MOD Self-assessment question Flashcards
1
Q
Infarcts seen in the spleen are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)
A
False - they are typically pale infarcts
2
Q
Infarcts in the lungs are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)
A
True
3
Q
Infarcts in the brain heal by gliosis? (T/F)
A
True - gliosis is the main reparative mechanism of the CNS
4
Q
Infarcts usually result from ischaemia? (T/F)
A
True
5
Q
Infarcts are a manifestation of apoptosis? (T/F)
A
False - Infarcts represent the deaths of many cells. Apoptosis is the programmed cell death of a single or small collection of cells.
6
Q
Free-radicals damage cells by cross-linking proteins? (T/F)
A
True
7
Q
Free radicals damage cells by breaking strands of DNA? (T/F)
A
True
8
Q
Free radicals damage cells by oxidising membrane lipids? (T/F)
A
True - this is an important mechanism of membrane damage.
9
Q
Free radicals damage cells by activating cell surface receptors? (T/F)
A
False - there are no specific cell or cytoplasmic receptors for free radicals
10
Q
Free radicals damage cells by activating cytoplasmic receptors? (T/F)
A
False
11
Q
Apoptosis is involved in limb modelling in embryogenesis? (T/F)
A
True - selective cell death is an important process in embryogenesis.
12
Q
Apoptosis is a frequent result of ischaemic injury? (T/F)
A
False - necrosis not apoptosis follows ischaemia.
13
Q
Apoptosis is a physiological process? (T/F)
A
True.
14
Q
Apoptosis involves active transcription of genes? (T/F)
A
True - apoptosis is an active process.
15
Q
Apoptosis is seen in the liver in hepatitis? (T/F)
A
True
16
Q
In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ATP levels fall? (T/F)
A
True - reduced oxidative phosphorylation leads to a reduction in ATP.
17
Q
In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ribosomes are detached form the ER? (T/F)
A
True
18
Q
In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, pyknosis occurs? (T/F)
A
False - pyknosis is a feature of irreversible cell injury. Clumped chromatin is seen in reversible oncosis BUT pyknosis is CONDENSED chromatin and is IRREVERSIBLE.
19
Q
In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, mitochondria swell? (T/F)
A
True
20
Q
In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, there is lysosomal disruption (T/F)?
A
False - that is a feature of irreversible cell injury
21
Q
Would myocardium undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?
A
Yes
22
Q
Would motor neurones undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?
A
Yes
23
Q
Would skeletal muscle undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?
A
No
24
Q
Would renal tubules undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?
A
Yes
25
Would chondrocytes undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?
No
26
Neutrophil polymorphs have multiple nuclei (T/F)?
False - they have single polylobulated nuclei
27
Neutrophil polymorphs are the major cell type of acute inflammation (T/F)?
True
28
Neutrophil polymorphs fuse to form giant cells (T/F)?
False - macroophages fuse to form giant cells.
29
Neutrophil polymorphs have are phagocytic (T/F)?
True - they may phagocytose and kill bacteria.
30
Neutrophil polymorphs generate hydrogen peroxide (T/F)?
True - hydrogen peroxide is used by myeloperoxidase enzyme to form HOCL. (hypochlorite) in order to effect bacterial killing.
31
In acute inflammation, there is invariably some tissue destruction around an abscess (T/F)?
True
32
In acute inflammation, incision and drainage is an effective treatment for an abscess?
True - this is a traditional surgical approach. Antibiotics are not always effective against abscesses.
33
In acute inflammation, neutrophils may use anaerobic respiration (T/F)?
True - neutrophils use both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
34
In acute inflammation, histamine causes vascular dilation and increased vascualar permeability?
True
35
In acute inflammation, lysozyme causes pyrexia?
False - lysozyme is an antibacterial agent found in neutrophil polymorphs.
36
In acute inflammation, hyperaemia is initiated by capillary relaxation (T/F)?
True?
