Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ESA2 LKM > MOD Self-assessment question > Flashcards

MOD Self-assessment question Flashcards

1
Q

Infarcts seen in the spleen are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)

A

False - they are typically pale infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infarcts in the lungs are usually haemorrhagic? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Infarcts in the brain heal by gliosis? (T/F)

A

True - gliosis is the main reparative mechanism of the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Infarcts usually result from ischaemia? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infarcts are a manifestation of apoptosis? (T/F)

A

False - Infarcts represent the deaths of many cells. Apoptosis is the programmed cell death of a single or small collection of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Free-radicals damage cells by cross-linking proteins? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Free radicals damage cells by breaking strands of DNA? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Free radicals damage cells by oxidising membrane lipids? (T/F)

A

True - this is an important mechanism of membrane damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Free radicals damage cells by activating cell surface receptors? (T/F)

A

False - there are no specific cell or cytoplasmic receptors for free radicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Free radicals damage cells by activating cytoplasmic receptors? (T/F)

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Apoptosis is involved in limb modelling in embryogenesis? (T/F)

A

True - selective cell death is an important process in embryogenesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Apoptosis is a frequent result of ischaemic injury? (T/F)

A

False - necrosis not apoptosis follows ischaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Apoptosis is a physiological process? (T/F)

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Apoptosis involves active transcription of genes? (T/F)

A

True - apoptosis is an active process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Apoptosis is seen in the liver in hepatitis? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ATP levels fall? (T/F)

A

True - reduced oxidative phosphorylation leads to a reduction in ATP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, ribosomes are detached form the ER? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, pyknosis occurs? (T/F)

A

False - pyknosis is a feature of irreversible cell injury. Clumped chromatin is seen in reversible oncosis BUT pyknosis is CONDENSED chromatin and is IRREVERSIBLE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, mitochondria swell? (T/F)

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In reversible cell injury due to oxygen deprivation, there is lysosomal disruption (T/F)?

A

False - that is a feature of irreversible cell injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Would myocardium undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Would motor neurones undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Would skeletal muscle undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Would renal tubules undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Would chondrocytes undergo irreversible cell injury within 60 minutes of complete cessation of blood supply (Y/N)?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs have multiple nuclei (T/F)?

A

False - they have single polylobulated nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs are the major cell type of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs fuse to form giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - macroophages fuse to form giant cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs have are phagocytic (T/F)?

A

True - they may phagocytose and kill bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Neutrophil polymorphs generate hydrogen peroxide (T/F)?

A

True - hydrogen peroxide is used by myeloperoxidase enzyme to form HOCL. (hypochlorite) in order to effect bacterial killing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In acute inflammation, there is invariably some tissue destruction around an abscess (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In acute inflammation, incision and drainage is an effective treatment for an abscess?

A

True - this is a traditional surgical approach. Antibiotics are not always effective against abscesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In acute inflammation, neutrophils may use anaerobic respiration (T/F)?

A

True - neutrophils use both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In acute inflammation, histamine causes vascular dilation and increased vascualar permeability?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In acute inflammation, lysozyme causes pyrexia?

A

False - lysozyme is an antibacterial agent found in neutrophil polymorphs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In acute inflammation, hyperaemia is initiated by capillary relaxation (T/F)?

A

True?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In acute inflammation, the rate of blood flow is consistently increased (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In acute inflammation, escape of fluid from vessels follows the migration of cells (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In acute inflammation, emigration of neutrophil polymorphs is a passive process (T/F)?

A

False - emigration is an active (energy-dependent) process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In acute inflammation, neutrophils may be recruited by bacterial products (T/F)?

A

True - bacterial breakdown products may act as chemotactic agents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Macrophages are derived from bone marrow precursors (T/F)?

A

True - all inflammatory cells are derived from bone marrow precursors. In the case of macrophages the immediate precursor is the monocyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Macrophages can produce interleukin-1 (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Macrophages can phagocytose bacteria but not cell debris (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Macrophages can also be called monocytes and histiocytes (T/F)?

A

True - monocytes (when in blood), histiocytes (when in tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Macrophages produce antibodies (T/F)?

A

False - they are produced mainly by plasma cells (a type of B lymphocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include fever (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include lymphocytosis (T/F)?

A

False - leucocytosis not lymphocytosis develops. Lymphocytosis is an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood. This is a feature of infection not acute inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced C-reactive protein levels (T/F)?

A

False - CRP levels increase in acute phase response to acute inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include tachycardia (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Systemic effects of acute inflammation include reduced plasma viscosity (T/F)?

