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ESA2 LKM > MOD Self-assessment question > Flashcards

MOD Self-assessment question Flashcards

1
Q

Infarcts seen in the spleen are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)

A

False - they are typically pale infarcts

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2
Q

Infarcts in the lungs are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)

A

True

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3
Q

Infarcts in the brain heal by gliosis? (T/F)

A

True - gliosis is the main reparative mechanism of the CNS

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4
Q

Infarcts usually result from ischaemia? (T/F)

A

True

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5
Q

Infarcts are a manifestation of apoptosis? (T/F)

A

False - Infarcts represent the deaths of many cells. Apoptosis is the programmed cell death of a single or small collection of cells.

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6
Q

Free-radicals damage cells by cross-linking proteins? (T/F)

A

True

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7
Q

Free radicals damage cells by breaking strands of DNA? (T/F)

A

True

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8
Q

Free radicals damage cells by oxidising membrane lipids? (T/F)

A

True - this is an important mechanism of membrane damage.

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9
Q

Free radicals damage cells by activating cell surface receptors? (T/F)

A

False - there are no specific cell or cytoplasmic receptors for free radicals

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10
Q

Free radicals damage cells by activating cytoplasmic receptors? (T/F)

A

False

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11
Q

Apoptosis is involved in limb modelling in embryogenesis? (T/F)

A

True - selective cell death is an important process in embryogenesis.

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12
Q

Apoptosis is a frequent result of ischaemic injury? (T/F)

A

False - necrosis not apoptosis follows ischaemia.

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13
Q

Apoptosis is a physiological process? (T/F)

A

True.

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14
Q

Apoptosis involves active transcription of genes? (T/F)

A

True - apoptosis is an active process.

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15
Q

Apoptosis is seen in the liver in hepatitis? (T/F)

A

True

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16
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ATP levels fall? (T/F)

A

True - reduced oxidative phosphorylation leads to a reduction in ATP.

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17
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ribosomes are detached form the ER? (T/F)

A

True

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18
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, pyknosis occurs? (T/F)

A

False - pyknosis is a feature of irreversible cell injury. Clumped chromatin is seen in reversible oncosis BUT pyknosis is CONDENSED chromatin and is IRREVERSIBLE.

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19
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, mitochondria swell? (T/F)

A

True

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20
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, there is lysosomal disruption (T/F)?

A

False - that is a feature of irreversible cell injury

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21
Q

Would myocardium undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

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22
Q

Would motor neurones undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

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23
Q

Would skeletal muscle undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

No

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24
Q

Would renal tubules undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

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25
Q

Would chondrocytes undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

No

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26
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs have multiple nuclei (T/F)?

A

False - they have single polylobulated nuclei

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27
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs are the major cell type of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

True

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28
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs fuse to form giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - macroophages fuse to form giant cells.

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29
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs have are phagocytic (T/F)?

A

True - they may phagocytose and kill bacteria.

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30
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs generate hydrogen peroxide (T/F)?

A

True - hydrogen peroxide is used by myeloperoxidase enzyme to form HOCL. (hypochlorite) in order to effect bacterial killing.

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31
Q

In acute inflammation, there is invariably some tissue destruction around an abscess (T/F)?

A

True

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32
Q

In acute inflammation, incision and drainage is an effective treatment for an abscess?

A

True - this is a traditional surgical approach. Antibiotics are not always effective against abscesses.

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33
Q

In acute inflammation, neutrophils may use anaerobic respiration (T/F)?

A

True - neutrophils use both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

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34
Q

In acute inflammation, histamine causes vascular dilation and increased vascualar permeability?

A

True

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35
Q

In acute inflammation, lysozyme causes pyrexia?

A

False - lysozyme is an antibacterial agent found in neutrophil polymorphs.

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36
Q

In acute inflammation, hyperaemia is initiated by capillary relaxation (T/F)?

A

True?

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37
Q

In acute inflammation, the rate of blood flow is consistently increased (T/F)?

A

False

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38
Q

In acute inflammation, escape of fluid from vessels follows the migration of cells (T/F)?