37
In acute inflammation, the rate of blood flow is consistently increased (T/F)?
False
38
In acute inflammation, escape of fluid from vessels follows the migration of cells (T/F)?
False
39
In acute inflammation, emigration of neutrophil polymorphs is a passive process (T/F)?
False - emigration is an active (energy-dependent) process.
40
In acute inflammation, neutrophils may be recruited by bacterial products (T/F)?
True - bacterial breakdown products may act as chemotactic agents.
41
Macrophages are derived from bone marrow precursors (T/F)?
True - all inflammatory cells are derived from bone marrow precursors. In the case of macrophages the immediate precursor is the monocyte.
42
Macrophages can produce interleukin-1 (T/F)?
True
43
Macrophages can phagocytose bacteria but not cell debris (T/F)?
False
44
Macrophages can also be called monocytes and histiocytes (T/F)?
True - monocytes (when in blood), histiocytes (when in tissue)
45
Macrophages produce antibodies (T/F)?
False - they are produced mainly by plasma cells (a type of B lymphocyte)
46
Systemic effects of acute inflammation include fever (T/F)?
True
47
Systemic effects of acute inflammation include lymphocytosis (T/F)?
False - leucocytosis not lymphocytosis develops. Lymphocytosis is an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood. This is a feature of infection not acute inflammation.
48
Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced C-reactive protein levels (T/F)?
False - CRP levels increase in acute phase response to acute inflammation.
49
Systemic effects of acute inflammation include tachycardia (T/F)?
True
50
Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced plasma viscosity (T/F)?
False - plasma viscosity increases in the acute phase response.
51
Granulomatous inflammation is a feature of Crohn's disease (T/F)?
True
52
Granulomatous inflammation refers to a collection of multi-nucleate giant cells (T/F)?
False - a granuloma is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes (macrophages). It may contain giant cells.
53
Granulomatous inflammation represents a cell mediated immune response (T/F)?
True
54
Granulomatous inflammation is seen in response to Beryllium (T/F)?
True - this may enter the body via the respiratory tract in those who work with beryllium or via the skin, for example, when an injury is sustained by a strip light.
55
Granulomatous inflammation follows acute inflammation in most cases (T/F)?
False - it may occur in chronic inflammation caused by 'tough' bacteria or poorly soluble / difficult to remove foreign bodies.
56
Chronic inflammation is a balance between progressive tissue damage and repair (T/F)?
True
57
Chronic inflammation rarely follows acute inflammation (T/F)?
False - this is the most cause of chronic inflammation.
58
Chronic inflammation is a typical feature of auto-immune reactions (T/F)?
True
59
Chronic inflammation inevitably involves the formation of granulomas (T/F)?
False - granulomatous inflammation is a subtype of chronic inflammation.
60
Chronic inflammation is not associated with an immune response (T/F)?
False - chronic inflammation is frequently associated with an immune response.
61
In Chronic inflammation T lymphocytes are phagocytic (T/F)?
False - macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic.
62
In Chronic inflammation antibodies are produced by macrophages (T/F)?
False - produced by plasma cells (differentiated B lymphocytes).
63
In chronic inflammation complete resolution is a common outcome (T/F)?
False - complete resolution is not possible if there has been tissue destruction.
64
In chronic inflammation healing does not occur until the inflammation has fully resolved (T/F)?
False - healing takes place at the same time as tissue destruction.
65
Om chronic inflammation blood monocytes respond to gamma-interferon to become tissue macrophages (T/F)?
True
66
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of acute inflammation (T/F)?
False
67
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of caseation (T/F)?
True - the granulomas of tuberculosis typically show caseous necrosis.
68
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of large numbers of eosinophils (T/F)?
False - eosiniphils are typical of parasitic and allergic conditions.
69
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the demonstration of acid and alcohol fast bacilli (T/F)?
True - these are typical staining characteristics of M. tuberculosis.
70
The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of Touton giant cells (T/F)?
