Mock Test Science 1 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. The unit of temperature in S.I. unit is
    A. Centigrade
    B. Fahrenheit
    C. Celsius
    D. Kelvin
A

D. Kelvin

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2
Q
  1. Biochemical catalysts which speed up chemical reactions are called _____.
    A. Enzymes
    B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
    C. Polysaccharides
    D. Ribonucleic acid
A

A. Enzymes

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3
Q
  1. The microbes that live on dead and decaying organic materials are known as
    A. parasites
    B. saprophytes
    C. pathogens
    D. indigenous microflora
A

B. saprophytes

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4
Q
  1. What are the reactants for the chemical reaction of cellular respiration?
    A. carbon dioxide and water
    B. oxygen and lactic acid
    C. glucose and oxygen
    D. water and glucose
A

C. glucose and oxygen

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5
Q
  1. Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleolus?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Erythrocyte
    C. Monocyte
    D. Neutrophil
A

B. Erythrocyte

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6
Q
  1. A closed system is one in which
    A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
    B. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
    C. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
    D. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
A

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?
    A. Temperature
    B. Number of particles
    C. Volume
    D. All of these
A

D. All of these

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8
Q
  1. Genetic information in living things is stores in ___.
    A. Organelles such as lysozymes
    B. Tiny granules of ribonucleic acid
    C. DNA also known as deoxyribonucleic acid
    D. Triacylglycerols such as glyceryl tristearate
A

C. DNA also known as deoxyribonucleic acid

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
    A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek – Microscopy
    B. Louise Pasture - Pasteurization
    C. Rudolf Virchow - Abiogenesis
    D. Robert Koch – Germ theory of disease
A

C. Rudolf Virchow - Abiogenesis

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
    A. Adipose
    B. Muscle
    C. Cartilage
    D. Nerve
A

C. Cartilage

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11
Q
  1. How many ATP molecules does glycolysis provides a cell?
    A. 2 ATP molecules
    B. 16 ATP molecules
    C. 4 ATP molecules
    D. 32 ATP molecules
A

A. 2 ATP molecules

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12
Q
  1. A solid object with a specific density of less than 1 will
    A. float on liquid water.
    B. sink in liquid water.
    C. stay mixed with liquid water.
    D. dissolve in liquid water.
A

A. float on liquid water.

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13
Q
  1. When the energy has been completely removed from a mass the state would be:
    A. Solid
    B. Plasma
    C. Liquid
    D. Einstein Bone Condensate
A

D. Einstein Bone Condensate

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14
Q
  1. Which is released as a by-product of photosynthesis?
    A. Carbon
    B. Oxygen
    C. Carbon dioxide
    D. Water
A

B. Oxygen

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15
Q
  1. Proteins are made up of long chain of ____.
    A. Amino acids attached by peptide bond
    B. Glucose molecules attached end to end
    C. Complex lipids as stearic and cholesterol
    D. Organic subunits such as ethane or propane
A

A. Amino acids attached by peptide bond

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16
Q
  1. The field of parasitology involves the study of which of the following types of organisms?
    A. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa
    B. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses
    C. bacteria, fungi, and viruses
    D. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa
A

A. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary glands?
    A. cranial
    B. spinal
    C. pleural
    D. thoracic
A

A. cranial

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18
Q
  1. Why do we perceive chlorophyll as green?
    A. because it combines blue and yellow light
    B. because it reflects green light
    C. because it absorbs green light
    D. because it refracts green light
A

B. because it reflects green light

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19
Q
  1. A decrease in temperature can cause a gas to
    A. boil away into vapor.
    B. turn into a liquid.
    C. exert increased pressure in a rigid container.
    D. turn to ice.
A

B. turn into a liquid.

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20
Q
  1. Sublimation is the change of a:
    A. liquid to solid
    B. solid to gas
    C. solid to liquid
    D. liquid to gas
A

B. solid to gas

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21
Q
  1. Hydrophilic substance are usually soluble in ____.
    A. Nonpolar solvents such as ether and gasoline
    B. Water or aqueous solution such as the cell cytoplasm
    C. Any solvents made up of molecules containing Hydrogen
    D. Non-aqueous portions of cell membrane
A