A

False

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39
Q

In acute inflammation, emigration of neutrophil polymorphs is a passive process (T/F)?

A

False - emigration is an active (energy-dependent) process.

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40
Q

In acute inflammation, neutrophils may be recruited by bacterial products (T/F)?

A

True - bacterial breakdown products may act as chemotactic agents.

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41
Q

Macrophages are derived from bone marrow precursors (T/F)?

A

True - all inflammatory cells are derived from bone marrow precursors. In the case of macrophages the immediate precursor is the monocyte.

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42
Q

Macrophages can produce interleukin-1 (T/F)?

A

True

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43
Q

Macrophages can phagocytose bacteria but not cell debris (T/F)?

A

False

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44
Q

Macrophages can also be called monocytes and histiocytes (T/F)?

A

True - monocytes (when in blood), histiocytes (when in tissue)

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45
Q

Macrophages produce antibodies (T/F)?

A

False - they are produced mainly by plasma cells (a type of B lymphocyte)

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46
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include fever (T/F)?

A

True

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47
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include lymphocytosis (T/F)?

A

False - leucocytosis not lymphocytosis develops. Lymphocytosis is an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood. This is a feature of infection not acute inflammation.

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48
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced C-reactive protein levels (T/F)?

A

False - CRP levels increase in acute phase response to acute inflammation.

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49
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include tachycardia (T/F)?

A

True

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50
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced plasma viscosity (T/F)?

A

False - plasma viscosity increases in the acute phase response.

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51
Q

Granulomatous inflammation is a feature of Crohn’s disease (T/F)?

A

True

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52
Q

Granulomatous inflammation refers to a collection of multi-nucleate giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - a granuloma is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes (macrophages). It may contain giant cells.

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53
Q

Granulomatous inflammation represents a cell mediated immune response (T/F)?

A

True

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54
Q

Granulomatous inflammation is seen in response to Beryllium (T/F)?

A

True - this may enter the body via the respiratory tract in those who work with beryllium or via the skin, for example, when an injury is sustained by a strip light.

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55
Q

Granulomatous inflammation follows acute inflammation in most cases (T/F)?

A

False - it may occur in chronic inflammation caused by ‘tough’ bacteria or poorly soluble / difficult to remove foreign bodies.

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56
Q

Chronic inflammation is a balance between progressive tissue damage and repair (T/F)?

A

True

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57
Q

Chronic inflammation rarely follows acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False - this is the most cause of chronic inflammation.

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58
Q

Chronic inflammation is a typical feature of auto-immune reactions (T/F)?

A

True

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59
Q

Chronic inflammation inevitably involves the formation of granulomas (T/F)?

A

False - granulomatous inflammation is a subtype of chronic inflammation.

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60
Q

Chronic inflammation is not associated with an immune response (T/F)?

A

False - chronic inflammation is frequently associated with an immune response.

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61
Q

In Chronic inflammation T lymphocytes are phagocytic (T/F)?

A

False - macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic.

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62
Q

In Chronic inflammation antibodies are produced by macrophages (T/F)?

A

False - produced by plasma cells (differentiated B lymphocytes).

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63
Q

In chronic inflammation complete resolution is a common outcome (T/F)?

A

False - complete resolution is not possible if there has been tissue destruction.

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64
Q

In chronic inflammation healing does not occur until the inflammation has fully resolved (T/F)?

A

False - healing takes place at the same time as tissue destruction.

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65
Q

Om chronic inflammation blood monocytes respond to gamma-interferon to become tissue macrophages (T/F)?

A

True

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66
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False

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67
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of caseation (T/F)?

A

True - the granulomas of tuberculosis typically show caseous necrosis.

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68
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of large numbers of eosinophils (T/F)?

A

False - eosiniphils are typical of parasitic and allergic conditions.

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69
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the demonstration of acid and alcohol fast bacilli (T/F)?

A

True - these are typical staining characteristics of M. tuberculosis.

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70
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of Touton giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - the typical giant cell type seen is Langhan’s. Touton giant cells are seen in fat necrosis and xanthomas.

