Module 1 - Neurodevelopment and Stem Cells Flashcards

1
Q

What is the composition of the blood-brain barrier?

A

Blood vessel of endothelial cells (with tight junctions) surrounded by astrocytes and pericytes.

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2
Q

What is the incidence and number of new cases every year of primary CNS cancer?

A

2%, 5,000

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3
Q

What other clinical syndromes are related to which CNS tumours genetically?

A
• Neurofibromatosis 2, NF2, (Ependymoma,
Meningiomas)
• NF1 (Pilocytic Astrocytoma)
• Tuberous Sclerosis 1, TS1, (Astrocytoma)
• Tuberous Sclerosis 2 , TS2
• Li-Fraumeni, p53, (Glioblastoma).
• Von Hippel Lindau, VHL,
(Hemangioglioblastomas)
• Cowden syndrome, PTEN,
• Gorlin syndrome, PTCH1,
• Turcot’s syndrome (APC, adenomatous
polyposis coli) 
Inverse association between AD and PD and CNS cancer and low risk of CNS cancer in patients with allergies.
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4
Q

Give an example of an environmental risk factor for CNS tumours?

A

Ionising radiation

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5
Q

Symptoms and signs of CNS tumour:

A
Headache
Weakness
Clumsiness
Difficulty Walking
Seizures
Children: Above + Seizures with fever, persistent vomiting without known cause, precocious puberty, growth retardation, sleep apnoea, vision problems, back pain, changes in personality, irritability, staring, repetitive automatic movements
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6
Q

How do you diagnose a CNS tumour?

A

CT/MRI/fMRI/MR spectroscopy/PET

Assessment, guiding resections, biopsies, response to treatment and recurrences

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7
Q

Two types of biopsies:

A

Stereotactic (for inoperable, 0.5cm tissue) and open (inoperable, 1cm)

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8
Q

What is pseudoinvasion of tumour cells?

A

Along the Virchow-Robin space - subaracnoid space between blood vessels and pia down sulci

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9
Q

Post-operative management:

A
• Conventional fractionated radiotherapy
• Chemotherapy (Temozolomide)
• Gamma knife
• Proton beam
• Steroids (usually pre-op)
• Anti-angiogenic factors (Avastin)
• Drugs to control symptoms 
More resection during surgery is associated with better prognosis for gliomas. (Sanai 2008?)
Avoid overtreatment as anticancer treatments can cause brain damage too.
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10
Q

What is the staging for CNS tumours? What is the grading system for CNS tumours?

A
No staging for CNS tumours, apart for medulloblastoma.
Grading:
I - long term survival/cured
II - death after 5 years
III - death within 5 years
IV - death within 1 year
Based on histotype, molecular genetics.
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11
Q

What types of gliomas are there?

A

Astrocytoma: including juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, low grade astrocytoma,
anaplastic astrocytoma, or glioblastoma.
• Ependymoma
• Oligodendroglioma
• Mixed Glioma (also called Oligoastrocytoma): These tumours usually contain a
high proportion of more than one type of cell, most often astrocytes and
oligodendrocytes. Occasionally, ependymal cells are also found
• Optic Glioma: These tumours may involve any part of the optic pathway, and they
have the potential to spread along these pathways. Most of these tumours occur in
children under the age of 10.
• Gliomatosis Cerebri: This is an uncommon brain tumor that features widespread
glial tumour cells in the brain. This tumour is different from other gliomas because it
is scattered and widespread, typically involving two or more lobes of the brain. It
could be considered a “widespread low-grade glioma” because it does not have the
malignant features seen in high-grade tumours.

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12
Q

What is the grading for astrocytomas?

