Module 1 - 6 Flashcards
(94 cards)
1
Q
What is the term used where “the Director (of AESRD) is of the opinion that a substance may cause, is causing or has caused a significant adverse effect, is present in an area of the environment.”
A
A contaminated site
2
Q
Which of the following is NOT likely to be a significant source of site contamination? A) Thermal facilities B) Auto Repair facilities C) Dry Cleaning D) Snow Storage E) all the above
A
E) All the above old cause site contamination
3
Q
Where would you NOT expect to find salt contamination? A) oil exploration wells B) oil production wells C) a gas station D) all the above
A
C) a gas station
4
Q
Which of the following is not considered a major site contaminant from agriculture? A) petroleum fuel B) pesticide C) tetrahloroethylene D) all are site contaminants
A
C) tetrahloroethylene
5
Q
Oil and gas production sites are likely to be the source of which of the following hazardous materials? A) brine B) glycol C) NORMs D) all the above
A
D) all the above
6
Q
The term of non-saline soils where sufficient exchangeable sodium exists to adversely impact the soil structure and plant growth is…
A
Sodic
7
Q
Soil’s main components are organic material, mineral particles,____________&___________.
A
Gases and water
8
Q
The smallest particles in the soil texture are A) clay B) sand C) silt D) loam
A
A) clay
9
Q
Clay particles are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, meaning they have large surface area per unit of mass. A) cohesive B) colloidal C) adherent D) none of the above
A
B) Colloidal
10
Q
Organic material in soils…
A) makes up about 50-60% of a well-drained soils total mass
B) binds mineral particles together into granules
C) increases as depth increases
D) all of the above
A
B) binds mineral particles together into granules
11
Q
Soil water…
A) contains hundreds of dissolved substances
B) negatively impacts gas content
C) is held in pore spaces by attractions to soil particles
D) all of the above
A
D) all of the above
12
Q
Soil gases…
A) have the same makeup as atmospheric gases
B) may contain contaminant vapours
C) are relatively homogeneous throughout the soil
D) all the above
A
B) may contain contaminant vapours
13
Q
An example of a light non-aqueous phase liquid is... A) gasoline B) tetrahloroethylene C) chlorinated solvents D) all of the above
A
A) gasoline
14
Q
The selection of remediation methods will depend upon…
A) properties of the contaminants
B) organic carbon content in the subsurface
C) permeability of the subsurface
D) water content and content of the subsurface
E) all the above
A
E) all the above
15
Q
What are the 4 parts to a phase 1
A
Records Review, Site Visit, Interviews, and Evaluation and Recording (Documentation)
16
Q
What could be sources of Salt Contamination? and why?
A
Oil and Gas wells (salt water produced with gas/accidental spillage), Roadways (roadsides/equipment storage/snow storage), Naturally occurring Saline soils (through excavation/construction)
17
Q
What is the difference between Saline, Saline-sodic, and Sodic soils?
A
EC >4/SAR 4/SAR >13, EC 13
18
Q
What is the sodium absorption ratio calculation?
A
SAR= [Na+] / sqrt(( [Mg2+]+[Ca2+] ) / 2)
19
Q
What does the term Saline-sodic soil mean?
A
A high concentration of Na+ and a high concentration of other ion types, clay particles in soil cannot disperse, can impact plant growth due to salt content
20
Q
Field observations that indicate salty soils are…?
A
Crusty white surface, dead/stressed vegetation, erosion, sticky soils, lack of seedlings and young plants
21
Q
Electrical conductivity is measured in…?
A
dS/m, deci-siemens per meter
22
Q
Who was Rachel Carson?
A
the author of Silent Spring, an important book which led to greater interest in contamination
23
Q
In Alberta, there are _____________ active and inactive gas wells where site contamination could exist
A
Hundreds of thousands
24
Q
A cancer causing substance is known as…
A
carcinogenic or a carcinogen
25
substances that cause mutations are known as...
mutagenetic or mutagens
26
Lead is known to cause:
a. Brain damage.
b. Eye damage.
c. Skin damage.
d. None of the above.
a. Brain Damage
27
The maximum penalty under the Alberta Environmental Protection and Enhancement Act is:
a. $100,000.
b. $1,000,000.
c. 100,000,000.
d. None of the above
b. $1,000,000
28
Which of the following is NOT a potential liability due to site contamination?
a. Fines
b. Clean-up costs
c. Damages for human health impacts
d. All of the above are potential liabilities
d. all the above are potential liabilities
29
The largest potential cost related to site contamination is:
a. Fines.
b. Clean up costs.
