR in VMC

A
  1. A: In 1988, the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) released the results of an investigation of fifty-nine EMS accidents that occurred between 1978 and 1986. The study concluded that weather-related (pushing the weather) accidents were the most common and most serious type of accident experienced by EMS helicopters. In comparison with the 1980s, the 1990s saw a 10% increase in weather-related accidents.
44
Q
  1. Unless it is acted on by a force, a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will move at a constant speed in a straight line best describes which of the following laws?

A. Boyle’s law

B. Newton’s law

C. Graham’s law

D. Dalton’s law

A
  1. B: Newton’s first law of motion states unless it is acted on by a force, a body at rest will remain at rest and a body in motion will move at a constant speed in a straight line. The remaining three are gas laws.
45
Q
  1. Four basic variables that affect gas volumetric relationships include all of the following, except?

A. Temperature

B. Altitude

C. Pressure

D. Mass of gases

A
  1. B: Four basic variables that affect gas volumetric relationships are temperature, pressure, volume, and the relative mass of gas or the number of molecules. Gas laws govern the body’s physiologic response to barometric pressure changes. When the transport team is taking care of the patient being transported by air, these changes become particularly important on ascent and descent.
46
Q
  1. CAMTS requires a minimum of _____________ successful live intubations during initial flight training.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 10

A
  1. C: Since airway management is an essential life-saving measure, and endotracheal intubation is an important aspect of airway management; the initial education and training must include no less than five live (animal labs are also acceptable) cadaver or dynamic human patient simulator (HPS) experience specific to age groups in program’s scope of care and patient population. An experienced transport team member may show documentation that demonstrates this requirement has been previously met. Both crewmembers must be trained in airway management although license or state regulations may dictate who is allowed to intubate before and during transport.
47
Q
  1. During an in-flight emergency procedure, all of the following are correct, except

A. Place patient in high-fowlers position

B. Turn oxygen off

C. Helmet visors in down position

D. All equipment is secured

A
  1. A: During an actual flight emergency, flight team members are responsible for confirming with the pilot that an actual emergency crisis exists and assisting as necessary, shutting off the main oxygen supply, preparing patients by placing them flat and tightening the stretcher straps, and securing all equipment. As the final step in preparation, the flight team members should have their helmet visors in down position and get into the survival position by placing the arms across the chest, forming an “X” with the forearms, and grasping the shoulder harness, while placing the knees together and the feet approximately 6 in. apart.
48
Q
  1. CAMTS requires that helipads must have all of the following, except

A. Perimeter lighting for night operation

B. Fence around helipad

C. Have a device to identify wind direction and velocity

D. Evidence of adequate security

A
  1. D: Primary and receiving hospital helipad(s) must: be marked (with a painted “H” or similar landing designation); be identified by a strobelight or heliport beacon. A beacon may not be necessary when the location of the hospital can be readily determined by the light(s) on a prominent building or landmark near the helipad; have perimeter lighting for night operations; have a device to identify wind direction and velocity (i.e., windsock). The wind indicator should be located in an illuminated area or lighted for night operations; have at least two approach and takeoff paths, oriented to be 90-180 degrees apart; have adequate fire retardant chemicals readily available; have documented, ongoing safety programs for those personnel responsible for loading and unloading patients or working around the helicopter on the helipad; have evidence of adequate security—a minimum of one person to prevent bystanders from approaching the helicopter as it lands or lifts off, or perimeter security such as fencing, rooftop, etc. A means must exist to monitor the primary helipad if accessible to the public, that is, through direct visual monitoring or closed circuit TV; and have at least one clear final approach and takeoff area (FATO) according to the FAA Advisory Circular entitled Heliport Design Advisory Circular, AC 150/5390-2A which also includes: takeoff and landing area length and width, or diameter, should be 1.5 times the overall length of the helicopters that utilize the helipad; surface of the helipad should be clear of objects, including parked helicopters; and parking area should be provided if more than one helicopter at a time is to be accommodated.
49
Q
  1. Which of the following is a leading cause of death among scuba divers?

A. AGE

B. Bends

C. Chokes

D. Pulmonary decompression illness

A
  1. A: The most serious manifestation of pressure-related injuries or barotraumas is AGE. AGE is a leading cause of death among scuba divers. Divers need to exhale continuously when ascending, or several things may occur, which can include air pushing through the lung tissues and enters the skin in the neck, air pushing through the lung tissues and into the spaces between the lungs causing a pneumothorax, and air forced from the lungs into blood vessels and carried to vital organs. The greatest changes in pressure and volume occur at shallower depths. Pulmonary overpressurization and alveolar rupture can occur during an ascent from a depth as shallow as four feet if compressed air is held in the lungs. Breath holding results in lung overexpansion and rupture of the alveoli. Manifestations of AGE usually begin during or in minutes of ascent. Recompression in a hyperbaric chamber is the only effective treatment for this diving emergency. The immediate treatment includes administration of 100% oxygen and placing the patient in a supine position. The head-down (Trendelenburg) position and the head-down left lateral decubitus position have been recommended to minimize further passage of air emboli to the brain.
50
Q
  1. All of the following are considered stressors of flight, except?

A. g-forces

B. Increased partial pressure of oxygen

C. Barometric pressure

D. Decreased humidity

A
  1. B: Multiple stressors have been identified that may be caused by transport. Type Definition or clinical manifestation Decreased partial pressure of oxygen Hypoxia stages and types, TUC Barometric pressure changes Barotitis media, barosinusitis, barodontalgia, and gastrointestinal changes Thermal changes Increase in altitude results in decrease in ambient pressure Decreased humidity Increase in altitude results in decrease in ambient pressure and therefore a decrease in humidity Noise Can impair the ability to perform patient assessment Vibration Can interfere with transport equipment Fatigue Is always a potential threat to safety Gravitational forces g-forces, ELT activates on impact beginning at 4g’s Additional stressors of flight Type Definition or clinical manifestation Spatial disorientation Inaccurate perception of position, attitude, and motion in relation to the center of the earth Flicker vertigo Can occur when exposed to lights that flicker at a rate of 4-20 cycles per second, which can cause nausea and vomiting. In severe cases, it can cause seizures and unconsciousness. Fuel vapors Jet fuel, diesel fuel, and gasoline fuel exposures can cause altered mental status, nauseas, and eye inflammation.