A

False - plasma viscosity increases in the acute phase response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Granulomatous inflammation is a feature of Crohn’s disease (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Granulomatous inflammation refers to a collection of multi-nucleate giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - a granuloma is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes (macrophages). It may contain giant cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Granulomatous inflammation represents a cell mediated immune response (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Granulomatous inflammation is seen in response to Beryllium (T/F)?

A

True - this may enter the body via the respiratory tract in those who work with beryllium or via the skin, for example, when an injury is sustained by a strip light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Granulomatous inflammation follows acute inflammation in most cases (T/F)?

A

False - it may occur in chronic inflammation caused by ‘tough’ bacteria or poorly soluble / difficult to remove foreign bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Chronic inflammation is a balance between progressive tissue damage and repair (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Chronic inflammation rarely follows acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False - this is the most cause of chronic inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Chronic inflammation is a typical feature of auto-immune reactions (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Chronic inflammation inevitably involves the formation of granulomas (T/F)?

A

False - granulomatous inflammation is a subtype of chronic inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Chronic inflammation is not associated with an immune response (T/F)?

A

False - chronic inflammation is frequently associated with an immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In Chronic inflammation T lymphocytes are phagocytic (T/F)?

A

False - macrophages and neutrophils are phagocytic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In Chronic inflammation antibodies are produced by macrophages (T/F)?

A

False - produced by plasma cells (differentiated B lymphocytes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In chronic inflammation complete resolution is a common outcome (T/F)?

A

False - complete resolution is not possible if there has been tissue destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In chronic inflammation healing does not occur until the inflammation has fully resolved (T/F)?

A

False - healing takes place at the same time as tissue destruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Om chronic inflammation blood monocytes respond to gamma-interferon to become tissue macrophages (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of caseation (T/F)?

A

True - the granulomas of tuberculosis typically show caseous necrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of large numbers of eosinophils (T/F)?

A

False - eosiniphils are typical of parasitic and allergic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the demonstration of acid and alcohol fast bacilli (T/F)?

A

True - these are typical staining characteristics of M. tuberculosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The diagnosis of tuberculosis is assisted by the presence of Touton giant cells (T/F)?

A

False - the typical giant cell type seen is Langhan’s. Touton giant cells are seen in fat necrosis and xanthomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by tissue destruction (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by supparation (pus-forming) (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by infiltration with neutrophils (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by fibrosis (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Chronic inflammation is characterised by increased tissue concentration of lymphocytes (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Healing by fibrosis is rarely beneficial to the patient (T/F)?

A

False - fibrosis produces a resilient scar. However scar tissue may contract leading to deformation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Healing by fibrosis in an inevitable consequence of acute inflammation (T/F)?

A

False - acute inflammation resolves without fibrosis because there’s no tissue damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Healing by fibrosis is inhibited by large doses of vitamin C (T/F)?

A

False - vitamin C is required for collagen synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Healing by fibrosis is minimised by proper suturing of a wound (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Healing by fibrosis is impaired by coexistent diabetes mellitus (T/F)?

A

True - due to micorangiopathy and decreased resistance to infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

In wound healing macrophages play a crucial role (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

In wound healing epidermal growth factor promotes new blood vessel formation (T/F)?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In wound healing the myofibroblast is important in primary union (T/F)?

A

False - it is important for wound contraction in secondary intention wound healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

In wound healing overgrowth of epidermis leads to keloid formation (T/F)?

A

False - a keloid is a mass of fibrous connective tissue (excess collagen produced).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In wound healing radiation promotes more effective repair (T/F)?

A

False - it inhibits wound healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by fixation (T/F)?

A

False - fixation promotes healing by preventing movement of bone ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by infection (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by poor alignment (T/F)?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by reduction (T/F)?

A

False - reduction is the realignment of a body part to its normal position. This promotes good alignment of bone ends.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Fracture healing may be impaired by corticosteroid therapy (T/F)?

A

True - steroids inhibit collagen synthesis.

91
Q

Granulation tissue contains myofibroblasts (T/F)?

A

True - as well as fibroblasts and endothelial cells.

92
Q

Granulation tissue does not contain blood vessels (T/F)?

A

False - new capillaries are present.

93
Q

Granulation tissue is more important in healing by primary intention than secondary intention (T/F)?

A

False - in secondary intention more tissue is lost and therefore more granulation tissue is needed to replace it.

94
Q

Granulation tissue plays no part in fracture healing (T/F)?

A

False - granulation tissue forms after the formation of a haematoma and allows the synthesis of fibrous tissue and cartilage -> soft calus.

95
Q

Granulation tissue is responsible for ‘proud flesh’ seen in healing wounds (T/F)?

