Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define inquiry question

A

Inquiry Question is a question that focuses on a researchable issue whose answer takes the form of a claim that is supported by evidence, information, and reasoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define hypothesis

A

Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon, includes cause and effect language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define aim

A

Aim is a statement outlining the purpose of the experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define discussion

A

Discussion discusses whether the experiment addressed the hypothesis and aim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define conclusion

A

Conclusion is a concise summary of ideas and results that have been forementioned and hence it never introduces any new ideas or results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Recall the features of a conclusion

A

Features of a conclusion:
- Briefly restate the purpose of the experiment (i.e. the question it was seeking to answer)
- Identify the main findings (i.e. the answer to the research question)
- Note the main limitations that are relevant to the interpretation of the results
- Summarise what the experiment has contributed to the broader understanding of the problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define independent variable

A

Independent Variable is the variable that is changed; on the x-axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define dependent variable

A

Dependent Variable is the variable that may be affected by the independent variable and is measured; on the y-axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define controlled variable

A

Controlled Variables are the variables that are kept constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define qualitative variables

A

Qualitative Variables are the variables that are observed and cannot be measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define quantitative variables

A

Quantitative Variables are the variables that are measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define validity

A

Validity refers to whether an experiment or investigation is in fact testing the set hypothesis and aims

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define reliability

A

Reliability refers to the idea that an experiment can be repeated many times and the average of the results from all the repeated experiments will be consistent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define accuracy

A

Accuracy is the ability to obtain the correct measurement. To obtain accurate results, you must minimise systematic errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define precision

A

Precision is the ability to consistently obtain the same measurement. To obtain precise results, you must minimise random errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define risk assessment

A

Risk Assessment determines the risks of an experiment and the means of damage and controlling it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Recall the features of a risk assessment

A

Features of a risk assessment:
- Risk
- Hazard
- Control

Alternatively,
- Identify
- Assess
- Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define uncertainty

A

Uncertainty is the plausible variation of the data represented with ±

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Recall the types of errors

A

The types of errors are:
- Systematic Error
- Random Error
- Gross Error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define systematic error

A

Systematic Error is an error that causes a consistent shift of the data in a singular direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define random error

A

Random Error is an error that is unpredictable and caused unknowingly and as the name suggests has no pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define gross error

A

Gross Error is an outlier and usually arises from human incompetence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define pure substance

A

Pure Substance is a substance that is not contaminated by any other substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define impure substance

A

Impure Substance is a substance that is contaminated with traces of other substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Recall an alternate term for impure substance

A

Mixture is an alternate term for impure substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define homogenous

A

Homogenous means “of uniform composition throughout”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define heterogenous

A

Heterogeneous means “having non-uniform composition”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define element

A

Element is a pure substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define compound

A

Compound is a pure substance that can be decomposed into simpler substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: Heterogenous substances are always mixtures

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define kinetic particle theory

A

Kinetic Particle Theory states that all matter is formed of tiny particles. The particles are constantly randomly moving about. The particles can be arranged regularly or randomly. The particles are held together by weak or strong forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define subatomic particles

A

Subatomic Particles are particles that are smaller than an atom; protons, neutrons, and electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Define solution

A

Solution is a homogeneous mixture composed of at least 2 substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Recall the components of a solution

A

Components of a Solution
- Solvent
- Solute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define solvent

A

Solvent is the medium that dissolves the solute, forming a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define solute

A

Solute is the substance dissolved in a solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define aqueous solution

A

Aqueous Solution is a solution with water as the solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Recall the types of mixtures

A

Types of Mixtures
- Suspension
- Colloid
- Solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define suspension

A

Suspensions are heterogeneous mixtures with small insoluble particles that are suspended in the solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define colloid

A

Colloids are homogeneous mixtures with small insoluble particles that are suspended in the solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Differentiate between colloids and suspensions

A

The main difference between a suspension and a colloid is when viewed with the naked eye, a suspension is opaque and colloids are translucent or transparent. Hence, in other words, a suspension have larger particles than a colloid

Colloids are also homogenous and suspensions are heterogenous and this can be explained through particle size

42
Q

True or False: Pure substances are homogenous

A

True

43
Q

Define melting

A

Melting is when a solid changes to a liquid

44
Q

Recall an alternate term for melting

A

Fusion is an alternate term for melting

45
Q

Define freezing

A

Freezing is when a liquid changes to a solid

46
Q

Recall an alternate term for freezing

A

Solidification is an alternate term for freezing

47
Q

Define boiling

A

Boiling is when a liquid changes to a gas or vapour with the formation of bubbles

48
Q

Define evaporation

A

Evaporation is when a liquid changes to a gas or vapour without the formation of bubbles

49
Q

Recall an alternate term for evaporation

A

Vapourisation is an alternate term for evaporation

50
Q

Define condensation

A

Condensation is when a gas or vapour changes to a liquid

51
Q

Recall an alternate term for condensation

A

Liquefaction is an alternate term for condensation

52
Q

Define sublimation

A

Sublimation is when a solid changes to a gas

53
Q

Define fluids

A

Fluids are substances with no defined shape; gases and liquid

54
Q

Define immiscible

A

Immiscible is when liquids, if mixed, do not form a homogeneous liquid but instead stay separate in distinct layers, depending on density

55
Q

Define miscible

A

Miscible is when liquids, if mixed, form a homogeneous liquid

56
Q

Define gravimetric analysis

A

Gravimetric Analysis determines the quantities of mass of the components

57
Q

Recall the formula to calculate the percentage composition of an element in a compound

