Mock Test Science 2 Flashcards
1
Q
- One day, our Sun burst open, and planets and moons shot a high speed and went to their respective places, then stopped, and started orbiting the Sun, as the moons began orbiting the planets.
A. Fission theory
B. Nebular hypothesis theory
C. Collision theory
D. Accretion theory
A
B. Nebular hypothesis theory
2
Q
- This planet has axis of rotation that is parallel to its orbit, or the sideways planet.
A. Jupiter
B. Neptune
C. Uranus
D. Saturn
A
C. Uranus
3
Q
- Which of the following is NOT true about the solar system?
A. The orbits of all the planets are almost in the same plane.
B. The orbits of the planets are nearly in the same plane as the rotation of the Sun.
C. All planets rotate in the same direction as they revolve around the sun.
D. The satellites and planets contain almost all the rotational motion of the solar system.
A
D. The satellites and planets contain almost all the rotational motion of the solar system.
4
Q
- This occurs when Earth comes directly between the Sun and Moon (Full Moon), so that Earth’s shadow falls on the Moon.
A. Solar eclipse
B. High tide
C. Lunar eclipse
D. Low tide
A
C. Lunar eclipse
5
Q
- He concluded that Earth is a planet and proposed a model of the solar system with the Sun at the center.
A. Hippocrates
B. Galileo
C. Copernicus
D. Hipparchus
A
C. Copernicus
6
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of planets?
A. Orbits a star.
B. Have enough gravity for it to be spherical in shape.
C. Its gravity cleared away any other objects of similar size near its orbit around the Sun.
D. It should have an atmosphere.
A
D. It should have an atmosphere.
7
Q
- This refers to the process the Sun Undergoes as its magnetic field reverses.
A. Solar flares
B. Solar prominence
C. Solar cycles
D. Solar wind
A
C. Solar cycles
8
Q
- A clean nickel surface is exposed to light of wavelength 235 nm. What is the maximum speed of the photoelectric emitted from this surface?
A. 248 kmph
B. 250 kmph
C. 249 kmph
D. 251 kmph
A
D. 251 kmph
9
Q
- An x ray with a wavelength of 0.100 nm collides with an electron that is initially at rest. The x ray’s final wavelength is 0.110 nm. What is the final kinetic energy of the electron?
A. 1.14 keV
B. 3.16 keV
C. 2.15 keV
D. 4.17 keV
A
B. 3.16 keV
10
Q
- Starship “Alpha” is traveling at 0.8c (v = 5/3) with respect to the identical starship “Beta.” Each starship has rest length 10,000 m. The ship’s engineer aboard the “Beta” measures the length of the “Alpha” as it passes by his window. What result should he get?
A. 6000 m
B. 10000 m
C. 8000m
D. 12000 m
A
A. 6000 m
11
Q
- An astronaut goes on a long space voyage at near the speed of light. When she returns home, how will her age compare to the age of her twin who stayed on Earth?
A. Both will be the same age.
B. This is a paradox and hence the ages cannot be compared.
C. The age of the twin who traveled will be less than the age of her twin.
D. The age of the twin who traveled will be greater than the age of her twin
A
C. The age of the twin who traveled will be less than the age of her twin.
12
Q
- Halley’s Comet comes near Earth every 75 years as it travels around its 22 billion km orbit at a speed of up to 700, 000 m/s. If it were possible to put a clock on the comet and read it each time the comet passed, which part of special relativity theory could be tested? What would be the expected result? Explain.
A. It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly slower.
B. It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly faster.
C. It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit would appear to be shortened from Earth’s frame of reference.
D. It would test length contraction. The length of the orbit would appear to be shortened from the comet’s frame of reference.
A
A. It would test time dilation. The clock would appear to be slightly slower.
13
Q
- Observations made in an accelerated reference frame are indistinguishable from observations in a Newtonian gravitational field.
A. invariance of physical laws
B. relativity of observations
C. principle of equivalence
D. gravitational reflexivity
A
C. principle of equivalence
14
Q
- A 65 Ω resistor is connected to the terminals of a battery whose emf is 12.0 V and whose internal resistance is 65 ΩQ. Calculate the current in the circuit.
A. 0.183 A
B. 0.383 A
C. 0.283 A
D. 0.483 A
A
A. 0.183 A
15
Q
- Two-point charges Q_3 = 25 nC and Q_2 = -75 nC, and are separated by a distance r = 3.00 cm. Find the magnitude of the electric force between them. The permittivity of free space is 8.85E-12 C^2/〖Nm〗^2.