False - the typical giant cell type seen is Langhan's. Touton giant cells are seen in fat necrosis and xanthomas.
71
Chronic inflammation is characterised by tissue destruction (T/F)?
True
72
Chronic inflammation is characterised by supparation (pus-forming) (T/F)?
True
73
Chronic inflammation is characterised by infiltration with neutrophils (T/F)?
False
74
Chronic inflammation is characterised by fibrosis (T/F)?
True
75
Chronic inflammation is characterised by increased tissue concentration of lymphocytes (T/F)?
True
76
Healing by fibrosis is rarely beneficial to the patient (T/F)?
False - fibrosis produces a resilient scar. However scar tissue may contract leading to deformation.
77
Healing by fibrosis in an inevitable consequence of acute inflammation (T/F)?
False - acute inflammation resolves without fibrosis because there's no tissue damage.
78
Healing by fibrosis is inhibited by large doses of vitamin C (T/F)?
False - vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis.
79
Healing by fibrosis is minimised by proper suturing of a wound (T/F)?
True
80
Healing by fibrosis is impaired by coexistent diabetes mellitus (T/F)?
True - due to micorangiopathy and decreased resistance to infection.
81
In wound healing macrophages play a crucial role (T/F)?
True
82
In wound healing epidermal growth factor promotes new blood vessel formation (T/F)?
False
83
In wound healing the myofibroblast is important in primary union (T/F)?
False - it is important for wound contraction in secondary intention wound healing.
84
In wound healing overgrowth of epidermis leads to keloid formation (T/F)?
False - a keloid is a mass of fibrous connective tissue (excess collagen produced).
85
In wound healing radiation promotes more effective repair (T/F)?
False - it inhibits wound healing.
86
Fracture healing may be impaired by fixation (T/F)?
False - fixation promotes healing by preventing movement of bone ends.
87
Fracture healing may be impaired by infection (T/F)?
True
88
Fracture healing may be impaired by poor alignment (T/F)?
True
89
Fracture healing may be impaired by reduction (T/F)?
False - reduction is the realignment of a body part to its normal position. This promotes good alignment of bone ends.
90
Fracture healing may be impaired by corticosteroid therapy (T/F)?
True - steroids inhibit collagen synthesis.
91
Granulation tissue contains myofibroblasts (T/F)?
True - as well as fibroblasts and endothelial cells.
92
Granulation tissue does not contain blood vessels (T/F)?
False - new capillaries are present.
93
Granulation tissue is more important in healing by primary intention than secondary intention (T/F)?
False - in secondary intention more tissue is lost and therefore more granulation tissue is needed to replace it.
94
Granulation tissue plays no part in fracture healing (T/F)?
False - granulation tissue forms after the formation of a haematoma and allows the synthesis of fibrous tissue and cartilage -> soft calus.
95
Granulation tissue is responsible for 'proud flesh' seen in healing wounds (T/F)?
True - exuberant granulation tissue may project beyond the level of the epithelium.
96
Collagen is secreted as a soluble protein which is modified outside the cell (T/F)?
True
97
Collagen assembles into a double helix (T/F)?
False - it assembles into a linear triple helix conformation.
98
Collagen requires Vitamin A for cross-linking (T/F)?
False - vitamin C is required for cross-linking between alpha-chains in the triple helix because it is a cofactor for enzymes that hydroxylate proline and lysing residues on these chains which enables them to hydrogen bond to each other.
99
Collagen is rich in hydroxyproline (T/F)?
True
100
Collagen type III is gradually replaced by collagen type I in the remodelling of fibrous tissue (T/F)?
True - type III is the collagen of fibrous tissue and is produced quickly by young fibroblasts before the tougher type I tissue is synthesised.
101
Immobility predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?
True
102
Protein C deficiency predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?
True - protein C is activated by binding to thrombin (promoted by thrombomodulin and endothelial protein C receptors) and proteolytic cleaves some clotting factors causing their inactivation. It is therefore an anti-coagulant.