A

True - exuberant granulation tissue may project beyond the level of the epithelium.

96
Q

Collagen is secreted as a soluble protein which is modified outside the cell (T/F)?

97
Q

Collagen assembles into a double helix (T/F)?

A

False - it assembles into a linear triple helix conformation.

98
Q

Collagen requires Vitamin A for cross-linking (T/F)?

A

False - vitamin C is required for cross-linking between alpha-chains in the triple helix because it is a cofactor for enzymes that hydroxylate proline and lysing residues on these chains which enables them to hydrogen bond to each other.

99
Q

Collagen is rich in hydroxyproline (T/F)?

100
Q

Collagen type III is gradually replaced by collagen type I in the remodelling of fibrous tissue (T/F)?

A

True - type III is the collagen of fibrous tissue and is produced quickly by young fibroblasts before the tougher type I tissue is synthesised.

101
Q

Immobility predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

102
Q

Protein C deficiency predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - protein C is activated by binding to thrombin (promoted by thrombomodulin and endothelial protein C receptors) and proteolytic cleaves some clotting factors causing their inactivation. It is therefore an anti-coagulant.

103
Q

Aspirin treatment predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - aspiring has an anti-thrombotic effect and is used to reduced the risk of thrombosis. It has an anti-platelet effect, stopping them from binding together into a thrombus.

104
Q

Low platelet count predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - a low platelet count reduces the risk of thrombosis.

105
Q

Anaemia predisposes to the development of venous thrombosis (T/F)?

106
Q

Pulmonary embolism occurs during surgery in most cases (T/F)?

A

False - it typically occurs several hours after surgery.

107
Q

Pulmonary embolism is a consequence of thrombus within the left ventricle (T/F)?

A

False - thrombus within the left ventricle will embolise through the systemic circulation.

108
Q

Pulmonary embolism produces characteristic ECG changes (T/F)?

A

True - these changes are seen in any condition which causes acute pulmonary hypertension.

109
Q

Pulmonary embolism can be identified by chest x-ray in most cases (T/F)?

110
Q

Left ventricular thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

111
Q

Fat thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

112
Q

Deep vein thrombosis is likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

113
Q

Thrombus overlying atheroma are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

False - atheroma is a disease of arteries.

114
Q

Air thrombi are likely to embolise via the venous system (T/F)?

A

False - air enters the venous system but then passes through interatrial of interventricular defects in the heart to the arterial system.

115
Q

Warfarin treatment is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

116
Q

Endotoxic shock is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

True - endotoxins lead to widespread activation of the coagulation system.

117
Q

Amniotic fluid embolus is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

A

True - amniotic fluid may enter the circulation at time of delivery.

118
Q

Meningococcal septicaemia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

119
Q

Lobar pneumonia is a recognised cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (T/F)?

120
Q

Aspirin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - aspirin is used as prophylaxis for arterial thrombosis e.g. due to a risk of coronary thrombosis.

121
Q

Warfarin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - warfarin is used in treatment for DVT, not prophylaxis.

122
Q

Leg compression is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - intermittent leg compression is used during surgery to reduce the risk of DVT.

123
Q

Streptokinase is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

False - streptokinase is used to break down arterial thrombosis, especially coronary thrombosis.

124
Q

Heparin is used in prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis (T/F)?

A

True - subcutaneous heparin is the main prophylaxis for DVT.

125
Q

Diabetes is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

126
Q

Hypertension is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

127
Q

Hyperthyroidism is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

128
Q

Low alcohol intake is a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

False - there is some evidence that small amounts of alcohol may have a protective effect.

129
Q

High HDL levels are a predisposing factor to atherosclerosis formation (T/F)?

A

False - high levels of LDL predispose to atherosclerosis.

130
Q

Cholesterol clefts are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

131
Q

Haemorrhage into the plaque are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.

132
Q

Thrombosis is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of complicated atheromatous plaques.

133
Q

Smooth muscle cell proliferation is a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

134
Q

Foamy macrophages are a feature of uncomplicated atheromatous plaques (T/F)?

A

True - intracellular lipid, along with extracellular lipid, is a feature of atheroma both simple and complicated.

135
Q

Pulmonary hypertension is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

136
Q

Aortic dissection is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

False - atherosclerosis alone does not normally cause aortic dissection. In most cases hypertension is also present.

137
Q

Cerebral embolism is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

True - embolism to the cerebral arteries may occur from thrombosis over atheromatous plaques in the carotid arteries.

138
Q

Coronary thrombosis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

139
Q

Infective endocarditis is a direct complication of atherosclerosis (T/F)?

A

False - infective endocarditis is a disease (usually bacterial) of heart valves. It has no relationship to atherosclerosis.