c. Damages for human health impacts.
d. None of the above.
c. damages for human health impacts
30
Which of the following is a benefit of the environmental site assessment process:
a. Protection of human health and the environment.
b. Protection of public image.
c. Reduced financial liability.
d. All of the above.
d.all the above
31
The intrusive investigation phase of an ESA is?
a. phase I
b. phase II
c. phase III
d. phase IV
e. phase V
b. phase II
32
Post closure monitoring is done in:
a. phase I
b. phase II
c. phase III
d. phase IV
e. phase V
e. phase V
33
A phase I environmental site assessment:
a. is strictly non-intrusive, meaning no sampling is done
b. may involve some exploratory sampling is there is a potential for contamination
c. is sometimes not conducted at all is the site is known to contain contaminants
d. None of the above
a. is strictly non-intrusive, meaning no sampling is done
34
A Phase I environmental site assessment:
a. Can be authorized (signed) by any person that has sufficient experience to conduct a Phase I.
b. Must be signed by a member of one of 6 professional organizations in Alberta.
c. Is not required to be authorized because Alberta Environment will review the work that was done.
d. None of the above.
b. Must be signed by a member of one of 6 professional organizations in Alberta.
35
Through the records review, the assessor is:
a. Interested only in the study site.
b. Interested in the study site and neighboring properties.
c. Also involved in interviewing and the site visit, which makes Phase I ESA's very time consuming.
d. None of the above.
b. Interested in the study site and neighboring properties.
36
The purpose of interviews is to:
a. Corroborate information obtained in other parts of the assessment and ultimately, to identify activities and events that may have led to the release of a harmful contaminant on the site.
b. To identify wrongdoers in case there is a future lawsuit.
c. Gather new sources of information that could be added to the records review.
d. All of the above.
a. Corroborate information obtained in other parts of the assessment and ultimately, to identify activities and events that may have led to the release of a harmful contaminant on the site.
37
Which of the following is NOT a potential conclusion from a Phase I environmental site assessment?
a. The Phase I has proven that the site contains no harmful contaminants and a Phase II is not required
b. There is no reasonable evidence to suspect the disposal or release of a harmful substance has occurred and no further assessment is required
c. There is evidence that a potential disposal or release of a harmful substance has occurred and a Phase II ESA is required
d. There is insufficient evidence to decide whether a disposal or release of a harmful substance has occurred and a Phase II ESA is required.
e. All are potential conclusions from a Phase I.
a. The Phase I has proven that the site contains no harmful contaminants and a Phase II is not required
38
The three options for Salt contaminated soil remediation are...?
1) leave the system alone and allow natural leeching to occur
2) flush the system with water to accelerate leeching
3) flush the system and capture the leechate
39
Amendments for soil contaminated soils could be...?
Gypsum, Ca(NO3)2 (calcium nitrate), H2SO4 (sulphuric acid)
40
Sodic soils may require this amendment technique due to structural problems...?
straw to improve permeability
41
Name a benefit and a downfall of gypsum as an amendment.
inexpensive but slow to release
42
What does Equivalent Land Capability mean?
The ability of land to support uses after reclamation similar to the ability prior to the development
43
What is used as proof that the land has been remediated back to its original usage?
a Reclamation Certificate
44
What does Decommissioning mean?
the permanent closure of a facility by the dismantling of equipment, buildings, and structures. Includes Reclamation
45
Define Remediation
the removal and neutralization of all chemical substances from the surface or subsurface
46
Define Reclamation
the stabilization, contouring, maintenance, reconstruction, and re-vegetation of the surface of the land
47
What is CCME?
It is an acronym for: Canadian Council of Ministers for the Environment
48
Water uses within _________ are to be identified
300m
49
Fine soils are _______, while coarse soils are _______.
75um
50
Which of the following is not a significant source of salt contamination that could cause local site contamination?
a. Brine water
b. Naturally saline soils
c. Curing animal hides
d. All of the above could cause local site contamination
d. All of the above could cause local site contamination
51
In general, brine water from western Canada:
a. Contains dissolved ion concentrations that are only slightly higher than fresh water.
b. Contains dissolved ion concentrations that are generally at least as high as sea water.
c. Is not really environmentally harmful.
d. None of the above.
b. Contains dissolved ion concentrations that are generally at least as high as sea water.
52
Sodic soils:
a. Are saline soils where exchangeable sodium negatively affects soil structure and plant growth.
b. Are non-saline soils where exchangeable sodium negatively affects soil structure and plant growth.
c. Are also known as alkaline soils where the clay content is too high, resulting in soil structural problems.
d. None of the above.
b. Are non-saline soils where exchangeable sodium negatively affects soil structure and plant growth.