A

Pilocytic Astrocytoma—These grade I astrocytomas typically stay in the area where they started and do not spread. They are considered the “most benign” of all the
astrocytomas. Two other, less well known grade I astrocytomas are cerebellar astrocytoma and desmoplastic infantile astrocytoma. They form sacs of fluid (cysts), or may be enclosed within a
cyst. Although they are usually slow-growing, these tumors can become very large.
• Diffuse Astrocytoma (also called Low-Grade or Astrocytoma Grade II) Types: Fibrillary, Gemistocytic, Protoplasmic Astrocytoma—These grade II astrocytomas tend to invade surrounding tissue and grow at a relatively slow pace. They tend to contain microcysts and mucous-like fluid. They are
grouped by the appearance and behaviour of the cells for which they are named.
• Anaplastic Astrocytoma—An anaplastic astrocytoma is a grade III tumor. These rare tumours require more aggressive treatment than benign pilocytic astrocytoma. They tend to have tentacle-like projections that grow into
surrounding tissue, making them difficult to completely remove during surgery.
• Subependymal Giant Cell Astrocytoma— Are ventricular tumors associated with
tuberous sclerosis.
• Astrocytoma Grade IV (also called Glioblastoma, previously named “Glioblastoma
Multiforme,” “Grade IV Glioblastoma,” and “GBM”)— There are two types of astrocytoma grade IV—primary, or de novo, and secondary. Primary tumors are very aggressive and
the most common form of astrocytoma grade IV. The secondary tumors are those which originate as a lower-grade tumor and evolve into a grade IV tumor. They may contain cystic material, calcium deposits,
blood vessels, and/or a mixed grade of cells.

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13
Q

How are astrocytomas managed?

A

Surgery, if necessary then radiotherapy and/or chemotherapy. Scans to monitor progress. Recurrence is treated in the same way.

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14
Q

What is the grading for oligodendrigliomas?

A

5% of all brain tumours, found in cerebral hemispheres and is either low (WHO grade II) or high (WHO grade III, or anaplastic). Chemosensitive, better prognosis with astrocytomas.

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15
Q

What is the grading for ependymomas?

A

Subependymomas (grade I): Typically slow-growing tumors, near a ventricle.
• Myxopapillary ependymomas (grade I): Typically slow-growing tumors, lower part of the spinal column.
• Ependymomas (grade II): The most common of the ependymal tumors. This type can be further divided into the following subtypes, including cellular ependymomas, papillary
ependymomas, clear cell ependymomas, and tancytic ependymomas. Along, within or next to the ventricular system.
• Anaplastic ependymomas (grade III): Typically faster-growing tumors. Brain in adults, posterior fossa in children.
Soft, grey or red tumours, cysts or mineral calcifications.

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16
Q

What is the grading for medulloblastomas?

A

WHO grade IV.

Fast growing, cerebellum -> spine, children, can metastasise. RT and chemo.

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17
Q

What is the grading of meningiomas?

A

Grade I - benign
II - atypical, 20%
III - anaplastic, 1%, lethal within 1 year.
Adults, seizures, compression. 24-30% intracranial tumours.

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18
Q

What is the most common tumour in the brain?

A

Secondary - metastases. 25-45% all cancer patients, increasing incidence.
No grading, any primary tumour, metastases in meninges and bone too.

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19
Q

How does metastasis occur?

A

Epithelial-mesenchymal transition -> invasive properties. Degradation of basement membrane + remodeling of extracellular matrix by proteinases. Intravasation of tumour cells, arrest in capillary bed, extravasate. Can be dormant, eventually grow into secondary tumour, more ECM remodeling and angiogenesis. Cells undergo anoikis (detachment-induced apoptosis).

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20
Q

Why is chemotherapy not great?

A

5-10% reaches tumour.

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21
Q

Cancer gene therapy targets…

A

cytotoxic, tumour suppressor, anti-vascular, anti-angiogenic genes, etc.

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22
Q

Why are eukaryotic viral vectors not great?

A

Uptake by liver, reticuloendothelial system. Broad tropism for normal tissues causing toxicity, poor penetration into tumour tissues and antiviral neutralising antibodies.