A. 0.016 N
B. 0.018 N
C. 0.017 N
D. 0.019 N
A
C. 0.017 N
16
Q
- This is the basis of transformers, where the magnetic field generated by a coil of wire induces voltage in an adjacent coil of wire.
A. iron core
B. turns ratio
C. DC voltage
D. mutual induction
A
D. mutual induction
17
Q
- Water is slightly repelled by a magnetic field and do not retain the magnetic properties when the external field is removed. What kind of material is water?
A. Diamagnetic
B. Paramagnetic
C. Ferromagnetic
D. Repellomagnetic
A
A. Diamagnetic
18
Q
- Toward which magnetic pole of Earth is the north pole of a compass needle attracted?
A. The north pole of a compass needle is attracted to the north magnetic pole of Earth, which is located near the geographic North Pole of Earth.
B. The north pole of a compass needle is attracted to the south magnetic pole of Earth, which is located near the geographic North Pole of Earth.
C. The north pole of a compass needle is attracted to the north magnetic pole of Earth, which is located near the geographic South Pole of Earth.
D. The north pole of a compass needle is attracted to the south magnetic pole of Earth, which is located near the geographic South Pole of Earth.
A
B. The north pole of a compass needle is attracted to the south magnetic pole of Earth, which is located near the geographic North Pole of Earth.
19
Q
- Which of the following methods Describe how to demagnetize a ferromagnet?
A. by cooling, heating, or submerging in water
B. by hammering, heating, and rubbing with cloth
C. by cooling, submerging in water, or rubbing with cloth
D. by heating, hammering, and spinning it in external magnetic field
A
D. by heating, hammering, and spinning it in external magnetic field
20
Q
- What electrical device has main function of storing electrostatic energy in an electric field?
A. Alternator
B. Inductor
C. Capacitor
D. Resistor
A
C. Capacitor
21
Q
- Which is NOT true about non-renewable resources?
A. They are finite or non-sustainable.
B. Their exploitation and use will eventually lead to their exhaust.
C. They cannot be stored for future use.
D. These resources take millions of years to form.
A
C. They cannot be stored for future use.
22
Q
- It refers to the extreme warming of the central and eastern Pacific.
A. El Niño
B. La Niña
C. Tropical Storm
D. Winter
A
A. El Niño
23
Q
123 What is the economic term to the exhaustion of raw materials within a region?
A. Shutdown
B. Famine
C. Resource depletion
D. Species are endangered
A
C. Resource depletion
24
Q
- Which of the following is least likely to be an effect of global warming?
A. Increased frequency of hurricanes
B. Loss of fertile delta regions for agriculture
C. Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
D. Change in global patterns of precipitation
A
C. Decreased rate of photosynthesis in vegetation
25
Q
- It is the “mark” that you leave in the environment each time you use fossil fuel.
A. Carbon footprint
B. Carbon dating
C. Radio active dating
D. all of these
A
A. Carbon footprint
26
Q
- Reasons that the population of an exotic species often increases rapidly when introduced to a new environment, is due which of the following:
I. The exotic species is resistant to pesticides.
II. There is usually a large, underused food source in the new environment.
III. The exotic species has few natural predators in the new environment.
A. I only
B. I only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only
A
D. II and III only
27
Q
- The presence of which contaminants would be the strongest indicator that municipal sewage sludge is unfit for use as fertilizer?
A. Human feces
B. Ammonia
C. Phosphates
D. Heavy metals
A
D. Heavy metals
28
Q
- The number of individuals the environment can support over a long period of time and density affects the population size.
A. Carrying capacity
B. Carrying ability
C. Carrying density
D. all of these
A
A. Carrying capacity
29
Q
- Which of the following greenhouse gasses has the greatest heat-trapping ability per molecule?
A. Chlorofluorocarbon
B. Methane
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrous oxide
A
A. Chlorofluorocarbon
30
Q
- A group of individuals of the same species that live at the same time is a
A. Organism
B. Population
C. Biotic
D. Habitat
A
B. Population
31
Q
- The process where species acquire traits that allow them to survive in their environment.
A. Adaptation
B. Evolution
C. Competition
D. Mutation
A
A. Adaptation
32
Q
- One of the following is the best contribution of winds to the ecosystem of plants
A. Winds play an important role in pollination and seed dispersal
B. Wind erosion can remove and redistribute topsoil
C. Winds carry water vapor which may condense and fall in the form of rain
D. All of the above
A
A. Winds play an important role in pollination and seed dispersal
33
Q
- Mushrooms are classified as:
A. decomposers
B. detritivores
C. omnivores
D. carnivores
A
A. decomposers
34
Q
- This ecological pyramid shows the abundance of organisms at each trophic level
A. Productivity pyramid
B. Biomass pyramid
C. base pairings
D. turning pattern of the helix
A
B. Biomass pyramid
35
Q
- The genetic information in a DNA is coded in the
A. sequence of nucleotides
B. proportion of each base present
C. energy pyramid
D. all of these
A
A. sequence of nucleotides
36
Q
- What compound consists the exoskeleton of Arthropods?