53
Saline-Sodic soils:
a. Exhibit the structural problems associated with sodic soils.
b. Negatively affect plant growth similar to the ways that saline soils affect plant growth.
c. Have a pH above 8.5.
d. All of the above.
b. Negatively affect plant growth similar to the ways that saline soils affect plant growth.
54
Which of the following is NOT a field observation for a salt contaminated site:
a. Site is dominated by older vegetation with few young plants.
b. Surface crusting.
c. Absence of snow on the site.
d. All of the above are potential field observations for a salt contaminated site.
d. All of the above are potential field observations for a salt contaminated site.
55
The measure of dissolved salts in soil is the:
EC: electrical conductivity
56
The measure of sodium relative to calcium and magnesium in the soil is:
SAR: sodium absorption ratio
57
A soil with EC = 5 and SAR = 14 would be classified as:
a. Normal.
b. Saline.
c. Sodic.
d. Saline-sodic.
d. saline-sodic
58
The acceptable limits for salt contamination in Alberta are:
a. Exactly the same as the limits used for classification in the broader literature.
b. More detailed than the limits used for classification in the broader literature, with varying limits for subsoil and topsoil.
c. Much lower than the limits used for classification in the broader literature.
d. None of the above.
b. More detailed than the limits used for classification in the broader literature, with varying limits for subsoil and topsoil.
59
The term for the arrangement of soil particles into secondary particles is:
Soil Structure
60
Which of the following is not affected by soil structure?
a. Water retention
b. Drainage
c. Aeration
d. Organic content
d. organic content
61
In general, __________ soils present more challenging remediation problems than __________.
a. Sodic; saline
b. Saline; sodic
c. Saline; saline-sodic
d. None of the above
a. sodic; saline
62
A particle with a very small particle size but a large surface area per unit of mass is called a:
Colloid
63
Soil colloids in temperate soils have a much higher proportion of ____________ sites.
a. Clay charged
b. Electronegative charged
c. Anion attracting
d. None of the above
b. electronegative charged
64
Ions adsorbed to solid particles are termed:
a. Interchangeable ions
b. Cations
c. Anions
d. None of the above
a. Interchangeable Ions
65
In normal soils, clay particles tend to:
a. disperse into soil water
b. form inner-sphere complexes
c. form outer-sphere complexes
d. flocculate
d. flocculate
66
When there is a high abundance of sodium in soil water, sodium tends to:
a. bind tightly to clay particles
b. spread out in loose outer-sphere complexes
c. form inner-sphere complexes
d. none of the above
b. spread out in loose outer-sphere complexes
67
When there is a high abundance of sodium in soil water, clay particles:
a. Are held tightly together by van der Waals forces causing a reduction in pore space.
b. Are too close together to be affected by van der Waals forces resulting in a reduction in pore space.
c. Are too far apart to be held together by van der Waals forces resulting in dispersal.
d. None of the above.
c. Are too far apart to be held together by van der Waals forces resulting in dispersal.
68
High salinity in what would otherwise be sodic soils:
a. Counteracts the structural degradation exhibited by strictly sodic soils.
b. Can result in healthy adult plant growth but low seedling emergence rates.
c. Can be caused by leaching.
d. All of the above.
a. Counteracts the structural degradation exhibited by strictly sodic soils.
69
When developing remediation options for salt contaminated sites, control site data is required:
a. For comparative analysis in determining the extent of human caused contamination.
b. To determine the extent of salt migration.
c. To ensure remediation activity is conducted only on the contaminated site.
d. None of the above.
a. For comparative analysis in determining the extent of human caused contamination.
70
When developing remediation options for salt contaminated sites, which of the following is required information?
a. Background control information
b. Information about ion concentrations in groundwater
c. Soil type, parent material and texture
d. Ion concentrations in soils
e. All of the above
e. all the above
71
Why would you want to have a soil profile down to bedrock?
a. There could be impermeable zones in the soil
b. Some soil zones could be coloured yellow, red, brown, blue or black
c. Drainage through soils is an important consideration in developing remediation plans for salt contaminated soils
d. All of the above
d. all the above
72
```
Which of the following is NOT a soil amendment for salt contaminated sites?