103
Aspirin treatment predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?
False - aspiring has an anti-thrombotic effect and is used to reduced the risk of thrombosis. It has an anti-platelet effect, stopping them from binding together into a thrombus.
104
Low platelet count predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?
False - a low platelet count reduces the risk of thrombosis.
105
Anaemia predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?
False
106
Pulmonary embolism occurs during surgery in most cases (T/F)?
False - it typically occurs several hours after surgery.
107
Pulmonary embolism is a consequence of thrombus within the left ventricle (T/F)?
False - thrombus within the left ventricle will embolise through the systemic circulation.
108
Pulmonary embolism produces characteristic ECG changes (T/F)?
True - these changes are seen in any condition which causes acute pulmonary hypertension.
109
Pulmonary embolism can be identified by chest x-ray in most cases (T/F)?
False
110
Left ventricular thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?
False
111
Fat thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?
True
112
Deep vein thrombosis is likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?
True
113
Thrombus overlying atheroma are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?
False - atheroma is a disease of arteries.
114
Air thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?
False - air enters the venous system but then passes through interatrial of interventricular defects in the heart to the arterial system.
115
Warfarin treatment is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?
False
116
Endotoxic shock is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?
True - endotoxins lead to widespread activation of the coagulation system.
117
Amniotic fluid embolus is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?
True - amniotic fluid may enter the circulation at time of delivery.
118
Meningococcal septicaemia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?
True
119
Lobar pneumonia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?
False
120
Aspirin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?
False - aspirin is used as prophylaxis for arterial thrombosis e.g. due to a risk of coronary thrombosis.
121
Warfarin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?
False - warfarin is used in treatment for DVT, not prophylaxis.
122
Leg compression is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?
True - intermittent leg compression is used during surgery to reduce the risk of DVT.
123
Streptokinase is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?
False - streptokinase is used to break down arterial thrombosis, especially coronary thrombosis.
124
Heparin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?
True - subcutaneous heparin is the main prophylaxis for DVT.
125
Diabetes is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?
True
126
Hypertension is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?
True
127
Hyperthyroidism is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?
False
128
Low alcohol intake is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?
False - there is some evidence that small amounts of alcohol may have a protective effect.
129
High HDL levels are a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?
False - high levels of LDL predispose to atherosclerosis.
130
Cholesterol clefts are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?
True
131
Haemorrhage into the plaque are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?
False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.
132
Thrombosis is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?
False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.
133
Smooth muscle cell proliferation is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?
True
134
Foamy macrophages are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?
True - intracellular lipid, along with extracellular lipid, is a feature of atheroma both simple and complicated.
135
Pulmonary hypertension is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?
False
136
Aortic dissection is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?
False - atherosclerosis alone does not normally cause aortic dissection. In most cases hypertension is also present.
137
Cerebral embolism is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?
True - embolism to the cerebral arteries may occur from thrombosis over atheromatous plaques in the carotid arteries.
138
Coronary thrombosis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?
True
139
Infective endocarditis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?
False - infective endocarditis is a disease (usually bacterial) of heart valves. It has no relationship to atherosclerosis.
140
Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in females than males (T/F)?
False
141
Atheromatous aortic aneurysms result from an excess of elastic tissue within the aortic wall (T/F)?
False - the amount of elastic tissue is reduced in advanced aterhosclerosis.
142
Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in the thorax than in the abdomen (T/F)?
False
143
Atheromatous aortic aneurysms have a high risk of spontaneous rupture if greater than 6cm (T/F)?
True - at this size the risk of death is greater than that of elective surgery.
144
Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are not amenable to surgical repair (T/F)?
False - many aneurysms are successfully repaired - usually by insertion of a prosthetic (artificial) graft).
145
The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by expression of von Willebrand factor (T/F)?
False - von Willebrand factor is involved in haemostasis. It is not produced by endothelium, but from the alpha-granules of platelets and subendothelial tissue (?)