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71
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by tissue destruction (T/F)?

A

True

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72
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by supparation (pus-forming) (T/F)?

A

True

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73
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by infiltration with neutrophils (T/F)?

A

False

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74
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by fibrosis (T/F)?

A

True

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75
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by increased tissue concentration of lymphocytes (T/F)?

A

True

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76
Q

Healing by fibrosis is rarely beneficial to the patient (T/F)?

A

False - fibrosis produces a resilient scar. However scar tissue may contract leading to deformation.

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77
Q

Healing by fibrosis in an inevitable consequence of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False - acute inflammation resolves without fibrosis because there’s no tissue damage.

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78
Q

Healing by fibrosis is inhibited by large doses of vitamin C (T/F)?

A

False - vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis.

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79
Q

Healing by fibrosis is minimised by proper suturing of a wound (T/F)?

A

True

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80
Q

Healing by fibrosis is impaired by coexistent diabetes mellitus (T/F)?

A

True - due to micorangiopathy and decreased resistance to infection.

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81
Q

In wound healing macrophages play a crucial role (T/F)?

A

True

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82
Q

In wound healing epidermal growth factor promotes new blood vessel formation (T/F)?

A

False

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83
Q

In wound healing the myofibroblast is important in primary union (T/F)?

A

False - it is important for wound contraction in secondary intention wound healing.

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84
Q

In wound healing overgrowth of epidermis leads to keloid formation (T/F)?

A

False - a keloid is a mass of fibrous connective tissue (excess collagen produced).

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85
Q

In wound healing radiation promotes more effective repair (T/F)?

A

False - it inhibits wound healing.

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86
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by fixation (T/F)?

A

False - fixation promotes healing by preventing movement of bone ends.

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87
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by infection (T/F)?

A

True

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88
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by poor alignment (T/F)?

A

True

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89
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by reduction (T/F)?

A

False - reduction is the realignment of a body part to its normal position. This promotes good alignment of bone ends.

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90
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by corticosteroid therapy (T/F)?

A

True - steroids inhibit collagen synthesis.

91
Q

Granulation tissue contains myofibroblasts (T/F)?

A

True - as well as fibroblasts and endothelial cells.

92
Q

Granulation tissue does not contain blood vessels (T/F)?

A

False - new capillaries are present.

93
Q

Granulation tissue is more important in healing by primary intention than secondary intention (T/F)?

A

False - in secondary intention more tissue is lost and therefore more granulation tissue is needed to replace it.

94
Q

Granulation tissue plays no part in fracture healing (T/F)?

A

False - granulation tissue forms after the formation of a haematoma and allows the synthesis of fibrous tissue and cartilage -> soft calus.

95
Q

Granulation tissue is responsible for ‘proud flesh’ seen in healing wounds (T/F)?

A

True - exuberant granulation tissue may project beyond the level of the epithelium.

96
Q

Collagen is secreted as a soluble protein which is modified outside the cell (T/F)?

A

True

97
Q

Collagen assembles into a double helix (T/F)?

A

False - it assembles into a linear triple helix conformation.

98
Q

Collagen requires Vitamin A for cross-linking (T/F)?

A

False - vitamin C is required for cross-linking between alpha-chains in the triple helix because it is a cofactor for enzymes that hydroxylate proline and lysing residues on these chains which enables them to hydrogen bond to each other.

99
Q

Collagen is rich in hydroxyproline (T/F)?

A

True

100
Q

Collagen type III is gradually replaced by collagen type I in the remodelling of fibrous tissue (T/F)?

A

True - type III is the collagen of fibrous tissue and is produced quickly by young fibroblasts before the tougher type I tissue is synthesised.

101
Q

Immobility predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True

102
Q

Protein C deficiency predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - protein C is activated by binding to thrombin (promoted by thrombomodulin and endothelial protein C receptors) and proteolytic cleaves some clotting factors causing their inactivation. It is therefore an anti-coagulant.