Question 5 options:
a. Calcium nitrate
b. Gypsum
c. Calcium chloride
d. Sodium chloride
```
d. Sodium chloride
73
Sulphuric acid is sometimes used as a soil amendment for salt contaminated sites because:
a. The sulphur replaces sodium in the soil reducing the impact on soil structure.
b. In soils with excess calcium carbonate, sulphuric acid creates calcium ions and gypsum as a by-product.
c. Sulphuric acid destroys the clay particles that cause the structural problems in sodic soils.
d. None of the above.
b. In soils with excess calcium carbonate, sulphuric acid creates calcium ions and gypsum as a by-product.
74
Mole drains, buried vaults and bell holes are used for:
a. Irrigating water into salt contaminated sites.
b. Incorporating gypsum into salt contaminated sites.
c. Collection of leachate from salt contaminated sites.
d. None of the above.
c. collection of leechate from salt contaminated sites
75
The remediation method that uses plants to remove contaminants from soils is:
a. plant uptake
b. phytoremediation
c. silviculture
d. in-situ plant remediation
b. phytoremediation
76
The term used to describe the ability of an area of land to support various land uses after conservation and reclamation which is similar to the ability that existed prior to an activity being conducted on the land is:
Equivalent Land capacity
77
The term used to describe the removal or neutralization of chemical substances from a site to mitigate or prevent any adverse effects is:
Remediation
78
The term used to describe the reconditioning of land to a state fit for some future use, and includes the stabilization, contouring, maintenance, conditioning, reconstruction and revegetation is:
Reclamation
79
The term used to describe the process of bringing the ecological system back to its former or original state is:
a. ecological reclamation
b. ecological remediation
c. ecological restoration
d. None of the above
c. ecological restoration
80
The first level of assessment at a contaminated site is:
a. a comparison against generic criteria
b. Adjustments to generic criteria to ensure the site is adequately assessed
c. a site specific risk assessment
d. none of the above
a. a comparison against generic criteria
81
Site specific risk assessment is __________ in Canada.
a. The most commonly-conducted form of assessment
b. Used about ½ the time
c. Conducted relatively rarely
d. None of the above
c. Conducted relatively rarely
82
Why is land use an important consideration in site assessment?
a. It significantly affects the assumptions made in the development of generic criteria
b. It helps identify the likely receptors found on the site
c. It affects the exposure assumptions made in the development of generic criteria
d. All of the above
d. all the above
83
A daycare centre would be classified as:
a. Residential land use.
b. Commercial land use.
c. Playground land use.
d. None of the above.
c. Playground land use
84
The Tier 1 guideline for hexavalent chromium is _________ for total chromium.
a. Much lower than the guideline
b. About the same as the guideline
c. Much higher than the guideline
d. None of the above
a. Much lower than the guideline
85
Adsorption of chromium is affected by which metal, which can also cause the reduction of hexavalent chromium to trivalent chromium?
a. Iron
b. Lead
c. Mercury
d. Silver
a. Iron
86
The most toxic form of mercury, which also tends to biomagnify is:
a. Trivalent mercury
b. Methyl mercury
c. Hexavalent mercury
d. None of the above
b. methyl mercury
87
Cadmium adsorption to soil particles tends to _________ with increasing soil pH.
a. Increase by about 3 times per unit
b. Decrease by about 3 times per unit
c. Precipitate out of the soil solution
d. None of the above
a. Increase by about 3 times per unit
88
Lead does not usually cause a serious problem in soils because:
a. Lead is not really toxic to humans.
b. Lead forms stable complexes with most soil mineral particles.
c. It has a high affinity for soil organic matter.
d. None of the above.
c. it has a high affinity for soil organic matter
89
A very stable form of lead found to be immobile in the environment, is formed between lead and:
a. Potassium.
b. Phosphate.
c. Calcium.
d. None of the above.
b. phosphate
90
Generally, zinc toxicity is of greatest concern for:
a. Humans.
b. Wildlife.
c. Plants.
d. None of the above.
c. plants
91
The presence of ____________ in soils maintains zinc in a mobile form.
EDTA
92
Thermal soil decontamination:
a. Combusts volatile contaminants but also the organic content of soils leaving only mineral particles.
b. Adds heat to allow volatile contaminants to vapourize.
c. Is not recommended in Alberta.
d. None of the above.
b. Adds heat to allow volatile contaminants to vapourize.
93
Containment is used to:
a. Prevent the migration of contaminants into groundwater.
b. Prevent the migration of contaminated gases into the atmosphere or nearby buildings.
c. Prevent the migration of contaminants through the food chain.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
94
Treatment:
a. Relies on air and water to transport contaminants.
b. Can be used in situ or ex situ.
c. Sometimes uses naturally occurring micro-organisms to break down contaminants.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