140
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in females than males (T/F)?

141
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms result from an excess of elastic tissue within the aortic wall (T/F)?

A

False - the amount of elastic tissue is reduced in advanced aterhosclerosis.

142
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are commoner in the thorax than in the abdomen (T/F)?

143
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms have a high risk of spontaneous rupture if greater than 6cm (T/F)?

A

True - at this size the risk of death is greater than that of elective surgery.

144
Q

Atheromatous aortic aneurysms are not amenable to surgical repair (T/F)?

A

False - many aneurysms are successfully repaired - usually by insertion of a prosthetic (artificial) graft).

145
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by expression of von Willebrand factor (T/F)?

A

False - von Willebrand factor is involved in haemostasis. It is not produced by endothelium, but from the alpha-granules of platelets and subendothelial tissue (?)

146
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by thrombomodulin production (T/F)?

A

True - thrombomodulin binds to any locally formed thrombin and this complex initiates the anti-coagulant effects of protein C and S.

147
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by prothrombin production (T/F)?

148
Q

The normal endothelium prevents thrombosis by the expression of heparin-like molecules (T/F)?

A

True - these molecules inhibit elements of the normal coagulation cascade. They bind to antithrombin leading to accelerated complex formation between antithrombin and clotting cascade factors. Antithrombin is a protease inhibitor and inactivates these clotting factors.

149
Q

Decreased workload may cause atrophy (T/F)?

150
Q

Loss of innervation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

151
Q

Diminished blood supply may cause atrophy (T/F)?

152
Q

Acute inflammation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

False - chronic inflammation can cause atrophy.

153
Q

Endocrine stimulation may cause atrophy (T/F)?

A

False - atrophy can be caused by loss of endocrine stimulation e.g. uterus.

154
Q

Squamous metaplasia of ductal epithelium of prostate is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

155
Q

Squamous metaplasia of endocervical epithelium is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

156
Q

Intestinal metaplasia of gastric mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

157
Q

Columnar metaplasia of rectal mucosa is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

False - the rectal mucosa has columnar epithelium above the pectinate line and stratified squamous epithelium below the pectinate line. The pectinate line is the hindgut-proctodeum junction and divides the anus into a superior 2/3 derived from the hindgut and an inferior 1/3 derived from the proctodeum. Therefore squamous metaplasia of the rectal mucosa can be seen.

158
Q

Columnar metaplasia of bronchus is an example of metaplasia (T/F)?

A

False - squamous metaplasia of the bronchus can be seen as a result of smoking. The bronchus epithelium is normally pseudostratified columnar epithelium. As you travel down the bronchioles towards the alveoli this transitions to simple cuboidal epithelium and then simple squamous.

159
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the breast during pregnancy (T/F)?

A

False - there is no smooth muscle in the breast.

160
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the muscles of a body builder (T/F)?

A

False - hypertrophy of skeletal muscle occurs!

161
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the left ventricle in systemic hypertrophy (T/F)?

A

False - hypertrophy of cardiac muscle occurs.

162
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the bladder in cases of prostatic enlargement (T/F)?

163
Q

Hypertrophy of smooth muscle occurs in the colon in diverticular disease (T/F)?

A

True - acute diverticulitits can cause obstruction.

164
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Cushing’s syndrome (T/F)?

A

False - adrenal gland hyperplasia can occur.

165
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland occurs in Grave’s disease (T/F)?

A

True - due to continuous stimulation of TSH receptors in the thyroid by antibodies.

166
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland is caused by increased levels of prolactin (T/F)?

167
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland may occur in iodine deficiency (T/F)?

168
Q

Hyperplasia of the thyroid gland leads to myxodema (T/F)?

A

False - synonymous with hypothyroidism. Hyperplasia of the thyroid however may cause thyrotoxicosis (hyperthyroidism).

169
Q

In the cell cycle DNA is synthesised during G1 (T/F)?

A

False - during the S (syntheisis) phase.

170
Q

In the cell cycle permanent cells enter G0 and stay there (T/F)?

171
Q

In the cell cycle cyclins co-ordinate the passage of cells through the cell cycle (T/F)?

172
Q

In the cell cycle labile tissues are continuously proliferating (T/F)?

173
Q

In the cell cycle the M phase is the period during whihc mitosis occurs (T/F)?

174
Q

Abnormal mitotic figures are typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - these are a feature of malignant tumours.

175
Q

Diploid DNA is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

176
Q

Maintaining structural differentiation is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

177
Q

Diffuse invasion through surrounding tissues is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - it is a feature of malignant tumours.

178
Q

Giving rise to metastases is a typical characteristics of benign neoplasms (T/F)?