103
Q

Aspirin treatment predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - aspiring has an anti-thrombotic effect and is used to reduced the risk of thrombosis. It has an anti-platelet effect, stopping them from binding together into a thrombus.

104
Q

Low platelet count predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - a low platelet count reduces the risk of thrombosis.

105
Q

Anaemia predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False

106
Q

Pulmonary embolism occurs during surgery in most cases (T/F)?

A

False - it typically occurs several hours after surgery.

107
Q

Pulmonary embolism is a consequence of thrombus within the left ventricle (T/F)?

A

False - thrombus within the left ventricle will embolise through the systemic circulation.

108
Q

Pulmonary embolism produces characteristic ECG changes (T/F)?

A

True - these changes are seen in any condition which causes acute pulmonary hypertension.

109
Q

Pulmonary embolism can be identified by chest x-ray in most cases (T/F)?

A

False

110
Q

Left ventricular thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

False

111
Q

Fat thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

True

112
Q

Deep vein thrombosis is likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

True

113
Q

Thrombus overlying atheroma are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

False - atheroma is a disease of arteries.

114
Q

Air thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

False - air enters the venous system but then passes through interatrial of interventricular defects in the heart to the arterial system.

115
Q

Warfarin treatment is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

False

116
Q

Endotoxic shock is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

True - endotoxins lead to widespread activation of the coagulation system.

117
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

True - amniotic fluid may enter the circulation at time of delivery.

118
Q

Meningococcal septicaemia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

True

119
Q

Lobar pneumonia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

False

120
Q

Aspirin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - aspirin is used as prophylaxis for arterial thrombosis e.g. due to a risk of coronary thrombosis.

121
Q

Warfarin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - warfarin is used in treatment for DVT, not prophylaxis.

122
Q

Leg compression is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - intermittent leg compression is used during surgery to reduce the risk of DVT.

123
Q

Streptokinase is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - streptokinase is used to break down arterial thrombosis, especially coronary thrombosis.

124
Q

Heparin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - subcutaneous heparin is the main prophylaxis for DVT.

125
Q

Diabetes is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

True

126
Q

Hypertension is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

True

127
Q

Hyperthyroidism is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

False

128
Q

Low alcohol intake is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

False - there is some evidence that small amounts of alcohol may have a protective effect.

129
Q

High HDL levels are a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

False - high levels of LDL predispose to atherosclerosis.

130
Q

Cholesterol clefts are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

True

131
Q

Haemorrhage into the plaque are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.

132
Q

Thrombosis is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.

133
Q

Smooth muscle cell proliferation is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

True

134
Q

Foamy macrophages are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

True - intracellular lipid, along with extracellular lipid, is a feature of atheroma both simple and complicated.

135
Q

Pulmonary hypertension is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

False

136
Q

Aortic dissection is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

False - atherosclerosis alone does not normally cause aortic dissection. In most cases hypertension is also present.

137
Q

Cerebral embolism is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

True - embolism to the cerebral arteries may occur from thrombosis over atheromatous plaques in the carotid arteries.

138
Q

Coronary thrombosis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

True

139
Q

Infective endocarditis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

False - infective endocarditis is a disease (usually bacterial) of heart valves. It has no relationship to atherosclerosis.

140
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in females than males (T/F)?

A

False

141
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms result from an excess of elastic tissue within the aortic wall (T/F)?

A

False - the amount of elastic tissue is reduced in advanced aterhosclerosis.

142
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in the thorax than in the abdomen (T/F)?

A

False

143
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms have a high risk of spontaneous rupture if greater than 6cm (T/F)?

A

True - at this size the risk of death is greater than that of elective surgery.

144
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are not amenable to surgical repair (T/F)?

A

False - many aneurysms are successfully repaired - usually by insertion of a prosthetic (artificial) graft).

145
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by expression of von Willebrand factor (T/F)?

A

False - von Willebrand factor is involved in haemostasis. It is not produced by endothelium, but from the alpha-granules of platelets and subendothelial tissue (?)

146
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by thrombomodulin production (T/F)?

A

True - thrombomodulin binds to any locally formed thrombin and this complex initiates the anti-coagulant effects of protein C and S.