B. Water or aqueous solution such as the cell cytoplasm

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22
Q
  1. One way in which Archean would differ from a bacterium is that the Archean would possess no
    A. DNA in its chromosomes
    B. Ribosomes in its cytoplasm
    C. Peptidoglycan in its cell walls
    D. RNA in its ribosomes
A

C. Peptidoglycan in its cell walls

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?
    A. Alveoli
    B. Larynx
    C. Epiglottis
    D. Uvula
A

C. Epiglottis

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24
Q
  1. Where does lactic acid fermentation occur?
    A. Beer
    B. Muscles cells
    C. Bread dough
    D. Wine
A

B. Muscles cells

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25
Q
  1. The heat fusion of a substance refers to
    A. The temperature necessary to produce a nuclear fusion reaction.
    B. The heat required to liquefy a vapor at its condensation temperature.
    C. The heat required to liquefy a solid at its melting temperature.
    D. The temperature at which a liquid becomes a gas.
A

C. The heat required to liquefy a solid at its melting temperature.

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following will cause a decrease in gas pressure in a closed container?
    A. Lowering the temperature
    B. Adding more gas
    C. Reducing the volume
    D. Both a and b
A

A. Lowering the temperature

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27
Q
  1. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain Gram-negative as a result of the differences in the structure of their
    A. cell wall
    B. cell membrane
    C. capsule
    D. ribosomes
A

A. cell wall

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?
    A. Abdominal and pelvic
    B. Pericardial and pleural
    C. Cranial and spinal
    D. Thoracic and abdominal
A

D. Thoracic and abdominal

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29
Q
  1. What is produced as electrons pass through the electron transport chain?
    A. Alcohol
    B. Citric acid
    C. ATP
    D. Lactic acid
A

C. ATP

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30
Q
  1. Absolute zero temperature is
    A. 32 ͦ F
    B. 0 ͦ C
    C. 4 ͦ C
    D. 0 ͦ K
A

D. 0 ͦ K

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31
Q
  1. In the broadest sense, what was the Kinetic Molecular Theory designed to explain?
    A. What temperature measures.
    B. The types of intermolecular forces.
    C. The behavior of matter.
    D. Crystalline structures of solids.
A

C. The behavior of matter.

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32
Q
  1. An acid is a substance that ____.
    A. donates electrons
    B. donates neutrons
    C. donates protons
    D. none of these
A

C. donates protons

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33
Q
  1. The three-domain system of the classification is based on the differences in which of the following molecules?
    A. mRNA
    B. rRNA
    C. peptidoglycan
    D. tRNA
A

B. rRNA

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following terms describes the motion of the bending the forearms toward the body?
    A. Abduction
    B. Pronation
    C. Flexion
    D. Supination
A

C. Flexion

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of solid particles?
    A. Solid particles have definite shapes and volumes.
    B. Solid particles vibrated in place.
    C. Solid particles are very close together
    D. Solid particles have a lot of kinetic energy.
A

D. Solid particles have a lot of kinetic energy.

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36
Q
  1. The reaction of water with a salt is called ____.
    A. Acidification
    B. Efflorescence
    C. Hydrolysis
    D. Neutralization
A

C. Hydrolysis

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37
Q
  1. Most prokaryotic cell reproduce by
    A. budding
    B. spore formation
    C. gamete production
    D. binary fission
A

D. binary fission

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38
Q
  1. In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?
    A. Dorsal
    B. Prone
    C. Lateral
    D. Supine
A

B. Prone

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39
Q
  1. What are the products of photosynthesis and are the reactants of cellular respiration?
    A. Hormones
    B. Glucose and oxygen
    C. ATP and ADP
    D. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
A

B. Glucose and oxygen

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40
Q
  1. Indicate the FALSE statement about temperature.
    A. Boiling point of the centigrade scale is 100
    B. Fahrenheit scale was invented by a German
    C. Absolute temperature scale is expressed in 0K
    D. Absolute zero is Fahrenheit scale is -273
A

D. Absolute zero is Fahrenheit scale is -273

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41
Q
  1. What is a dipole-dipole force?
    A. The force that occurs within a polar molecule because of the oppositely charged poles.
    B. The force that occurs between nonpolar molecules.
    C. The attractive force that occurs between an ion and a dipole.
    D. The force that occurs between the positively charged poles of polar molecules.
A