146
The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by thrombomodulin production (T/F)?
True - thrombomodulin binds to any locally formed thrombin and this complex initiates the anti-coagulant effects of protein C and S.
147
The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by prothrombin production (T/F)?
False
148
The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by the expression of heparin-like molecules (T/F)?
True - these molecules inhibit elements of the normal coagulation cascade. They bind to antithrombin leading to accelerated complex formation between antithrombin and clotting cascade factors. Antithrombin is a protease inhibitor and inactivates these clotting factors.
149
Decreased workload may cause atrophy (T/F)?
True
150
Loss of innervation may cause atrophy (T/F)?
True
151
Diminished blood supply may cause atrophy (T/F)?
True
152
Acute inflammation may cause atrophy (T/F)?
False - chronic inflammation can cause atrophy.
153
Endocrine stimulation may cause atrophy (T/F)?
False - atrophy can be caused by loss of endocrine stimulation e.g. uterus.
154
Squamous metaplasia of ductal epithelium of prostate is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?
True
155
Squamous metaplasia of endocervical epithelium is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?
True
156
Intestinal metaplasia of gastric mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?
True
157
Columnar metaplasia of rectal mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?
False - the rectal mucosa has columnar epithelium above the pectinate line and stratified squamous epithelium below the pectinate line. The pectinate line is the hindgut-proctodeum junction and divides the anus into a superior 2/3 derived from the hindgut and an inferior 1/3 derived from the proctodeum. Therefore squamous metaplasia of the rectal mucosa can be seen.
158
Columnar metaplasia of bronchus is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?
False - squamous metaplasia of the bronchus can be seen as a result of smoking. The bronchus epithelium is normally pseudostratified columnar epithelium. As you travel down the bronchioles towards the alveoli this transitions to simple cuboidal epithelium and then simple squamous.
159
Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the breast during pregnancy (T/F)?
False - there is no smooth muscle in the breast.
160
Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the muscles of a body builder (T/F)?
False - hypertrophy of skeletal muscle occurs!
161
Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the left ventricle in systemic hypertrophy (T/F)?
False - hypertrophy of cardiac muscle occurs.
162
Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the bladder in cases of prostatic enlargement (T/F)?
True.
163
Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the colon in diverticular disease (T/F)?
True - acute diverticulitits can cause obstruction.
164
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Cushing's syndrome (T/F)?
False - adrenal gland hyperplasia can occur.
165
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Grave's disease (T/F)?
True - due to continuous stimulation of TSH receptors in the thyroid by antibodies.
166
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland is caused by increased levels of prolactin (T/F)?
False.
167
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland may occur in iodine deficiency (T/F)?
True.
168
Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland leads to myxodema (T/F)?
False - synonymous with hypothyroidism. Hyperplasia of the thyroid however may cause thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism).
169
In the cell cycle DNA is synthesised during G1 (T/F)?
False - during the S (syntheisis) phase.
170
In the cell cycle permanent cells enter G0 and stay there (T/F)?
True
171
In the cell cycle cyclins co-ordinate the passage of cells through the cell cycle (T/F)?
True
172
In the cell cycle labile tissues are continuously proliferating (T/F)?
True
173
In the cell cycle the M phase is the period during whihc mitosis occurs (T/F)?
True
174
Abnormal mitotic figures are typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?
False - these are a feature of malignant tumours.
175
Diploid DNA is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?
True
176
Maintaining structural differentiation is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?
True.
177
Diffuse invasion through surrounding tissues is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?
False - it is a feature of malignant tumours.
178
Giving rise to metastases is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?
False - this could be regarded as the ultimate proof of malignancy.
179
Adenocarcinomas may produce mucin (T/F)?
True
180
Adenocarcinomas can occur in a thyroid gland (T/F)?
True
181
Adenocarcinomas contain neurosecretory granules (T/F)?
False - this is a feature of neuroendocrine tumours such as carcinoids rather than adenocarcinomas.