A

Mass of element / Mass of compound *100

58
Q

Recall the features of metals

A

Features of Metals:
- Lustrous
- Malleable
- Ductile
- Dense
- High melting and boiling points
- High tensile strength
- Good conductors of electricity and heat

59
Q

Define alloy

A

Alloy is a mixture of chemical elements of which at least one is a metal

60
Q

Differentiate between physical and chemical properties

A

Physical and chemical properties differ in that physical properties are ones that can be measured and observed. On the other hand, chemical properties are related to chemical change

61
Q

Recall physical properties

A

Physical properties include:
- Homogeneous/ Heterogeneous
- Colour
- Magnetism
- Particle Size
- Melting and Boiling Points
- Density

62
Q

Recall what black lines on a spectra represent

A

Black lines represent the absorption of a frequency of light in an absorption spectra

63
Q

Recall what coloured lines on a spectra represent

A

Coloured lines represent the emission of a frequency of light in an emission spectra

64
Q

Recall the schools of thought regarding spectra

A

Bohr model and Schrödinger’s equation

65
Q

Define cation

A

Cations are positively charged particles

66
Q

Define anion

A

Anions are negatively charged particles

67
Q

Define mass number

A

Mass Number is the number of protons and neutrons in an atom

68
Q

Recall an alternate term for mass number

A

Nucleon Number is an alternate term for mass number

69
Q

Define atomic number

A

Atomic Number is the number of protons in an atom

70
Q

Define ground state

A

Ground State is the lowest energy state of an electron

71
Q

Define excited state

A

Excited State is when an electron absorbs energy and jumps to a higher energy state (electron shell)

72
Q

Recall the octet rule

A

The Octet Rule is a rule that states atoms tend to have 8 electrons in their valence shell

73
Q

Recall Aufbau Principle

A

The Aufbau Principle states that electrons occupy the lowest energy orbital

74
Q

Recall Hund’s Rule

A

Hund’s Rule states that single electrons with the same spin must occupy each equal-energy orbital before additional electrons with opposite spins can occupy the same orbitals

75
Q

Recall Pauli Exclusion Principle

A

Pauli Exclusion Principle states that a maximum of two electrons may occupy a single orbital but only if the electrons have opposite spins

76
Q

Define electron configuration

A

Electron Configuration is a form of displaying the electron structure of an element

77
Q

Define noble gas configuration

A

Noble Gas Configuration is a niche form of electron configuration, where you state the respective noble gas to make it shorter

78
Q

Recall what each of the following indicates in a mass spectrum:
- The number of peaks
- The horizontal axis
- The vertical axis

A

Mass Spectrum:
- The number of peaks indicates the number of isotopes
- The horizontal axis indicates the relative mass of each isotope present in an element according to the isotope’s mass-to-charge ratio (m/z or m/e)
- The vertical axis indicates the abundance of each isotope in the sample

79
Q

Define flame test

A

Flame Test is a simple method that can be used to determine the identity of a metal in a sample

80
Q

Define emission spectrum

A

Emission Spectrum is a visual representation of the visible light spectrum with coloured lines indicating the release of electromagnetic radiation when the electrons are in the excited state. Each element has a unique spectra

81
Q

Define absorption spectrum

A

Absorption Spectrum is a visual representation of the visible light spectrum with black lines indicating the absorption of electromagnetic radiation when the electrons jump up in the excited state. Each element has a unique spectra

82
Q

Define Band of Stability

A

Band of Stability is a region where the nuclei of an atom is stable

83
Q

Recall the types of radiation

A

Types of Radiation:
- Alpha radiation
- Beta radiation
- Gamma radiation

84
Q

Define nuclear equation

A

Nuclear Equation is an equation that show radioactive disintegration

85
Q

Define half-life

A

Half-life is the time required for half the atoms in a given sample to undergo radioactive decay

86
Q

Define polarity

A

Polarity is when an atom has poles and hence has slightly positive and negative charges on opposing ends

87
Q

Recall the types of polarity

A

Types of Polarity:
- Nonpolar Covalent Bond
- Polar Covalent Bond
- Ionic Bond

88
Q

True or False: Diatomic molecules are polar

A

False. Diatomic molecules are always nonpolar

89
Q

Define Lewis Dot Diagram

A

Lewis Dot Diagram is a means to simply draw the bonding structure of molecules

90
Q

Recall an alternate term for Lewis Dot Diagram

A

An alternate term for Lewis Dot Diagram is Electron Dot Formula

91
Q

Define lone pairs

A

Lone Pairs are pairs of electrons that are not bonded to other atoms

92
Q

Recall Valence shell electron-pair repulsion theory

A

Valence shell electron-pair repulsion theory states the lone pairs in the molecule repel each other and take up positions as far from one another as possible in a 3D space, causing the phenomenon of bent molecules

93
Q

Define allotropes

A

Allotropes are the different forms of a singular element through different structural arrangement

94
Q

Recall types of intermolecular force

A

Types of Intermolecular Forces:
- Dipole-dipole
- Dispersion
- Hydrogen bond

95
Q

Define dipole-dipole

A

Dipole-dipole is an intermolecular force between polar molecules

96
Q

Define dispersion forces

A

Dispersion forces are an intermolecular forces between all molecules

96
Q

Define dispersion forces

A

Dispersion forces are an intermolecular forces between all molecules

97
Q

Define hydrogen bonding

A

Hydrogen bonding is an intermolecular force that involves a hydrogen atom bonded to an oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine atom

98
Q

Define intramolecular bonds

A

Intramolecular Bonds are bonds within a molecule

99
Q

Define intermolecular bonds

A

Intermolecular Bonds are bonds between molecules