A. The force that occurs within a polar molecule because of the oppositely charged poles.

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is a balanced chemical reaction of a metal with water?
    A. Na(s) + H2O(l) > NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
    B. 2 Na(s) + H2O(l) > NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
    C. 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) > NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
    D. 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) > 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
A

D. 2 Na(s) + 2 H2O(l) > 2 NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

43
Q
  1. The anatomic location of the spinal canal is
    A. caudal
    B. frontal
    C. dorsal
    D. ventral
A

C. dorsal

44
Q
  1. Photosynthesis is due to chloroplast as circular respiration is to _____.
    A. cell membranes
    B. mitochondrion
    C. cytoplasm
    D. nucleus
A

B. mitochondrion

45
Q
  1. The same volume of all gases would represent their
    A. densities
    B. molecular weights
    C. specific weights
    D. gas characteristic constants
A

D. gas characteristic constants

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of crystalline solids?
    A. particles arranged in repeating patterns
    B. made up of crystals
    C. becomes softer as temperature rises
    D. has a distinct melting point
A

C. becomes softer as temperature rises

47
Q
  1. Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?
    A. glucose and fructose
    B. glucose and sucrose
    C. glucose and galactose
    D. glucose and ribose
A

C. glucose and galactose

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron?
    A. dendrite
    B. synapse
    C. glial cell
    D. terminal plate
A

B. synapse

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in cellular respiration?
    A. Glycolysis > fermentation > Kerbs cycle
    B. Kerbs cycle > electron transport > glycolysis
    C. Kerbs cycle > glycolysis > electron transport
    D. Glycolysis > Kerbs cycle > electron transport
A

D. Glycolysis > Kerbs cycle > electron transport

50
Q
  1. Calorie is a measure of
    A. Specific heat
    B. Thermal capacity
    C. Quantity of heat
    D. Entropy
A

C. Quantity of heat

51
Q
  1. Boyle’s law states that as the pressure of gas increases, its ____.
    A. volume increases
    B. volume decreases
    C. temperature increases
    D. temperature decreases
A

B. volume decreases

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is the main function of glycoproteins in the plasma membrane?
    A. aiding the binding of sperm to egg
    B. determination of blood groups
    C. increasing the efficiency of absorption
    D. serving as sites of protein synthesis
A

B. determination of blood groups

53
Q
  1. The second phase of the growth curve where the bacteria multiply so rapidly that the number of organisms doubles with each generation time is known as
    A. lag phase
    B. stationary phase
    C. hypothalamus
    D. thyroid gland
A

B. stationary phase

54
Q
  1. Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?
    A. Adrenal glands
    B. Thalamus
    C. Hypothalamus
    D. Thyroid gland
A

C. Hypothalamus

55
Q
  1. What characteristics of life is shown when a cell undergoes phagocytosis?
    A. Growth
    B. Organization
    C. Metabolism
    D. Responsiveness
A

D. Responsiveness

56
Q
  1. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s wave theory?
    A. Diffraction
    B. Polarisation
    C. Inference
    D. Photoelectric effect
A

D. Photoelectric effec

57
Q
  1. Because of surface tension, a liquid ____.
    A. resists flowing
    B. takes the shape of its container
    C. forms a crystalline solid
    D. forms droplets
A

D. forms droplets

58
Q
  1. The production of the breakdown of ___ is often coupled with the metabolic reactions of biosynthesis and catabolism.
    A. Aspirin
    B. ATP
    C. DNA
    D. CO2
A

B. ATP

59
Q
  1. Organisms that live in and around hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are
    A. acidophilic, psychrophilic, and halophilic
    B. halophilic, psychrophilic, and piezophillic
    C. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic
    D. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophillic
A

D. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophillic

60
Q
  1. Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following structures?
    A. Left ventricle
    B. Pulmonary veins
    C. Pulmonary arteries
    D. Right atrium
A

C. Pulmonary arteries

61
Q
  1. The color of the soap bubble is due to
    A. Interference
    B. Diffraction
    C. Polarization
    D. Reflection
A