A. CaO
B. Ca(OH)3
C. CaCO3
D. CaPO3
A
C. CaCO3
37
Q
- Which among the following representative species of mollusk does NOT posses a shell?
A. Clam
B. Snail
C. Nautilus
D. Squid
A
D. Squid
38
Q
- Based on plant evolution, which came first?
A. Conifer
B. Ginkgo
C. Fern
D. Mango
A
C. Fern
39
Q
- An unidentified plant has flowers with seven petals, how do you describe it?
A. Dicot
B. Monocot
C. Cone-bearing
D. Spore-bearing
A
B. Monocot
40
Q
- The following statements are correct about dicot plants EXCEPT
A. They have two cotyledons
B. They possess a fibrous root system
C. They have even number of petals
D. They have scattered venation patterns
A
B. They possess a fibrous root system
41
Q
- What vascular tissue in plants carries water all throughout the plant?
A. Phloem
B. Stem
C. Root
D. Xylem
A
D. Xylem
42
Q
- What do you call the female reproductive part of a flower?
A. Anther
B. Pistil
C. Ovary
D. Stamen
A
B. Pistil
43
Q
- Plants were allowed to evolve taller because,
A. They have a tap root system
B. They grew woody stems
C. They grew vascular tissues
D. They photosynthesize
A
C. They grew vascular tissues
44
Q
- What protects leaves from desiccation?
A. Cuticle
B. Stomata
C. Hair
D. Wax
A
A. Cuticle
45
Q
- The testing of hypothesis/es is normally set in what level of significance for the social sciences?
A. 0.01
B. 0.10
C. 0.05
D. 0.50
A
C. 0.05
46
Q
- Which of the following is NOT True about Quantitative Research?
A. It is expressed in numbers and graphs.
B. It is used to test or confirm theories and assumptions.
C. It can be used to establish generalizable facts about a topic.
D. Its common methods include interviews with open-ended questions, observations described
in words, etc.
A
D. Its common methods include interviews with open-ended questions, observations described
in words, etc.
47
Q
- The following are the disadvantages of the Qualitative research EXCEPT…
A. Objectivity
B. Labor-intensive
C. Unreliability
D. Limited generalizability
A
A. Objectivity
48
Q
- Which approach is used to identify and interpret patterns and themes in qualitative data?
A. Content Analysis
B. Thematic Analysis
C. Textual Analysis
D. Discourse Analysis
A
B. Thematic Analysis
49
Q
- Common approaches include grounded theory, ethnography, action research, phenomenological research, and narrative research. They share some similarities but emphasize different aims aims and perspectives.
A. Quantitative Research
B. Mixed Methods
C. Qualitative Research
D. All of these
A
C. Qualitative Research
50
Q
- The researchers examine how stories are told to understand how participants perceive and sense of their experiences.
A. Ethnography
B. Narrative Research
C. Grounded Theory
D. Phenomenological Research
A
B. Narrative Research
51
Q
- Which of the following statements is TRUE about quantitative research?
A. It requires few respondents, while qualitative research requires many respondents.
B. It uses open-ended questions, while qualitative research uses closed multiple choice questions.
C. It focuses on testing theories and hypotheses, while qualitative research focuses on exploring ideas and formulating a theory or hypotheses.
D. It is analyzed by summarizing, categorizing and interpreting, while qualitative research is analyzed through math and statistical analysis.
A
C. It focuses on testing theories and hypotheses, while qualitative research focuses on exploring ideas and formulating a theory or hypotheses.
52
Q
- What is the simplest way of summarizing a set of observations or data.
A. Chart
B. Table
C. Graph
D. Text
A
B. Table
53
Q
- Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about charts and graphs?
A. They are the simplest ways to summarize data.
B. They can convey the general patterns of the data.
C. They are visual representations of numerical data.
D. They present data as absolute numbers or percentages.
A
D. They present data as absolute numbers or percentages.
54
Q
- The following are the basic guides when summarizing data EXCEPT…
A. Ensure that every table or graph has a title or heading.
B. Include a footnote if the graphic is very self-explanatory.
C. Label all the components, include value labels and legends.
D. Provide the sample size or the number of observations as a reference point.
A
B. Include a footnote if the graphic is very self-explanatory.
55
Q
A