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23
Q

What characteristics do drugs that cross the blood-brain barrier exhibit?

A

Lipophilic, low molecular weight (<600 Da). p-glycoprotein act as effluc pump for anticancer drugs.

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24
Q

What can be given to increase drug delivery to the brain?

A

Intracranial infusion of hypertonic arabinose or mannitol - dilate cerebral blood vessels, shrink endothelial cells -> leaky tight junctions.
Convection enhanced delivery (catheter under positive pressure).
Polymeric vesicles.

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25
Q

Why anti-angiogenic therapies?

A
  1. Endothelial cells lining the blood vessels are directly accessible to drugs via the systemic circulation.
  2. It is estimated that up of 100 tumour cells are sustained by a single endothelial cell.
  3. Endothelial cells are genetically more stable and are therefore unlikely to acquire resistance to therapy.
  4. The Tumour endothelium expresses specific markers, cell surface receptors, that are absent or barely detectable in the normal quiescent blood vessels (zip codes, vascular
    receptors) . (Hajitou, 2006)
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26
Q

Vascular targets in angiogenic blood vessels:

A

Endothelial cells: VEGF and it’s receptors, MMP-2 and -9, EGFR
Pericytes: aminopeptidases APA and APN, NG2 proteoglycan, PDGFRs

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27
Q

Limitations of anti-angiogenic agents:

A

i) Short half-lives
ii) High chance of non specific accumulation
iii) Inefficient accumulation at the diseased site
iv) Severe side effects at high doses
v) Poor tissue and cellular membrane permeability in vivo requiring cell
transduction systems when the molecular target is intracellular
vi) Tumour resistance due to GBM heterogeneity

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28
Q

Which vectors have been used in gene therapy?

A

Retroviruses - A class of viruses that can create double-stranded DNA copies of their RNA genomes. These copies of its genome can be integrated into the chromosomes of host
cells. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus.
Adenoviruses (Ad) - A class of viruses with double-stranded DNA genomes that cause respiratory, intestinal, and eye infections in humans. The virus that causes the common cold is an adenovirus.
Herpes simplex viruses (HSV) - A class of double-stranded DNA viruses that infect a particular cell type, neurons. Herpes simplex virus type 1 is a common human pathogen
that causes cold sores.
Adeno-associated viruses (AAV) - A class of small, single-stranded DNA viruses that can insert their genetic material at a specific site on chromosome 19.
Liposomes - artificial lipid sphere with aqueous core, requires a large amount of DNA and only works in certain tissues.
Cationic polymers - polymers-DNA complexes.
Bacteriophages - virus infects only bacteria, humans are constantly exposed to them with no adverse effects. Ligand-directed targeting. Can cross blood-brain barrier.

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29
Q

Why are adeno-associated viruses good vectors for gene therapy?

A

1- AAV is not currently known to cause disease.
2- AAV causes a very mild immune response.
3- AAV can infect both dividing and quiescent cells
4- AAV persists in an extrachromosomal state without integrating into the
genome of the host cell.

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30
Q

Types of bacteriophages:

A

Tailed: bacteriophage lambda (double stranded DNA)
Filamentous: bacteriophage M13 (circular single stranded DNA) (need to know MoA?)

31
Q

How has bacteriophages been combined with other therapies?

A

AAVP-TNFalpha induces apoptosis in tumour vasculature (Tandle 2009)
Can combine RGD4C-AAVP + TMZ.
Can combine with nanomaterial complexes (change surface charge).

32
Q

What cells do stem cells of the NS generate?

A

Neurons, oligodendrocytes, astrocytes.

33
Q

Name the different types of stem cells:

A

Totipotent, embryonic which are pluripotent (differentiate into all 3 germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) indefinitely), induced pluripotent (Oct3/4, Sox2, c-Myc, Klf4) (Takahashi 2006), adult tissue specific stem cells.