A

False - this could be regarded as the ultimate proof of malignancy.

179
Q

Adenocarcinomas may produce mucin (T/F)?

180
Q

Adenocarcinomas can occur in a thyroid gland (T/F)?

181
Q

Adenocarcinomas contain neurosecretory granules (T/F)?

A

False - this is a feature of neuroendocrine tumours such as carcinoids rather than adenocarcinomas.

182
Q

Adenocarcinomas form glandular acini (T/F)?

183
Q

Adenocarcinomas contain intracytoplasmic cytokeratin (T/F)?

A

True - these are proteins found in the cytoskeleton of epithelial tissue.

184
Q

Loss of normal maturation is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

185
Q

Uniformity of cell shape and size is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

186
Q

Increased mitotic activity is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

187
Q

Penetration through the basement membrane is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

188
Q

High nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is a feature of dysphasia (T/F)?

189
Q

Tumours of soft tissue are more often malignant than benign (T/F)?

A

False - both lipomas and leiomyomas are benign tumours of soft tissue.

190
Q

Tumours of soft tissue often arise at sites of injury (T/F)?

A

False - there is no clear relationship between soft tissue injury and tumours.

191
Q

Tumours of soft tissue are classified by the tissue of origin (T/F)?

192
Q

Tumours of soft tissue present with symptoms specific to their histological type (T/F)?

193
Q

Tumours of soft tissue if malignant are referred to as sartcomas (T/F)?

194
Q

Multiple myeloma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

195
Q

Neurofibroma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

196
Q

Meningioma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

197
Q

Osteosarcoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

198
Q

Lymphoma is a malignant tumour (T/F)?

A

True - lymphomas and leukaemias are always malignant.

199
Q

Invasion is facilitated by alterations in cell adhesion molecules (T/F)?

A

True - e.g. E-cadherin (between malignant cells) and integrin (between maligant cells and stomal proteins).

200
Q

Invasion relies exclusively on amoeboid movement of cells (T/F)?

A

False - also involves:

  1. Altered adhesion
  2. Stromal proteolysis
201
Q

Invasion results from increased cell stromal adhesion (T/F)?

202
Q

Invasion is facilitated by the secretion of peroxidase (T/F)?

A

False - is helped by the secretion of matrix metalloproteases, like collagenase.

203
Q

Invasion by definition indicates malignant cells present in blood vessels (T/F)?

A

False - could also be in lymph vessels or coelomic space.

204
Q

The brain is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

205
Q

The liver is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

206
Q

Skeletal muscle is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

207
Q

Breasts are a common site of metastases (T/F)?

208
Q

Bone is a common site of metastases (T/F)?

209
Q

Basal cell carcinoma metastases widely (T/F)?

A

False - it rarely metastases.

210
Q

Sarcomas frequently metastasise via the lymphatic system (T/F)?

A

False - they usually metastasise through blood. Carcinomas tend to metastasise through the lymphatic system.

211
Q

Bone metastses from breast cancer may present many years after intitial diagnosis (T/F)?

212
Q

The ovaries are a recognised site of metastases from gastric cancer (T/F)?

A

Ovarian secondary tumours can arise from breast, GIT, haemopoietic system, uterus or cervical cancers.

213
Q

CNS tumours frequently metastasise to the liver (T/F)?

A

False - brain tumours rarely spread to other organs, they spread to other parts of the brain and CNS.

214
Q

Reduced mitotic activity is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

False - it has increased mitotic activity.

215
Q

Loss of contact inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

216
Q

Complex nutritional requirements is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

217
Q

Short life span is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

A

False - cell immortalisation is a feature.

218
Q

Loss of density dependent growth inhibition is a feature of the transformed phenotype (T/F)?

219
Q

Small cell carcinoma of the lungs produces ACTH (T/F)?

220
Q

Renal cell carcinoma of the lungs produces cortisol (T/F)?

A

False - an adrenal gland adenoma or adrenal cell carinoma can though.

221
Q

Ovarian carcinoma can secrete oestrogen (T/F)?

A

False - adrenal carcinoma and testicular stromal cell tumours (Leydig and Sertoli cell) can though.

222
Q

Testicular teratoma can secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (T/F)?

A

True - also secreted by: seminoma, choriocarcinoma, germ cell tumors, hydatidiform mole formation, teratoma with elements of choriocarcinoma, and islet cell tumor.

223
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein is a tumour marker for which cancers?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma, germ cell tumors, and metastatic cancers of the liver.

224
Q

Carcinoid tumour can secrete 5-HT (serotonin) (T/F)?

ESA2 LKM (45 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions