Module 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the theory of spontaneous generation?

A

Life arises spontaneously from nonliving material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name some of the detractors of spontaneous generation, who went on to disprove the theory.

A

Francisco Redi, Louis pasteur, John Tyndall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What did Francesco Redi do for his experiment?

A

He was an Italian biologist. The demonstrated worms and rotting meat came from exit flies, landing on the meat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false the beneficial microbes can become pathogens

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

True or false less than 1% of all microbial species can be grown in studied in the laboratory

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is biodegradation?

A

The process by which organic substances are decomposed by micro organisms into simpler substances, such as carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is bioremediation?

A

Using micro organisms to hasten decay of pollutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bacteria, synthesize, commercially, valuable products list, an example

A

 Amino acids into dietary supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or false genetic engineering includes: the introduction of jeans into another organism, disease, resistant plants, production of medication’s

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All living things can be classified into one of the three groups or domains. What are these domains called?

A

Bacteria, archaea, eucarya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List characteristics of bacteria

A

Single, celled, prokaryotes, no membrane, bound nucleus, no other membrane, bound organelles, DNA in nucleoid, most have a specific shape, multiply via binary fission, move with flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is DNA kept in bacteria?

A

The nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is archaea classified as?

A

Prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do archaea multiply?

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the characteristics of eukaryotes

A

They have a true nucleus, membrane bound, organelles there more complex than prokaryotes microbial members include fungi, algae, and protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false algae have Richard cell walls

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false algae have many flagella

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false fungi can be single celled or multicellular

A

 True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

True or false protozoa are prokaryotes

A

False, they are eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or false can eukaryotes be single celled

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Are protozoa, larger or smaller than prokaryotes

A

Larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false protozoa have a rigid cell wall

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True or false protozoa are motile

A

True, most are motile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

True or false viruses viroids and prions are all obligate intracellular agents

A

This is false, only viruses and viroids are obligate intracellular agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are prions?

A

They are abnormal form of a cellular proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or false virus consist of either DNA or RNA and are surrounded by a protein coat

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

True or false viroids consist of only RNA no protein coat

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or false prions consist of proteins no DNA or RNA

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

 in viruses, infected, living cells are termed blank

A

Hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do viruses multiply

A

They multiply using host machinery, nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True or false viruses are active outside of hosts

A

This is false, they are inactive, they are obligate intracellular parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or false viroids are simpler than viruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

True or false viroids require host cells for replication

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

True or false viroids can cause plant diseases

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True, or false viroids, or simpler than viruses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are prions

A

Infectious proteins, Miss folded versions of normal cellular proteins, found in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In prions, abnormal proteins, bind to form blank

A

Fibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you prions function?

A

Prions, cause miss folded version to force the normal version of miss fold in the cells are unable to function of normal proteins. Bind to form form fibrils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Name the three infectious agents

A

Viruses, viroids, prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are protists?

A

A eukaryotic organism that is not an animal plant or fungus. An example is algae or protozoa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Are protists multicellular or unicellular

A

They are unicellular eukaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Objective lens forms, blank image

A

Real

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In magnification, ocular lens forms the blank image

A

Virtual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

True, or false shorter wavelengths provide a better resolution

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are dark field microscopes?

A

They are microscope’s that directs light towards specimens at an angle, only like scattered by specimen, enters, objective lens, cells appear as bright object against the dark background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Blank microscope allows visible light to pass through a series of lenses to produce a magnified image. They are relatively easy to use and considerably less expensive than other types of microscopes.

A

Light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Right field, dark field and face contractor, all types of blank microscope’s

A

Light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common type of microscope?

A

Bright Field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the brightfield microscope do?

A

Illuminates the field of view evenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What does the dark field microscope do?

A

Light is directed towards the specimen, add an angle it makes unstained sells easier to see organism stand out as bright objects against the dark background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is phase contrast light microscope?

A

Increases contrast by amplifying differences in refractive index. It makes unsustained cells easier to see.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the differential interference contrast microscope?

A

It’s a type of light microscope that has two beams of light, passing through the specimen, and then it re-combines. The image of the specimen appears three-dimensional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of microscope shows the specimen as three dimensional

A

Differential interference contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What type of microscope projects ultraviolet light causing fluorescent molecules in the specimen to omit longer wavelengths light. It is used to observe cells stained, or tagged with a fluorescent dye.