34
Q

Describe the neural stem cells of the subventricular zone:

A

Type of astrocyte (Type-B1 cell), ependymal or subependymal, quiescent or slowly dividing, can divide asymmetrically and produce transit-amplifying cells. Type-c cells divide to give neuroblasts (type-A cells) which migrate to the olfactory bulb (larger in rats) via rostral migratory stream to form GABA and DA interneurons, granule and periglomerular. (Codega 2014) SVZ neuroblasts produce striatal interneurons in humans (Ernst 2014)

35
Q

Describe the neural stem cells of the subgranular zone of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus:

A

Astrocyte/radial glia-like cell, quiescent and can self-renew, can generate glutamatergic neurons too, depending on transcription factors expressed.
Useful for spatial learning, fear conditioning, navigation, depression.

36
Q

What causes NSCs to proliferate?

A

Monitor GABA firing - if none then no activity so replace them (Song 2012)

37
Q

Give some examples of the uses of iPSCs:

A

Yang 2013: motor neuron iPSC to model ALS (identified kinase inhibitor).
Marchetto 2010: Rett patient, found fewer spines, altered calcium, etc. on neuron from iPSC.
Chailangkarn 2016 - Williams syndrome.
Kondo 2013: Alzheimer’s model for drugs.
Lancaster 2013 - microcephaly/cerebral organoid.
Replace in Parkinson’s disease (Cooper 2010)
Anti-ageing (Brack 2007) parabiosis, Wnt inhibition by younger serum.
Tumour delivery system (Bexell 2012)
Hearing (Chen 2012)

38
Q

What is the outline of CNS development?

A

Part of the embryo ‘designated’ future CNS
Cells divide (uncommitted, pluripotent)
Some regionalisation: signalling centres develop
(NB: coordinated with surrounding tissues)
Cell mixing restricted (adhesion)
Neurons start to be generated
Migrate to final positions
Then produce glia and more neurons
Connect and generate synapses
Cull excess (complement e.g. C4 and schizophrenia, Sekar A et al., Nature 2016)
Myelination
Remodel as required

39
Q

What are the patterns of transcription factors in the neural plate?

A

epidermal = high BMP4, low FGF
borders = medium BMP4 and medium FGF
neural ectoderm = 0-low BMP4 and high FGF (FGF leads to SMAD phosphorylation and less to nucleus)
Zic associated with FGF
Msx, Ap2 and Wnt associated with BMP (Patthey 2011)

40
Q

What transcription factor is vital for rostral-caudal CNS patterning?

A

Wnt (antagonists at head, Wnt at caudal end)

41
Q

What do bHLH TFs do?

A

If oscillating, control multipotency and if stable, drive differentiation.

42
Q

Midbrain/hindbrain (isthmus) border is controlled via:

A

Wnts, FGF8, Shh

43
Q

How do ventricular zone cells form astrocytes?

A

Proliferation (mainly symmetrical) and then become neurogenic (asymmetrical division) and then switch to astrogenic phase via DNA methylation changes.

44
Q

Which TF is DA specific?

A

Lmx1a

45
Q

Which TFs are involved in patterning the forebrain?

A

Cortical hem - Wnts, BMPs
Antigem (Sfrp2, Fgf7, Tgfalpha)
Anterior neural ridge (Fgf8 caudally), Fgf17, Fgf18)

46
Q

Where do cortical projection neurons originate from?

A

Neocortical neuroepithelium, ventricular and subventricular zones.

47
Q

How do the cortical primary progenitors divide?

A

Asymmetrically: either an immature projection neuron or a secondary progenitor. Secondary progenitors also generate neurons.

48
Q

How do immature neurons migrate?

A

Radially towards pial surface along radial glial processes, sensing local molecular cues.
Or tangentially.

49
Q

Which molecular cue drive lots of migration?

A

Reelin (leading to Notch, cofilin, etc.)