182
Adenocarcinomas form glandular acini (T/F)?
True
183
Adenocarcinomas contain intracytoplasmic cytokeratin (T/F)?
True - these are proteins found in the cytoskeleton of epithelial tissue.
184
Loss of normal maturation is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?
True
185
Uniformity of cell shape and size is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?
False
186
Increased mitotic activity is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?
True
187
Penetration through the basement membrane is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?
False
188
High nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?
True
189
Tumours of soft tissue are more often malignant than benign (T/F)?
False - both lipomas and leiomyomas are benign tumours of soft tissue.
190
Tumours of soft tissue often arise at sites of injury (T/F)?
False - there is no clear relationship between soft tissue injury and tumours.
191
Tumours of soft tissue are classified by the tissue of origin (T/F)?
True
192
Tumours of soft tissue present with symptoms specific to their histological type (T/F)?
False
193
Tumours of soft tissue if malignant are referred to as sartcomas (T/F)?
True
194
Multiple myeloma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?
True
195
Neurofibroma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?
False
196
Meningioma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?
False
197
Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?
True
198
Lymphoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?
True - lymphomas and leukaemias are always malignant.
199
Invasion is facilitated by alterations in cell adhesion molecules (T/F)?
True - e.g. E-cadherin (between malignant cells) and integrin (between maligant cells and stomal proteins).
200
Invasion relies exclusively on amoeboid movement of cells (T/F)?
False - also involves:
1. Altered adhesion
2. Stromal proteolysis
201
Invasion results from increased cell stromal adhesion (T/F)?
False
202
Invasion is facilitated by the secretion of peroxidase (T/F)?
False - is helped by the secretion of matrix metalloproteases, like collagenase.
203
Invasion by definition indicates malignant cells present in blood vessels (T/F)?
False - could also be in lymph vessels or coelomic space.
204
The brain is a common site of metastases (T/F)?
True
205
The liver is a common site of metastases (T/F)?
True
206
Skeletal muscle is a common site of metastases (T/F)?
False
207
Breasts are a common site of metastases (T/F)?
False
208
Bone is a common site of metastases (T/F)?
True
209
Basal cell carcinoma metastases widely (T/F)?
False - it rarely metastases.
210
Sarcomas frequently metastasise via the lymphatic system (T/F)?
False - they usually metastasise through blood. Carcinomas tend to metastasise through the lymphatic system.
211
Bone metastses from breast cancer may present many years after intitial diagnosis (T/F)?
True./
212
The ovaries are a recognised site of metastases from gastric cancer (T/F)?
Ovarian secondary tumours can arise from breast, GIT, haemopoietic system, uterus or cervical cancers.
213
CNS tumours frequently metastasise to the liver (T/F)?
False - brain tumours rarely spread to other organs, they spread to other parts of the brain and CNS.
214
Reduced mitotic activity is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?
False - it has increased mitotic activity.
215
Loss of contact inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?
True
216
Complex nutritional requirements is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?
False
217
Short life span is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?
False - cell immortalisation is a feature.
218
Loss of density dependent growth inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?
True
219
Small cell carcinoma of the lungs produces ACTH (T/F)?
True
220
Renal cell carcinoma of the lungs produces cortisol (T/F)?
False - an adrenal gland adenoma or adrenal cell carinoma can though.
221
Ovarian carcinoma can secrete oestrogen (T/F)?
False - adrenal carcinoma and testicular stromal cell tumours (Leydig and Sertoli cell) can though.
222
Testicular teratoma can secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (T/F)?
True - also secreted by: seminoma, choriocarcinoma, germ cell tumors, hydatidiform mole formation, teratoma with elements of choriocarcinoma, and islet cell tumor.
223
Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for which cancers?
Hepatocellular carcinoma, germ cell tumors, and metastatic cancers of the liver.
224
Carcinoid tumour can secrete 5-HT (serotonin) (T/F)?
True
