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Year 2 EMS > MoD lectures 17-22 Cancer > Flashcards

MoD lectures 17-22 Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

define involution

A

the physiological atrophy by apoptosis/ the shrinking of an organ in old age or when inactive

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2
Q

define apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

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3
Q

define hypoplasia

A

under or incomplete development of a tissue or organ

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4
Q

define agenesis

A

failure of an organ to develop during embryonic growth

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5
Q

define dysplasia

A

the enlargement of an organ or tissue by the proliferation of cells of an abnormal type

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6
Q

define hypertrophy

A

increase in size of cells

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7
Q

define hyperplasia

A

increase in number of cells

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8
Q

define gynaecomastia

A

enlargement of the male breast due to hyperplasia of the glandular and stromal tissue

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9
Q

define atrophy

A

reduction in the size of organ or tissue by decrease in cell size and number

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10
Q

define metaplasia

A

transformation of one differentiated cell type into another

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11
Q

define neoplasia

A

the presence or formation of new, abnormal growth of tissue

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12
Q

What is adaptations?

A

reversible changes in cellular size, number, phenotype, metabolic activity or function due to changes in environment or demand

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13
Q

How does uncontrolled hyperplasia occur in Graves’ disease?

A

an autoantibody binds to and switches on the TSH receptor in the thyroid, leading to prolonged, uncontrolled hyperplasia of the thyroid and hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)

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14
Q

define aplasia

A

failure of differentiation to organ-specific tissues

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15
Q

define dysgenesis

A

failure of structural organization of tissues into organ

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16
Q

What is another name for severe dysplasia?

A

carcinoma in situ

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17
Q

What is the difference between malignant and benign tumours in:

a) differentiation
b) rate of growth
c) local invasion
d) metastasis

A

a) benign is well-defferentiated and malignant is variable
b) both are variable but benign is slow and malignant rapid
c) benign no and malignant yes
d) benign no and malignant yes

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18
Q

define cancer

A

the uncontrolled growth of cells, which can invade and spread to distant sites of the body

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19
Q

define neoplasm

A

lesion resulting from the autonomous growth or relatively autonomous abnormal growth of cells that persists in the absence of the initiating stimulus , interchangeable with tumour

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20
Q

define histiogenesis

A

the differentiation of cells into specialized tissues and organs during growth from undifferentiated cells (the 3 primary germ layers)

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21
Q

define anaplasia

A

neoplasms compromised poorly-differentiated cells are described as anaplastic, do not resemble tissue of origin

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22
Q

What are the 4 types of differentiation?

A
  1. well differentiated- closely resembles tissue of origin
  2. moderately differentiated- somewhere inbetween
  3. poorly differentiated- littel resembalance to tissue of origin
  4. undifferentiated/anaplastic: cannot be identified by morphology alone
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23
Q

What are the corresponding grades to the levels of differentiation?

A

well: low grade/ grade 1
moderately: intermediate/ grade 2
poorly: high grade/ grade 3

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24
Q

What types of tumours express foetal proteins not seen in adults?

A

germ cell and liver tumours

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25
Q

What are the 3 pathways of metastasis?

A

direct seeding
lymphatic spread
heamatogenous spread

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26
Q

Which nodes do breast carcinomas most commonly go to?

A

first to axillary nodes the infraclavicular and supraclavicular nodes

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27
Q

What are sentinel nodes and how are they identified?

A

the first node in a regional lymphatic basic (axillary in breast) that receives lymph flow from the primary tumour
identified by injection of radiolabelled tracers/coloured dyes`

28
Q

define stroma

A

connective tissue framework that neoplastic cells are embedded in. It provides mechanical support, intracellular signalling and nutrition for the tumour

29
Q

What is a desmoplastic reaction?

A

fibrous stroma formation due to induction of connective tissue fibroblast proliferation by growth factors from the tumour cells

30
Q

What does stroma contain?

A
  • cancer-associated fibroblasts
  • myofibroblats
  • blood vessels
  • lymphocytic infiltrate
31
Q

What are local clinical complication of tumours due to?

A

compression and destruction (in malignancy)

32
Q

What are non-specific metabolic clinical complication of tumours?

A 
cachexia (interference with protein metabolism)
warburg effect
neuropathies
myopathies
venous thrombosis
33
Q

What is the warburg effect?

A

energy produced by high rate of glycolysis with fermentation of lactic acid

34
Q

What imaging is the warburg effect important for?

A

PET scans

35
Q

What are para-neoplastic syndromes?

A

a syndrome that is the consequence of cancer in the body but that, unlike mass effect, is not due to the local presence of cancer cells
it is an example of tumour-type specific metabolic clinical complications of tumours

36
Q

What is a benign tumour of surface epithelium called?

A

papilloma

37
Q

What is a benign tumour of glandular epithelium called?

A

adenoma

38
Q

What are malignant epithelial tumours called?

A

carcinoma

39
Q

What are malignant epithelial tumours from glandular/ductal epithelium called?

A

adenocarcinoma

40
Q

What is the suffix for all benign mesenchymal tumours?

A

oma

41
Q

What are malignant mesenchymal tumours called?

A

sarcoma

42
Q

What is the name for a benign tumour of melanocytes?

A

melanocytic neus

43
Q

What is the name for a malignant tumour of melanocytes?

A

melanoma

44
Q

What are some malignant tumours of blood cells?

A

leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma

45
Q

What do CNS tumours end in?

A

-oma

46
Q

What are seminomatous tumours called?

A

seminoma

47
Q

What are non-seminomatous germ cell tumours called?

A

teratoma

48
Q

What are embryonal tumours called?

A

blastoma

49
Q

What is the difference between a hamartoma and a choristoma?

A

hamartoma: non-neoplastic overgrowth of tissue
choristoma: nodules of organ tissue in anothes organ

50
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

any agent that significantly increases the risk of developing cancer

51
Q

What is an initiator?

A

genotoxic carcinogens that can chemically modify or damage DNA

52
Q

What is a promoter?

A

a non-genotoxic carcinogen that induces proliferation of cells and DNA replication

53
Q

How many mutations are required to transform a normal cell into a malignant one?

A

2-8 driver mutations

54
Q

Where is the philedelphia chromosome and what condition is it associated with?

A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

chr9:22

55
Q

What do methylated CpG islands do?

A

switch off genes that are not required, the closed chomatin closes up the gene and stops it from being expressed

56
Q

What can affect the tumour suppression gene causing cancer?

A

if the mechanisms controlling the methylation of the genome malfunction and causing random CpG islands to methylate switching off TSG’s

57
Q

What do mutations in oncogenes cause?

A

gain of function

58
Q

What do mutation in TSGs cause?

A

loss of function

59
Q

What are procarcinogens?

A

carcinogens that are not mutagenic when they enter the cells but are toxic and require activation by enzymes

60
Q

What is an example of a procarciogen and where is it found?

A

benzopyrene
meat, tobacco and fuel
it caused a GC –> TA transversion

61
Q

How does oestrogen play a role in breast cancer?

A

it stimulates proliferation by biding to transcription factors
it can also be converted into something which can damage DNA

62
Q

What are caretaker genes?

A

TSGs that maintain genetic stability by repairing damaged DNA and replication errors

63
Q

What do gatekeeper TSGs do?

A

have an important role in regulating normal growth:
negative regulators of the cell cycle and proliferation
positive regulators of apoptosis
positive regulators of cell differentiation

64
Q

What do caretaker TSGs do?

A

maintain genetic stability

DNA repair geens and controlling accuracy of mitosis

65
Q

What is aneuploidy?

A

an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell

Year 2 EMS (5 decks)

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