50
Q

Where do cortical interneurons originate from?

A

Primordium of the basal ganglia (ganglionic eminences). Tangentially migrate to immature cortical plate. Some GABAergic interneurons remain in basal ganglia.

51
Q

Disorders of migration:

A

• neurons remain at the ventricular surface: periventricular
heterotopia (Mutations of the X-linked gene Filamin 1, an actin binding protein, impede migration of neurons from the ventricular zone. As a result, grey matter gets left behind around the ventricular cavity, giving a characteristic lumpy appearance. Not uncommon cause of epilepsy and mild learning difficulty. Patients usually do well with carbamazepine.)
• stop in the white matter: subcortical band heterotopia (mutation in DCX (double cortin) x-linked microtubule)
• form a disordered, often thickened, cortical plate - simplified gyral
pattern (pachygyria) or a smooth cortical surface (lissencephaly), (Autosomal recessive lissencephaly with cerebellar hypoplasia can be from reeelin mutation)
• sometimes also has overmigration of neurons to pial surface
(cobblestone lissencephaly)

52
Q

Disorders of proliferation:

A

Microcephaly, focal cortical dysplasia (somatic mutations in mTOR pathway)

53
Q

Disorders of cortical organisation/late migration:

A

polymicrogyrias
(multiple small gyri and abnormally thin or thick cortex) may cause
clefting between the ventricular and meningeal surface (schizencephaly)
Best characterised of which is bilateral perisylvian polymicrogyria. These patients have some combination of pseudobulbar palsy, spastic quadraparesis, learning disability and epilepsy.

54
Q

What is interkinetic nuclear migration?

A

Cell nuclei move during cell cycle, not whole cell.
Useful to control the concentration of Notch the nucleus is exposed to - high at apical/ventricular side to keep them dividing, low so they can differentiate into glia at basal side. (Del Bene 2008)

55
Q

What happens to the vertebrate stem cell population?

A

Leave dorsal CNS via epithelial to mesenchymal transition and migrate widely. Lose epithelial adhesions, cell polarity and cytoskeleton is remodelled. Express Snail1/2 and Twist1, like cancer cells. Diverse fates.

56
Q

Which transcription factors control the neural crest?

A

Induced by Wnt, BMP and FGF
Neural plate border specifier genes: Msx1/2, Pax3/7, Zic
NC specifier: Snail, FoxD3 (Bronner 2012)

57
Q

What are the different sections of the neural tube?

A

Cranial NC produces majority of the bone and cartilage of head and face &
nerve ganglia, smooth muscle, connective tissue and pigment cells
Cardiac NC contributes to heart development by
forming the aorticopulmonary septum and conotruncal cushions
Vagal NC gives rise to enteric ganglia of the gut
Trunk NC gives rise to neurons and glia, & some PNS, to secretory cells of the endocrine system & to skin pigment cells

58
Q

How does the aorta affect neural crest cells?

A

Dorsal aorta is a source of BMPs. Neural crest cells turn on Phox2b after BMP exposure, transcription of tyrosine hydroxylase and cells become adrenergic neurons.

59
Q

What diseases are related to neural crest migratory problems?

A

Cleft palate, septal defects of the heart, Hirschsprung’s disease (absence enteric ganglia)

60
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebellar cognitive affective syndrome?

A

Impairments in executive, visual-spatial, linguistic abilities with or without motor symptoms.

61
Q

How does the cerebellum develop?

A

1) establish cerebellar ‘field’ in the hindbrain - rhombic lip (bHLH)
2) form two compartments of cell proliferation:
produce Purkinje cells & granule cells, GABAergic interneurons
3) migration of cells - radially (mostly), DCN neurons descend ventrally to form 3 pairs nuclei. Granule cell precursors form proliferative secondary precursor zone (external granule cell layer) and then leave this layer by migrating along Bergmann glia, past Purkinje cells to form IGL. Their axons form the parallel fibres/molecular layer. (Outside in for cerebellum, inside out for cortex)
4) formation of cerebellar circuitry & further
differentiation - Bergmann glia and Purkinje cells mature together, radial fibres wrap synapses, BG into unipolar astrocytes and radial glia. Without BG, less clearance of glutamate.(Saab 2012)
Granule cells express reelin later on, guides Purkinje cells. Schizophrenia and bipolar patients have fewer Purkinje cells and reelin.