A

Florescence microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What kind of microscope mirrors scan a laser beam across successive regions and planes of a specimen. From the information of computer construction image

A

Scanning laser microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the two types of electron microscopes?

A

Transmission and scanning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does a transmission electron microscope do?

A

Transmits a beam of electrons through a specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What does a scanning electron microscope do?

A

A beam of electrons scans back-and-forth over the surface of a specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a transmission electron microscope used?

A

It is used in elaborate specimen preparation is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When is the scanning electron microscope used?

A

It’s used for observing surface details and produces a three-dimensional effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is an atomic force microscope?

A

Are you done? A probe moves in response to even the slightest force between it in the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the purpose of heat fixation?

A

He fixation adheres to the cells to the slide, and coagulates the bacterial proteins effectively killing the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

True or false basic dyes are positively charged

A

True, the dye sticks to the specimen attracted to negatively charged cellular components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

True or false acidic dyes are negatively charged

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are some examples of basic dyes?

A

Crystal violet, Safranin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Give an example of an acidic dye?

A

Congo red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

True or false: The dye does not stick to the specimen, it’s sticks to the background

A

This is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

True or false heat fixation is required with acidic dyes.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the difference between a simple stain and a differential stain?

A

Simple stains only require one single dye, differential stains, use to differently, color, dyes, the primary die in the counterstain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What color is negative 
Bacteria?

A

Red or pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What color is gram-positive bacteria?

A

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What type of staining and is used to detect mycobacterium?

A

Acid fast staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are special stains?

A

They are used to emphasize certain cell parts that are not revealed by conventional staining methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

List two examples of special stains

A

Capsule staining and flagellar staining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the purpose of the capsule stain?

A

To reveal the presence of bacterial capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is an endospore stain?

A

Is staying that uses heat to facility uptake of primary dye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

True or false negative staining is used with basic dyes.

A

This is false, acidic dyes are used typically India ink, or nigrosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why are cells stained and light microscopy

A

To enhance visualization of the cell or certain cellular components under a microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which of the three domains have prokaryotic type cell structures?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which types microscopy allows visualization of three-dimensional cell structure?

A

Fluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Why are cationic dyes used for general microscopy of cells?

A

 The cationic dyes find the bacterial cells which can be easily observed against bright background. It stains the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

True or false Archaea are considered prokaryotic cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the two most common types of prokaryotic cells specifically shape

A

Coccus - spherical

Rod - cylindrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do most prokaryotic cells divide

A

Binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Define Diplococcus

A

A chain of 2 cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What type of shape does Neisseria gonorrhoeae have?

A

Diplococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What type of shape does Streptococcus have?

A

Long chains of cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What type of shape does Sarcina have?

A

Cubical packets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What type of shape does staphylococcus have?

A

Grape like clusters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is myxobacteria?

A

A group of bacteria that predominately live in the soil and feed on insoluble organic substances 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is glycolcalyx and where is it found in the prokaryotic cell?

A

Glycocalyx is a coding or layer of molecules external to the cell wall. It serves protective adhesive in receptor functions. It may fit tightly or be very loose and diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Describe the properties of the bacterial chromosome or nucleoid.

A

The nucleoid is composed of condensed DNA molecules. DNA directs all genetic in heredity of the cell and codes for all proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the pilus?

A

An elongate, hollow appendage used in transfers of DNA to other cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the plasmid on the prokaryotic cell?

A

It’s double stranded DNA circle containing extra jeans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

True or false prokaryotic cells have a cell wall

A

True they have a semi rigid wall casing that provide structural support and shape for the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the actin cytoskeleton?

A

Long fibers of proteins that encircles the cell just inside the cell membrane and contribute to the shape of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is an endospore?

A

Dormant body formed within some of the bacteria that allows for their survival in adverse conditions 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the fimbriae?

A

Find hair like bristles, extending from the cell surface, that health and adhesion to other cells and surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is simple diffusion?

A

Movement from high to low concentration the speed depends on the concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is osmosis? 

A

Diffusion of water across selective permeable membrane due to unequal solute concentrations 

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Blank diffusion is a form of passive transport 

A

Facilitated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Does facilitated diffusion require energy?

A

No energy required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Does active transport require energy?

A

Yes, uses ATP and proton motive force for the two main mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which way does active transport move?

A

Movement is against the gradient

105
Q

What does group translocation?

A

The transport molecules chemically altered as it passes into the cell

106
Q

Give an example of group translocation

A

Phosphorylation

107
Q

True or false in group translocation the transfer, chemically altered the substance as it is transported across the membrane

A

True

108
Q

Where is the electron transport chain found?

A

Embedded in the membrane

109
Q

What makes an aqua Pourin distinct from a permease?

A

Permease are transport proteins that enable to transport of a specific molecule in or out of the cell in the direction of a concentration gradient. Permease is a form of facilitated diffusion. Aqua Pourin is just the transport of water.

110
Q

How does a high sugar or salt concentration work as a food preservative?

A

It reduces the growth of microorganisms which prevents food spoilage. Salts and sugars, prevent microbial growth by dehydration and osmosis.

111
Q

What types of transport would operate if a cell were temporary unavailable to make ATP?

A

Cellular swelling, as water follows sodium into the cell

112
Q

True or false gram-negative bacteria have its been peptidoglycan layer

A

True

113
Q

True or false gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane and gram-positive bacteria do not

A

True

114
Q

Sure false Lipo polysaccharide is not present in gram-positive bacteria, but it is president in Graham negative bacteria

A

True

115
Q

Which type of bacteria is it positive or negative that has porn proteins?

A

Graham negative bacteria have for proteins. These proteins allow molecules to pass through the outer membrane.

116
Q

Is gram-positive or gram-negative sensitive to penicillin?

A

Gram-positive is more susceptible

117
Q

Is gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria sensitive to lysozymes?

A

Gram-positive bacteria

118
Q

List a few examples of Graham negative bacteria

A

E. coli, nessieria, pseudomonas

119
Q

List a few examples of gram-positive bacteria

A

Bacillus, staphylococcus, Streptococcus

120
Q

What is the counterstain in gram staining?

A

Safranin.

121
Q

What is the outer layer of gram-negative cell wall called?

A

LPS, Lipo polysaccharide, then the outer layer contains outer membrane contains lipid, bilayer, peptidoglycan underneath, finally cytoplasmic or the inner membrane, lipid bilayer

122
Q

True or false in a gram-negative bacteria, the outer membrane bilayers made of Lipo polysaccharide

A

True

123
Q

What does LPS called?

A

Endotoxin

124
Q

True or false peptidoglycan makes a good target since it’s unique to bacteria

A

 True 

125
Q

How does penicillin interfere with gram-positive bacteria?

A

It prevents the cross-linking of adjacent like in chains and interferes with the peptidoglycan synthesis

126
Q

What is a lysozyme and how is it destructive?

A

A lysozyme is an enzyme that breaks bonds Linking glycan chain. It is found in tears, saliva and other bodily fluids, it destroys a structural integrity of the peptidoglycan molecule.

127
Q

True or false penicillin affects bacteria that lack a cell wall

A

False

128
Q

True or false lysozymes affect a bacteria that lack a cell wall

A

False

129
Q

Cytoplasmic membranes contain blank that increase strength

A


Sterols

130
Q

Do you Arquilla have a peptidoglycan wall?

A

No

131
Q

Does bacteria, or archaea have S layers there is self assemble.

A

Archaea

132
Q

What is a capsule?

A

It’s a gel like layer outside the cell wall that protects or allows attachment to surface, the capsule is distinct in Gelatinous

133
Q

What is the slime layer?

A

It’s a gel like layer outside of the cell that protects or allows attachment to the surface. The slime layer can diffuse and it’s irregular.

134
Q

Give an example of bio film

A

Dental plaque

135
Q

What is peritrichous?

A

Flagella that is distributed over the entire surface of the cell

136
Q

What is polar flagellum?

A

A single flagellum at one end of the cell 

137
Q

What’s the three parts of the flagella?

A

Filament, hook, basal body

138
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Movement of modal, cell, or organism, or part of one in the direction corresponding to a gradient of increasing or decreasing concentration of a particular substance

139
Q

True or false in chemotaxis nutrients Maia, tracked in toxins, may repel

A

True

140
Q

Name a filamentous protein appendage that allows the surface attachment

A

Fimbriae

141
Q

What is a sex pilus used for?

A

Joins bacteria together in transfers, DNA

142
Q

Do prokaryotes, have circular or linear DNA

A

Circular double stranded, DNA

143
Q

What shape are plasmids?

A

Circular, super coiled, double strand of DNA

144
Q

What are plasmids

A

Hey small, circular DNA molecule found in bacteria and some other microscopic organisms they can replicate independently

145
Q

How big is the prokaryotic ribosome?

A

70 S

146
Q

What are the two subunits of the prokaryotic ribosome?

A

30 S and 50 S

147
Q

How big is the eukaryotic ribosome?

A

80S

148
Q

True or false in eukaryotic ribosomes antibiotics impacting the 70 S ribosome do not affect the 80S ribosome

A

True, also know that the 70 S ribosome is a small subunit of the eukaryotic ribosome in the 30S +50 S combined is the large subunit

149
Q

What are storage granules?

A

Membrane bounded vesicles containing condense materials

150
Q

What are gas vesicles?

A

Hollow structures made of proteins , they are controlled by buoyancy 

151
Q

What are endospores

A

A unique type of dormant cell

152
Q

What are some properties of endospores?

A

They are resistant to heat, chemicals, UV, boiling water. And as far as that survive can germinate to become vegetative cells.

153
Q

True or false, bacillus, clostridium produce endospores

A

True

154
Q

What does sporulation

A

It’s triggered by carbon, and nitrogen, limitation

155
Q

What is the process of sporulation?

A

Vegetative growth stops DNA is replicated, a septum forms and divides the cells asymmetrically, the larger compartment and golf, the smaller compartment forming force for with in a mother cell, peptidoglycan, containing material is laid down between the two membranes, the now surround the force forespore, the mother cells degraded and the endospore is released

156
Q

What is the purpose of sporulation?

A

It protects the cell and exposure to heat and chemicals, it’s endospore layers, prevent damage

157
Q

I you were given three cultures, including in Archaea, micro plasma, and gram-positive bacteria. Describe at least three ways you could tell which culture was, which.

A


Examine under microscope, Gram stain

158
Q

How are prokaryotic cell structures involved with pathogenicity?

A

Prokaryotic structures consist of bacteria which are involved in spreading pathogens and creating disease

159
Q

A what is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Is a Site were macromolecule synthesize in the endoplasmic reticulum in our modified before being transported, vesicles other destinations

160
Q

True or false Golgi apparatus is found in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells

A

This is false they are only found in eukaryotic cells

161
Q

What is lysosome?

A

The membrane bound, organelle digest macromolecules

162
Q

What is peroxisome?

A

It’s a Site were oxidation of lipids and toxic chemicals occurs

163
Q

Where is ATP synthesis performed in eukaryotes

A

Mitochondria

164
Q

In eukaryotes, where is ribosomal RNA synthesized

A

Nucleolus 

165
Q

Where are ribosomes synthesized in prokaryotic cells?

A

The cytosol

166
Q

What is the Endo symbiotic theory?

A

Is the theory that mitochondria evolved from bacterial cells?

167
Q

Where is the site of photosynthesis?

A

Chloroplast

168
Q

What is the Endo symbiotic theory state about chloroplasts?

A

Evolved from cyanobacteria

169
Q

Peroxisome’s use blank to degrade, lipids and detoxify chemicals

A

Oxygen

170
Q

How do you prokaryotic  and eukaryotic cells differ in chromosome, location and cell division?

A

Prokaryotic cells divide through binary fission, the chromosome is located in the nucleoid, which is not a membrane bound organelle. In eukaryotes, the chromosomes, replicate and mitosis is followed by division, chromosomes in the nucleus.

171
Q

How does the membrane, cell wall, chromosome, flagella differ from eukaryotic cells to prokaryotic cells?

A

Prokaryotic cells have relatively symmetric cell membranes with respect to the lipid content of the bilayers, the cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan and negative. Bacteria have an outer membrane as well, chromosome is circular is composed of proteins, subunits attached the cell envelope. In eukaryotic structures, there’s a highly asymmetric cell membrane, the cell walls absent in animal cells, and it may include chitin, glucans, mannans, and fungi and cellulose in plants. There’s multiple linear DNA molecules wrapped around histones for the chromosome. The flagella is made up of 9+2 arrangement of microtubules covered by an extension of the plasma membrane.

172
Q

Why might eukaryotic cells be sensitive to antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections?

A
173
Q

True or false prokaryotic cells replicate through binary fission at exponential growth

A

True

174
Q

Chewer, false biofilms result when organisms attached to a substrate buy some form of extra cellular matrix a bind them together and complex organize layers

A

True

175
Q

Describe the process by which bio films form

A

First first, the bacteria moved to the surface and add here then the bacteria. Multiply and produce extra polymeric substances (eps). Sells then create channels in the EPS that allows nutrients and waste products to pass some cells, detached and moved to other surfaces to create additional biofilms.

176
Q

What is the purpose of aseptic technique?

A

The procedure to keep unwanted organisms from contaminating the pure culture.

177
Q

Time required for complete fission cycle is called the blank or blank time

A

Generation, doubling

178
Q

Describe the five stages of the growth curve for bacteria

A

First is the lag phase than exponential growth and stationary phase than the death phase

179
Q

During the blank phase no cell division occurs when bacteria adapt to their new environment

A

Lag phase

180
Q

What are the name of bacteria that live in extreme harsh environments?

A

Extremophiles

181
Q

What is the psychrophile?

A

Optimum temperature between -5°C in 15°C

182
Q

What is obligate aerobe?

A

Requires oxygen

183
Q

What is obligate anaerobe?

A

 Cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

184
Q

What is facultative anaerobe?

A

It grows best if oxygen is present, but I can also grow without it

185
Q

What is microaerophile?

A

It requires small amounts of oxygen, but higher concentrations are inhibitory

186
Q

What is aerotolerant anaerobe?

A

It’s indifferent to oxygen

187
Q

What is selective media do?

A

Inhibits, growth of certain species

188
Q

What is differential media do?

A

It contains substances that microbes change in identifiable Ways

189
Q

Differentiate between sterilization and disinfection and pasteurization

A

Sterilization is the removal of all microorganisms, disinfection is the elimination of most, or all pathogens, and pasteurization is brief, heading to reduce the number of spoilage organisms and destroy pathogens

190
Q

Sure, fall sterilizing an item is free of microbes, including endospores and viruses, but does not consider prions

A

True

191
Q

What is an organism that is resistant to chemical disinfectant?

A

C. Parvam, may cause diarrhea.

192
Q

Where is C.Parvumfound.

A

Water

193
Q

What are DBPs and how are they formed?

A

Disinfection byproducts, which can result from chlorine treatment of water. Some DBPs are link to long-term health risks.

194
Q

How do antimicrobials work?

A

Disrupts the cell membrane, which results in a loss of selective permeability, the detergents disrupt the membrane

195
Q

Why is handwashing one of the most vital antimicrobial techniques in the situation?

A
196
Q

What makes proteins the targets of so many antimicrobial agents? 

A
197
Q

What is an auto clave do?

A

It’s used to sterilize during pressurize steam. It increases pressure raises temperature and kills all endospores.

198
Q

What is designed to destroy Clostridium botulinum endospores?

A

Commercial canning process

199
Q

Why is the commercial canning process important

A

It is critical, because otherwise endospores can germinate in canned foods, cells grow in low acid, anaerobic conditions, and produce botulinum toxin.

200
Q

Which one is more effective dry heat or moist heat.

A

Moist heat

201
Q

What is dry heat do and what is it used for?

A

It’s an incineration method it oxidize cells to ashes it’s used to destroy medical waste to the animal carcasses

202
Q

What method of sterilization is used to sterilize the inoculation loop in a lab

A

Dry heat

203
Q

True or false UV radiation destroys microbes directly

A

True

204
Q

True or false UV radiation has a poor, penetrating power

A

This is true, thin filaments are coverings can limit a fact, cannot kill, microbes in solids or turbid liquids, most glasses in plastic block, the UV radiation

205
Q

Blank is used in pasteurization of commercial foods

A

High pressure

206
Q

Which type of microbe would be the least likely to be removed by passage through the HEPA filter?

A
207
Q

What are some drawback to using radiation to preserve food?

A
208
Q

We were false, quaternary, ammonium compounds are not effective on endospores, mycobacteria and naked viruses

A

True

209
Q

Can staphylococcus Aurus grow in high salt environments.

A

Yes

210
Q

What are the three processes used to generate ATP?

A

Substrate level, phosphorylation, oxidative, phosphorylation, photo phosphorylation 

211
Q

True or false E. coli can grow in glucose salts, medium

A

This is true

212
Q

What are the several types of work done by the cell?

A
213
Q

Why does a terminal electron acceptor need to be very electronegative?

A
214
Q

What is allosteric regulation?

A

Enzyme activity is controlled by bonding to allosteric site. This distorts, the enzyme, shape and prevents or enhances binding. This allows for feedback inhibition.

215
Q

In enzyme inhibition, which is a type of inhibitor that binds to active site of the enzyme

A

Competitive inhibitor

216
Q

Is allosteric inhibition an example of competitive inhibition 

A

No

217
Q

What are the qualities of a good competitive inhibitor? 

A
218
Q

Can allosteric regulators activate enzymes?

A

Some can

219
Q

How many total ATP does glycolysis generate? NADH ? Net

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH

220
Q

What is the net CO2, ATP, NADH, FADH2 produced in citric acid cycle?

A

Two, two, six, two

221
Q

What is the pentose phosphate pathway do?

A

It breaks down glucose and also generates reducing power NADPH

222
Q

What drives the synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase?

A

Electron transport chain

223
Q

What is the meaning of reducing power?

A
224
Q

How glycolysis link catabolism with anabolism?

A
225
Q

Where is the electron transport chain located in eukaryotes?

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

226
Q

Where is the electron transport chain located in prokaryotes?

A

In the cytoplasmic membrane

227
Q

What is the product produced as an end product during anaerobic respiration and E. coli?

A

Hydrogen sulfide

228
Q

In the electron transport chain every three protons required for every ATP true or false

A

This is true

229
Q

E. coli is a facultative anaerobe

A

True

230
Q

What does Streptococcus pneumoniae lack

A

Etc

231
Q

What are the micro organisms found in lactic acid?

A

Staphylococcus and Lactobacillus

232
Q

And fermentation what are the micro organisms found an ethanol

A

Saccharomyces

233
Q

In butyric acid, what is the microorganism found?

A

Clostridium

234
Q

What are the micro organisms found with propanoic acid fermentation?

A

Propionibacterium

235
Q

In fermenting next acid, what is the microorganism found

A

E. coli

236
Q

What enzyme, digest starch?

A

Amylase

237
Q

What enzyme digest cellulose?

A

Cellulase

238
Q

What would be the effect of a molecule with greater electronegative than oxygen on respiration?

A
239
Q

What will be required for cells to you cellulose as a source for electrons

A
240
Q

Where is the prokaryotic Calvin cycle apparatus located?

A
241
Q

What are the benefits of using feedback inhibition to control tryptophan synthesis in prokaryotes?

A
242
Q

What are the properties of mycobacteria?

A

Gram-positive, catalase, positive non-metal non-spore, forming rod shaped bacteria no cell wall

243
Q

What can phenolics kill?

A

Mycobacterium in most vegetative bacteria

244
Q

What is nitrate and nitrite stop the growth of

A

Clostridium botulinum

245
Q

What does lyophilization?

A

Freeze drying foods

246
Q

Blank, obtains energy from organic compounds

A

Chemoorganotrophs

247
Q

True or false ExerGonic reaction have more free energy

A

True

248
Q

True or false ender Gonic reaction products have more free energy

A

True

249
Q

Define thylakoids

A

Cyanobacteria: Photosystems in membranes of stacked structures inside sell, termed thylakoids

250
Q

Algae

A

Domain: Eucarya
Singled celled or mulicellular

251
Q

Archaea

A

Prokaryotes
Flagella
Rigid cell walls

252
Q

Bioremediation

A

Using microorganisms to hasten decay of pollutants

253
Q

Emerging diseases and drivers

A
  • pathogens become resistant to anti microbial medications
  • Increased travel and immigration
  • changes in population
  • chronic diseases caused by bacteria
254
Q

Helminths

A

A type of multicellular eukaryotic organism

255
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite

A

Inactive virus outside of host. Must have host to be active

256
Q

Acid-fast stain

A
  • used to detect mycobacterium
  • high concentrations of mycolic acid
  • differential stain
257
Q

Active transport

A

Low to high

258
Q

Teichoic acid

A

Anionic polymers found in gram-positive bacteria