A. Interference

62
Q
  1. A liquid with a low viscosity ____.
    A. has a definite shape
    B. flows slowly
    C. flows quickly
    D. fills its container
A

C. flows quickly

63
Q
  1. Unfolding of a protein can be termed as _____.
    A. Renaturation
    B. Oxidation
    C. Denaturation
    D. Reduction
A

C. Denaturation

64
Q
  1. What do bacteria and archaea have in common?
    A. they have a nucleus
    B. their ribosomes are similar
    C. they are single-celled
    D. they have a cell wall with peptidoglycan
A

C. they are single-celled

65
Q
  1. Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?
    A. aorta
    B. pulmonary veins
    C. carotid arteries
    D. superior vena cava
A

B. pulmonary veins

66
Q
  1. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?
    A. Golgi body
    B. Nucleus
    C. Mitochondrion
    D. Vacuole
A

C. Mitochondrion

67
Q
  1. What is the geometric shape of the wavefront that originate when a plane wave passes through a convex lens?
    A. Converging spherical
    B. Plane
    C. Diverging spherical
    D. None of the above
A

A. Converging spherical

68
Q
  1. A gas at constant temperature is confined to a cylinder with a movable piston. The piston is slowly pushed into the cylinder, decreasing the volume of the gas. The pressure increases. What are the variables in this experiment?
    A. temperature and time
    B. volume and pressure
    C. time and volume
    D. pressure and temperature
A

B. volume and pressure

69
Q
  1. Which of the following substance us found in greater quantity in exhaled air?
    A. carbon dioxide
    B. nitrogen
    C. carbon monoxide
    D. oxygen
A

A. carbon dioxide

70
Q
  1. What will happen to a cell when the concentration is higher outside of the cell?
    A. Burst
    B. Shrink
    C. Nothing
    D. Swell
A

B. Shrink

71
Q
  1. Which of the following light phenomena confirms the transverse nature of light?
    A. refraction of light
    B. dispersion of light
    C. diffraction of light
    D. polarization of light
A

D. polarization of light

72
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT the function of proteins?
    A. Help in digesting food
    B. Fight against the invading pathogens
    C. Carries genetic information
    D. Help in transporting oxygen in the blood
A

C. Carries genetic information

73
Q
  1. In order for a virus to replicate
    A. The capsid must enter the host cell cytoplasm
    B. The host cell must be undergoing mitosis
    C. The genome must be released in the cytoplasm
    D. The host cell must lack a cell membrane
A

C. The genome must be released in the cytoplasm

74
Q
  1. Which of the following allows a gas exchange in the lungs?
    A. alveoli
    B. capillaries
    C. bronchioles
    D. pleurae
A

A. alveoli

75
Q
  1. In which solution are red blood cells submerged when they are soaked in pure distilled water?
    A. hypertonic
    B. isotonic
    C. hypotonic
    D. saline
A

C. hypotonic

76
Q
  1. Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit light of
    A. the same amplitude and phase
    B. the same intensity and wavelength
    C. the same speed
    D. the same wavelength and constant phase difference
A

D. the same wavelength and constant phase difference

77
Q
  1. The following are the properties of viruses EXCEPT
    A. most viruses possess either DNA or RNA
    B. they divide by binary fission, mitosis, or meiosis
    C. they lack the genes and enzymes necessary for energy production
    D. they depend on the ribosomes and metabolites of the host for protein and nucleic production
A

B. they divide by binary fission, mitosis, or meiosis

78
Q
  1. Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?
    A. gallbladder
    B. liver
    C. kidney
    D. spleen
A

B. liver

79
Q
  1. Which activity relates to passive transport?
    A. Sodium-potassium pump
    B. Addition or salt to cure meat
    C. Low concentration of substances outside the cell
    D. Movement of molecules where energy is exerted by the cell
A

B. Addition or salt to cure meat

80
Q
  1. What is he cause of diffraction?
    A. Interferences of primary wavelets
    B. Refraction of primary wavelets
    C. Interferences of secondary wavelets
    D. Refraction of secondary wavelets
A

C. Interferences of secondary wavelets

81
Q
  1. Which of the following separation methods relies on differences in boiling points?
    A. Fractional distillation and simple distillation
    B. Fractional distillation and filtration
    C. Simple distillation and paper chromatography
    D. Filtration and paper chromatography
A

