Module 1 Unit 4 Self Assessment

Question 1

Briefly describe a categorical flying waiver.

Answer 1

Categorical Flying Class II – also known as “categorical flying waiver” qualifies rated officers for duty in certain aircraft only. A categorical flying waiver approval does not guarantee immediate assignment to a flying billet. Flying positions are based on Air Force needs.

Question 2

Briefly describe the Man-Year program.

Answer 2

The purpose of this program is to set aside funds to pay for operational support flying duties. Each fiscal year, the Air Force obligates funds to this program to meet actual operational mission needs.

Question 3

How can you manually adjust a member’s physiological training due date in ARMS?

Answer 3

Select the appropriate item in the Waiver field. Select “Yes” if the member has a waiver (i.e., pregnancy waiver). By selecting “Yes” you can manually adjust the member’s physiological training due date according to the waiver. Select “No” if the member does not have a waiver.

Question 4

How long is the original altitude chamber training valid?

Answer 4

Original training is valid for five years and expires on the last day of the month the training was accomplished.

Question 5

How long may a rated officer remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified?

Answer 5

Career aviators may be placed in DNIF status for 365 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service.

Question 6

How many days does a member have to return the AF IMT 1274 upon arrival at home station?

Answer 6

Upon training completion, they must return both forms to the HARM office within five duty days after arrival at the home station.

Question 7

List all the post-chamber flight restrictions.

Answer 7

No physical exercise, strenuous or extended duty for a period of 12 hours.
Do not assign personnel as flying crew members for at least 12 hours after completion of any chamber flight above 25,000 feet.
Personnel may fly as passengers if cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet.
There is no restriction on flying duties or flying as passengers after a chamber flight to 25,000 feet or below except cabin altitude must remain below 15,000 feet

Question 8

List some examples of personnel who are required to complete altitude chamber

Answer 8

Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status.
High-altitude parachutists (HAPs) who participate in parachute operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet MSL.
Officer Cadets to meet specific needs of the United States Air Force Academy (USAFA)/Reserve Officers’ Training Corps (ROTC) flying programs.
Civilian employees when required for military orientation flights. NOTE: They must be authorized by the local wing commander.

Question 9

List some of the duties of an operational support flier.

Answer 9

Performing in-flight diagnostics of aircraft or equipment malfunctions that cannot be duplicated on the ground.
Providing in-flight medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations, giving instructions on High-Altitude Airborne Mission Support (HAAMS)
Providing security support on air-to-ground surveillance of missile convoys.
In-flight test of specific hardware items when such testing cannot be duplicated on the ground.

Question 10

List the documents that an aircrew member must hand carry when attending physiological training.

Answer 10

ITS, & 1042 or 2992. “However I don’t see it in the text for reading, and I could have this wrong.”

Question 11

List the three most common occurrences when a flight physical is required.

Answer 11

When a member is initially placed in aviation/parachutist service.
When a member’s periodic flight physical becomes due.
When a member applies for re-qualification.

Question 12

List the two types of career aviators.

Answer 12

There are two types of career aviators – rated officers and career enlisted aviators (CEAs).

Question 13

List the two types of non-career aviators.

Answer 13

Non-career aviators are non-rated officers and non-CEAs assigned to specific aircrew positions identified in Air Force instruction (AFI) 65–503, U.S. Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

Question 14

One man-year equates to how many man-months?

Answer 14

One man-year equates to 12 months (man-months) of HDIP.

Question 15

What date do you use to establish the ASD for a licensed physician?

Answer 15

Use the date of the course certificate to establish the ASD for a licensed physician.

Question 16

What date do you use to establish the ASD for a medical student?

Answer 16

Use the date of the medical license to establish the ASD for a medical student.

Question 17

t date would you enter in the Flight Physical Date field when updating a member s flight physical date in ARMS?

Answer 17

The date the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042 or DD Form 2992.

Question 18

What date would you enter in the Physical Availability Date field if the AF IMT 1042 or DD Form 2992 is to place a member is DNIF status?

Answer 18

Enter the actual date found DNIF.

Question 19

What do you do with the AF IMT 1042 or DD Form 2992 that places a member in DNIF status?

Answer 19

In the Remarks section of the AF IMT 1042 or DD Form 2992, annotate the new availability code that you entered in ARMS, your initials, and the date of the transaction. File the AF IMT 1042 accordingly (i.e., DNIF suspense file or FRF).

Question 20

What does a duty AFSC prefix of Q signify?

Answer 20

Evaluator Qualification

Question 21

What form is used to document centrifuge training?

Answer 21

AF IMT 1274

Question 22

What forms are used to document flight PHAs?

Answer 22

AF IMT 1042 or DD Form 2992

Question 23

What is the purpose of centrifuge training?

Answer 23

The purpose of centrifuge training is to enhance combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC through the following methods:
Increase aircrew awareness of the potentially incapacitating effects of GLOC.
Train and evaluate aircrew on how to properly perform AGSM in a controlled environment.
Address strategies to improve aircrew performance under G-stress through the proper fit and use of protective equipment, the importance of maintaining fitness for the G-environment, proper nutrition, rest, hydration, and situational awareness.
Identify aircrew with low-G-tolerance and poor AGSM skill performance.

Question 24

What publication outlines the different classes of medical examinations required to qualify an individual for flying duty?

Answer 24

AFI 48–123