147
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by prothrombin production (T/F)?

A

False

148
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by the expression of heparin-like molecules (T/F)?

A

True - these molecules inhibit elements of the normal coagulation cascade. They bind to antithrombin leading to accelerated complex formation between antithrombin and clotting cascade factors. Antithrombin is a protease inhibitor and inactivates these clotting factors.

149
Q

Decreased workload may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

True

150
Q

Loss of innervation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

True

151
Q

Diminished blood supply may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

True

152
Q

Acute inflammation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

False - chronic inflammation can cause atrophy.

153
Q

Endocrine stimulation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

False - atrophy can be caused by loss of endocrine stimulation e.g. uterus.

154
Q

Squamous metaplasia of ductal epithelium of prostate is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

True

155
Q

Squamous metaplasia of endocervical epithelium is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

True

156
Q

Intestinal metaplasia of gastric mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

True

157
Q

Columnar metaplasia of rectal mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

False - the rectal mucosa has columnar epithelium above the pectinate line and stratified squamous epithelium below the pectinate line. The pectinate line is the hindgut-proctodeum junction and divides the anus into a superior 2/3 derived from the hindgut and an inferior 1/3 derived from the proctodeum. Therefore squamous metaplasia of the rectal mucosa can be seen.

158
Q

Columnar metaplasia of bronchus is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

False - squamous metaplasia of the bronchus can be seen as a result of smoking. The bronchus epithelium is normally pseudostratified columnar epithelium. As you travel down the bronchioles towards the alveoli this transitions to simple cuboidal epithelium and then simple squamous.

159
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the breast during pregnancy (T/F)?

A

False - there is no smooth muscle in the breast.

160
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the muscles of a body builder (T/F)?

A

False - hypertrophy of skeletal muscle occurs!

161
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the left ventricle in systemic hypertrophy (T/F)?

A

False - hypertrophy of cardiac muscle occurs.

162
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the bladder in cases of prostatic enlargement (T/F)?

A

True.

163
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the colon in diverticular disease (T/F)?

A

True - acute diverticulitits can cause obstruction.

164
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Cushing’s syndrome (T/F)?

A

False - adrenal gland hyperplasia can occur.

165
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Grave’s disease (T/F)?

A

True - due to continuous stimulation of TSH receptors in the thyroid by antibodies.

166
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland is caused by increased levels of prolactin (T/F)?

A

False.

167
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland may occur in iodine deficiency (T/F)?

A

True.

168
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland leads to myxodema (T/F)?

A

False - synonymous with hypothyroidism. Hyperplasia of the thyroid however may cause thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism).

169
Q

In the cell cycle DNA is synthesised during G1 (T/F)?

A

False - during the S (syntheisis) phase.

170
Q

In the cell cycle permanent cells enter G0 and stay there (T/F)?

A

True

171
Q

In the cell cycle cyclins co-ordinate the passage of cells through the cell cycle (T/F)?

A

True

172
Q

In the cell cycle labile tissues are continuously proliferating (T/F)?

A

True

173
Q

In the cell cycle the M phase is the period during whihc mitosis occurs (T/F)?

A

True

174
Q

Abnormal mitotic figures are typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - these are a feature of malignant tumours.

175
Q

Diploid DNA is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

True

176
Q

Maintaining structural differentiation is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

True.

177
Q

Diffuse invasion through surrounding tissues is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of malignant tumours.

178
Q

Giving rise to metastases is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - this could be regarded as the ultimate proof of malignancy.

179
Q

Adenocarcinomas may produce mucin (T/F)?

A

True

180
Q

Adenocarcinomas can occur in a thyroid gland (T/F)?

A

True

181
Q

Adenocarcinomas contain neurosecretory granules (T/F)?

A

False - this is a feature of neuroendocrine tumours such as carcinoids rather than adenocarcinomas.

182
Q

Adenocarcinomas form glandular acini (T/F)?

A

True

183
Q

Adenocarcinomas contain intracytoplasmic cytokeratin (T/F)?