A. Fractional distillation and simple distillation

82
Q
  1. A protozoan may possess any of the following EXCEPT
    A. cilia
    B. hyphae
    C. flagella
    D. pseudopodia
A

B. hyphae

83
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract?
    A. Absorption
    B. Regurgitation
    C. Peristalsis
    D. Secretion
A

C. Peristalsis

84
Q
  1. Which pair of parts and function of a microscope is mismatched?
    A. Base: support the whole microscope
    B. Objective: adjust the body tube
    C. Mirror: reflects light
    D. Stage: where specimen is placed
A

B. Objective: adjust the body tube

85
Q
  1. If the locus of points which have the same amplitude and vibrate in the same phase are spheres then it is called as
    A. Spherical wave
    B. Plane wavefront
    C. Spherical wavefront
    D. None
A

C. Spherical wavefront

86
Q
  1. The insertion of the wrong nucleotide into a DNA code group could result is
    A. Mutation
    B. Cloning
    C. Splicing
    D. Recombination
A

A. Mutation

87
Q
  1. Male hormones are produced by which of the following?
    A. prepuce
    B. testes
    C. prostate
    D. vas deferens
A

B. testes

88
Q
  1. How many ATP are produced when 5 glucose units enter a bacterial cell found in the gut and undergone cellular respiration?
    A. 10 ATP
    B. 180 ATP
    C. 20 ATP
    D. 360 ATP
A

A. 10 ATP

89
Q
  1. Each point of the wavefront is the source of secondary disturbance and the wavelets originating from these points spread out in all directions with the speed of wave, this is called as
    A. Principle of superstation
    B. Polarisation
    C. Huygens principle
    D. None
A

C. Huygens principle

90
Q
  1. Which of the following correctly ranks the structure in order of size, from largest to smallest?
    A. gene – chromosomes – nucleotide – codon
    B. nucleotide – chromosomes – gene - codon
    C. chromosomes – gene – codon – nucleotide
    D. chromosomes – nucleotide - gene – codon
A

C. chromosomes – gene – codon – nucleotide

91
Q
  1. All protozoal cells possess a variety of eukaryotic structures EXCEPT
    A. golgi bodies
    B. lysosomes
    C. chlorophyll
    D. mitochondria
A

C. chlorophyll

92
Q
  1. Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures?
    A. fallopian tube
    B. uterus
    C. ovary
    D. vagina
A

A. fallopian tube

93
Q
  1. When waves are received from the source moving towards the observer, there is an apparent decrease in wavelength, this is called as
    A. Red shift
    B. Blue shift
    C. Both a and b
    D. None
A

B. Blue shift

94
Q
  1. The organic starting materials for the preparation of an ester could be ____.
    A. an acid and an alcohol
    B. an alkane and a ketone
    C. a ketone and an alcohol
    D. an amine and an acid
A

A. an acid and an alcohol

95
Q
  1. The nucleic acid, the purine nitrogenous bases are
    A. Uracil and Thymine
    B. Thymine and Cytosine
    C. Cytosine and Guanine
    D. Adenine and Guanine
A

D. Adenine and Guanine

96
Q
  1. Singe celled eukaryotes are characterized as
    A. Fungi
    B. Protista
    C. Archaea
    D. Monomers
A

B. Protista

97
Q
  1. Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?
    A. Adrenal
    B. Pituitary
    C. Pineal
    D. Thyroid
A

B. Pituitary

98
Q
  1. When the two displacements are out of phase and two displacements cancel out to give intensity, then it is called as
    A. Constructive inference
    B. Destructive inference
    C. Both a and b
    D. None
A

B. Destructive inference

99
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to lead to a phase change?
    A. Increasing the volume of the system.
    B. A change in the intermolecular forces between particles.
    C. Adding a different particle to the system.
    D. Changing the intermolecular forces within the particle.
A

B. A change in the intermolecular forces between particles.

100
Q
  1. Which of the following bonds are broken during DNA replication?
    A. Hydrogen bonds between bases
    B. Phosphodiester bonds
    C. Covalent bond between bases
    D. Ionic bonds between bases and phosphate groups
A

A. Hydrogen bonds between bases