Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Do at least most states practice acts include the duty to refer as a legal duty and responsibility of PTs?

A

Yes

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2
Q

What is required in order for PTs to be able to order imaging?

A

Post-professional training due to variability in entry level

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3
Q

What states allow the PT to order or perform imaging?

A

Colorado and Wisconsin (Wisconsin got it passed in their practice act)

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4
Q

Although PTs in some states may be able to order or perform imaging are they the ones reading it?

A

No radiologists will read the imaging

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5
Q

What do PTs need to know relative to imaging?

A

Know your scope of practice and when imaging is not needed

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6
Q

What do PTs need to integrate relative to imaging?

A

Findings into PT plan of care

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7
Q

What do PTs need to understand relative to imaging?

A

Image and report to gather PT relevant information

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8
Q

What do PTs need to communicate relative to imaging?

A

Imaging information with radiologist, physician, and patient

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9
Q

Imaging should be conducted for every patient who presents with MSK complaint? (True/False)

A

False

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10
Q

Imaging should only be considered when the provider expects the results to influence decision making and plan of care? (True/False)

A

True

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11
Q

Knowing when a patient should have imaging is a responsibility of a physical therapist? (True/False)

A

True

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12
Q

Knowing when the results of imaging would impact the PTs plan of care and PTs management of a patient is the responsibility of the PT? (True/False)

A

True

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13
Q

What are the clinical decision aids that are available to help determine if imaging is indicated?

A

Clinical decision rule

American college of radiology appropriateness criteria

Western Australia diagnostic imaging pathways

Discussion with primary physician or specialist

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14
Q

What are characteristics of the clinical decision rules?

A

Evidence based

Determine risk level to not miss serious conditions

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of the American college of radiology appropriateness criteria?

A

Evidence based

IDs high and low value studies based on clinical variants

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of the Western Australia diagnostic imaging pathways?

A

Pathways based on suspected diagnosis

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17
Q

What are the clinical decision rules of an acute ankle injury? (Ottawa rules)

A

Inability to bear weight immediately after injury

Point tenderness over medial malleolus, or the posterior edge or inferior tip of lateral malleolus or talus/calcaneus

Inability to ambulate for 4 steps in the ED

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18
Q

What is usually the initial imaging modality that is used?

A

Radiographs

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19
Q

What are the considerations for making a recommendation for imaging or directly ordering imaging?

A

Clinical hypothesis

Am I the one who should be ordering?

Will the results change my management?

Costs and availability

Contraindications and radiation

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20
Q

When would a discussion with a patients physician be appropriate prior to ordering or referring imaging?

A

If the results of imaging fall into the STAT or ASAP category

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21
Q

What is the STAT category in imaging?

A

Active transport to ER

Vascular findings like DVT, fractures, or critical region stress fractures

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22
Q

What is the ASAP category in imaging?

A

Contact physician immediately

Neoplasms, complete contractile ruptures, posterolateral corner injuries, high ankle sprains, and lisfranc sprains

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23
Q

What was the summary of both Moore and Crowell studies?

A

That PTs have a high percentage of correctness when they are the one who order imaging

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24
Q

Why is radiography the most common modality used in imaging?

A

First order diagnostic study

Little risk

Time effective

Cost effective

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25
How does a radiograph create an image?
On a sensitive plate or film through X-rays or gamma rays
26
What is attenuation?
The amount of change or what is blocked in a patient
27
What is attenuation dependent on?
Density of tissues
28
What are the effects of ionizing radiation?
Disrupts composition of matter and life processes Protects against excessive exposure
29
What does absorbed dose mean?
Energy that is deposited into patient
30
What does equivalent dose mean?
Absorbed dose adjusted for harmful effects
31
What does effective dose mean?
Equivalent dose that is adjusted for the harmful that it causes to different tissues
32
Ranked from low to high in mSV
Single chest x ray (0.1 mSV) Single mammogram (3 mSV) Full body CT scan (10 mSV)
33
Radiation exposure is cumulative (True/False)
True
34
All body tissues absorb radiation equally (True/False)
False
35
What is radio density?
Physical qualities of an object that determine how much radiation it absorbs
36
What does radio density depend on?
Atomic number, volume density, and thickness
37
What is radiolucent?
Darker shade (air)
38
What is radiopaque?
Lightest shade (metal)
39
Ranked from lowest radio density to highest radio density
Air Fat Water Bone Metal
40
Ranked from darkest to lightest shade that shows up on imaging
Air Fat Water Bone Metal
41
The greater the radio density of an object, the greater the amount of radiation will be absorbed resulting in less of the X-ray beam reaching the film (True/False)
True
42
An object or tissue that has greater radio density will be more radiopaque and will appear whiter on a radiograph (True/False)
True
43
An object or tissue that has lower radio density will be more radiolucent and will appear darker on a radiograph (True/False)
True
44
Does none appear darker or lighter on a radiograph?
Lighter
45
Imaging reveals pathology, but the history and physical exam provide relevance (True/False)
True
46
Are radiographs highly specific or highly sensitive?
Highly specific
47
What is a complete fracture?
All the way across
48
What is an incomplete fracture?
Not all the way through
49
What is a green stick fracture?
Incomplete fracture with splintering involved (often on soft bone, pediatrics)
50
What is an oblique fracture?
Diagonal across bone
51
What is a transverse fracture?
Straight line across bone
52
What is a spiral (torsion) fracture?
Break wraps around bone
53
What is a compound fracture?
Bone goes through the skin
54
What is a simple fracture?
Partial without skin wound
55
What does non-comminuted mean in fractures?
There are less than 3 pieces of bones in the fracture
56
What is a comminuted fracture?
There are more than 3 pieces of bones with a fracture (often crushing)
57
What is a salter Harris fracture?
Fracture to the pediatric growth plate (physis)
58
What is a type 1 salter Harris fracture?
Fracture across physis without metaphysical or epiphysel injury
59
What is a type 2 salter Harris fracture?
Extends into metaphysis
60
What is a type 3 salter Harris fracture?
Extends into epiphysis
61
What is a type 4 salter Harris fracture?
Through metaphysis and epiphysis
62
What is a type 5 salter Harris fracture?
Crush injury
63
Who is most likely to get a salter Harris fracture?
Kids
64
What type of fracture does the Gustillo classification describe?
Open fracture
65
What does the Gustillo classification describe with open fractures?
How big the opening is
66
What type of fracture does the Neer classification describe?
Proximal humerus fracture
67
What is the one part of the Neer classification?
No displacement
68
What is the two part of the Neer classification?
One displacement
69
What is the three part of the Neer classification?
Two displacements but humeral head in contact with glenoid
70
What is the four part of the Neer classification?
Three or more displacements and dislocation of articular surface
71
Why is a search pattern like the ABCS system a requirement?
Knowledge of imaging technology Knowledge of dimensional anatomy Knowledge of patterns of pathology
72
What is the key reason for errors in interpretation of imaging?
Observation (incomplete and faulty search patterns) Interpretation (failure of linking signs to relevant clinical data)
73
What does A stand for in the ABCS system?
Alignment (normal number of bones, and contour)
74
What does B stand for in the ABCS system?
Bone density (contrast of bone shade of grey and textural abnormalities)
75
What are we looking for on radiographs that is normal with bone density?
Wards triangle
76
What does C stand for in the ABCS system?
Cartilage spaces (joint space width, smooth surface, and epiphyseal plates)
77
What does S stand for in the ABCS system?
Soft tissues (muscles, fat pads, joint capsules, periosteum, and miscellaneous soft tissue findings)