A

True - these are proteins found in the cytoskeleton of epithelial tissue.

184
Q

Loss of normal maturation is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

A

True

185
Q

Uniformity of cell shape and size is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

A

False

186
Q

Increased mitotic activity is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

A

True

187
Q

Penetration through the basement membrane is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

A

False

188
Q

High nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

A

True

189
Q

Tumours of soft tissue are more often malignant than benign (T/F)?

A

False - both lipomas and leiomyomas are benign tumours of soft tissue.

190
Q

Tumours of soft tissue often arise at sites of injury (T/F)?

A

False - there is no clear relationship between soft tissue injury and tumours.

191
Q

Tumours of soft tissue are classified by the tissue of origin (T/F)?

A

True

192
Q

Tumours of soft tissue present with symptoms specific to their histological type (T/F)?

A

False

193
Q

Tumours of soft tissue if malignant are referred to as sartcomas (T/F)?

A

True

194
Q

Multiple myeloma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

True

195
Q

Neurofibroma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

False

196
Q

Meningioma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

False

197
Q

Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

True

198
Q

Lymphoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

True - lymphomas and leukaemias are always malignant.

199
Q

Invasion is facilitated by alterations in cell adhesion molecules (T/F)?

A

True - e.g. E-cadherin (between malignant cells) and integrin (between maligant cells and stomal proteins).

200
Q

Invasion relies exclusively on amoeboid movement of cells (T/F)?

A

False - also involves:

  1. Altered adhesion
  2. Stromal proteolysis
201
Q

Invasion results from increased cell stromal adhesion (T/F)?

A

False

202
Q

Invasion is facilitated by the secretion of peroxidase (T/F)?

A

False - is helped by the secretion of matrix metalloproteases, like collagenase.

203
Q

Invasion by definition indicates malignant cells present in blood vessels (T/F)?

A

False - could also be in lymph vessels or coelomic space.

204
Q

The brain is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

A

True

205
Q

The liver is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

A

True

206
Q

Skeletal muscle is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

A

False

207
Q

Breasts are a common site of metastases (T/F)?

A

False

208
Q

Bone is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

A

True

209
Q

Basal cell carcinoma metastases widely (T/F)?

A

False - it rarely metastases.

210
Q

Sarcomas frequently metastasise via the lymphatic system (T/F)?

A

False - they usually metastasise through blood. Carcinomas tend to metastasise through the lymphatic system.

211
Q

Bone metastses from breast cancer may present many years after intitial diagnosis (T/F)?

A

True./

212
Q

The ovaries are a recognised site of metastases from gastric cancer (T/F)?

A

Ovarian secondary tumours can arise from breast, GIT, haemopoietic system, uterus or cervical cancers.

213
Q

CNS tumours frequently metastasise to the liver (T/F)?

A

False - brain tumours rarely spread to other organs, they spread to other parts of the brain and CNS.

214
Q

Reduced mitotic activity is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

False - it has increased mitotic activity.

215
Q

Loss of contact inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

True

216
Q

Complex nutritional requirements is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

False

217
Q

Short life span is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

False - cell immortalisation is a feature.

218
Q

Loss of density dependent growth inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

True

219
Q

Small cell carcinoma of the lungs produces ACTH (T/F)?

A

True

220
Q

Renal cell carcinoma of the lungs produces cortisol (T/F)?

A

False - an adrenal gland adenoma or adrenal cell carinoma can though.

221
Q

Ovarian carcinoma can secrete oestrogen (T/F)?

A

False - adrenal carcinoma and testicular stromal cell tumours (Leydig and Sertoli cell) can though.

222
Q

Testicular teratoma can secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (T/F)?

A

True - also secreted by: seminoma, choriocarcinoma, germ cell tumors, hydatidiform mole formation, teratoma with elements of choriocarcinoma, and islet cell tumor.

223
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for which cancers?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, germ cell tumors, and metastatic cancers of the liver.

224
Q

Carcinoid tumour can secrete 5-HT (serotonin) (T/F)?

A

True

ESA2 LKM (45 decks)

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