62
Q

What TFs affect granule cell migration?

A

Trio (guanine nucleotide exchange factor) (no GCs in IGL without it and have abnormal dendrites)
Endocytic adaptor protein Numb (Zhou 2011)

63
Q

What is the epigenetic landscape model of Waddington (1957?)

A

Precise developmental pathway determined by environmental influences and random developmental fluctuation.

64
Q

How does the cerebral cortex develop?

A

Neuronal proliferation in the the germinal zone situated around the ventricular cavity
Migration of the neurons outwards along radially arranged glial cells to take up superficial positions. At the surface, neurons migrate in an inside-out gradient, with more superficial neurons migrating past the deeper layers.
Organisation of neurons to form the six layered cortex.

65
Q

What genes are implicated in Mendelian epilepsy?

A

Ion channel subunit genes
Voltage-gated (Sodium, Potassium)
Ligand-gated (Nicotinic, GABA)

Non-ion channel genes
LGI1 (lateral temporal lobe epilepsy)
GLUT1 (absence and other generalized epilepsies)
PCDH19 (female limited epilepsy)
DEPDC5 (‘variable foci’ - frontal, temporal )

66
Q

GWAS for epilepsy showed…

A

SCN1A and PCDH7 for the phenotype all epilepsy, and the VRK2/FANCL locus for genetic generalized epilepsy. Interesting, this locus is also a genome-wide significant susceptibility locus for schizophrenia, and we know that patients with epilepsy are at 11 fold higher risk of developing schizophrenia.

67
Q

De Novo epileptic encephalopathy genes:

A

SCN1A, DNM1, STXBP1, GABRB3 and CDKL5. With the exception of CDKL5 all the genes are known to be involved in synaptic transmission.

68
Q

Precision therapeutics for genetics and epilepsy:

A

KCNT1 gain of function mutation - quinidine reduced seizures (in one case)
GRIN2A gain of function mutation - memantine is a NMDAr antagonist and reduced seizures.
Both gain of function mutations, what about non-ion channel genes.

69
Q

Describe the gross pathology of agenesis of the corpus callosum

A

Probst bundles (white matter tracts lie longitudinally). Bat wing deformity of the ventricles.

70
Q

Describe the gross pathology of encephalocoele:

A

Neural tube defect characterised by sac-like protrusions of the brain and the membranes that cover it through openings in the skull. The result is a groove down the midline of the upper part of the skull, or the area between the forehead and nose, or the back of the skull. When located in the back of the skull, encephaloceles are often associated with neurological problems.

71
Q

Describe the gross pathology of periventricular heterotopia:

A

Nodules of gray matter under the ependyma of the lateral ventricles.

72
Q

How does periventricular heterotopia occur?

A

Failure of migration from the germinal layer of ventricular zone that lines the neural tube to the desired region of the cortex by some differentiated neurons. Consequently many neurons remain in the ventricular zone as clumps or nodules whilst the remainder form the rest of the cortex. Type of cortical dysplasia.

73
Q

Hippocampal formation:

A
Caudomedial edge of telencephalic wall next to the cortical hem.
Wnt and BMP expression from cortical hem - won't have medial to lateral gradient and with SHH, pattern hippocampus and dentate gyrus.
Wnt3 KO mice have defects in size and organisation of hippocampus
Lef1 mutations (wnt mediator) disrupts granule cell layer integrity
Shh important for CA3 layer of hippocampus and dentate gurus is reduced in size.