Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

November resit > Mock Questions > Flashcards

Mock Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dose of Naproxen for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

A

0.5 - 1g in divided doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What countries can have their prescriptions dispensed in the UK?

A

Austria
Belgium; Bulgaria
Croatia; Cyprus; Czech Republic
Denmark
Estonia
Finland; France
Germany; Greece
Hungary
Iceland; Republic of Ireland; Italy
Latvia; Liechtenstein; Lithuania; Luxembourg
Malta
The Netherlands
Norway
Poland; Portugal
Romania
Slovakia; Slovenia; Spain; Sweden
Switzerland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 10-year-old comes in with a sprained ankle. There is mild swelling and he does not seem to be in discomfort. What is the most appropriate option for him?

A

Using an ice pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A 12-year-old comes in with a sprained ankle. There is moderate swelling and he does seem to be in discomfort. What is the most appropriate option for him?

A

Ibuprofen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A patient has started Simvastatin 40mg
His drug history: Bezefibrate, Amlodipine, Ramipril. What adjustment needs to be made?

A

Reduce dose of Simvastatin to 10mg due to bezafibrate.

If bezafibrate wasn’t there, reduce simvastatin to 20mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What dose adjustment do you need to make to simvastatin due to interactions? 6

A

Bezfibrate or Ciprofibrate = 10mg daily

Amlodipine, Amiodarone, Ranolazine = 20mg daily

CYP inhbitors = reduce dose ->
Verapamil/Diltiazem (inhibitors) =20mg daily

Bempedoic acid (with ezetimbe) = 20mg daily

Severe hypercholesterolaemia and at high risk of cardiovascular complications = 40mg daily

lomitapide or ticagrelor = 40mg daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When taking Carbimazole what causes sore throat and mouth ulcers

A

Agranulocytosis - lowered white blood cell count
and Neutropenia - low conc of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are contributing factors of hypoglycaemia

A

Taking too much insulin or diabetes medication.
Not eating enough.
Postponing or skipping a meal or snack.
Increasing exercise or physical activity without eating more or adjusting your medications.
Drinking alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the age limit of OTC Naproxen for period pains

A

15-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient has been taking pseudoephedrine for the past 3 days for a cold and flu. They present at the hospital with a fast heart rate, bp of 170/90 and headache.
Drug history:
Amlodipine - started last week
Phenelzine - taken off last week
Bempedoic acid - dose increase last week

Which could have caused the hospital admission?

A

There is a SEVERE interaction between
MAOIs e.g. Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid or Tranylcypromine and Pseudoephedrine

It’s predicted to cause hypertensive crisis during and up to 14 days after stopping MAOIs
symptoms = hypertension, palpitation, headache, dizziness, visual disturbances, SOB and malaise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List of notifiable disease in the UK that start with A, B, C, D

A

Acute encephalitis
Acute infectious hepatitis
Acute meningitis
Acute poliomyelitis
Anthrax
Botulism
Brucellosis
Cholera
COVID-19
Diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List of notifiable dieases that start with E, F, H, I

A

Enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever)
Food poisoning
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
Infectious bloody diarrhoea
Invasive group A streptococcal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List of notifiable diseases that start with L, M, P

A

Legionnaires’ disease
Leprosy
Malaria
Measles
Meningococcal septicaemia
Monkeypox
Mumps
Plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List of notifiable diseases that start with R, S, T, C W, Y

A

Rabies
Rubella
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)
Scarlet fever
Smallpox
Tetanus
Tuberculosis
Typhus
Viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF)
Whooping cough
Yellow fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A pt chart shows hypokalemia which antihypertensice medication would you avoid?
a) Irbesartan
b) Lisinopril
c) Ramipril
d) Spironolactone
e) Furosemide

A

THE ANSWER IS E

A-D causes HYPERkalemia which is ‘fine’
However, diuretics (loop and thiazide) cause hypokalemia so you wouldn’t want to add Furosemide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What malarial prophylaxis is suitable in epilepsy

A

Atovaquone with proguanil
or
Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What malarial prophylaxis is suitable in pregnancy

A

Chloroquine and Proguanil (+folic acid)

consider Mefloquine in 2nd-3rd trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Antimalarial in someone taking warfarin rule

A

start 2-3 weeks before depatrure
INR must be stable. Measure 7 days before starting prophylaxis and after completing the course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nish is taking Aripiprazole 15mg OD. what is the least suitable antimalarial?
a) Chloroquine
b) Chloroquine with Proguanil
c) Mefloquine
d) Proguanil
e) Atovaquone with Proguanil

A

THE ANSWER IS C

Mefloquine is contra-indicated in individuals with a history of psychiatric disorders (including depression) or conclusions

Aripiprazole is used in Schizophrenia and Mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What to do if taking warfarin and experience a major bleed

A

Stop warfarin
give Phytomenadione (Vit K1) by slow IV
give dried prothrombin complex (fresh frozen if unavailable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What to do if taking warfarin. INR >8.0 and minor bleed

A

Stop warfarin
give Phytomenadione (Vit K1) by slow IV
repeat vit K1 if INR is still high after 24hrs
restart warfarin when INR <5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What to do if on warfarin. INR >8.0 and no bleed

A

Stop warfarin
give Phytomenadione (Vit K1) ORALLY using IV preparation
repeat vit K1 if INR is still high after 24hrs
restart warfarin when INR <5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What to do if INR 5-8 with minor bleeding

A

Stop warfarin
give Phytomenadione (Vit K1) by slow IV
resart warfarin when INR <5.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What to do if INR is 5-8 with no bleeding

A

withhold 1 or 2 doses and reduce maintenance dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what to do if taking warfarin and there is unexpected bleeding at therapeutic levels

A

investigate the underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR <15

A

Kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR 15-29

A

Severe reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR 30-44

A

Moderate - severe reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR 45-49

A

Milde - moderate reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR 60-89

A

Mild reduction… relative to normal range for a young adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What level of renal function is an eGFR >90

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A few months later, Mrs Aslam collects a prescription for Amiodarone, citalopram and atenolol tablets, and buys grapefruit juice. You contact her doctor to discuss possible interactions. Which of the following is false?
a) Citalopram and amiodarone can both prolong the QT interval
b) Amiodarone and atenolol can both cause bradycardia
c) Grapefruit juice increases exposure to amiodarone
d) Atenolol and amiodarone taken together increase the risk of cardiovascular
side effects
e) Amiodarone and citalopram can both cause hyponatraemia

A

The answer is E
Citalopram causes Hyponatraemia
Amiodarone affect Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mr Winks then tells you the medication he is currently taking. You suggest to Mr Winks that it may be one of his medicines causing his dry eyes and mouth. Which of the following medications is most likely to be causing his dry mouth?
a) Amlodipine
b) Olmesartan medoxomil
c) Oxybutynin
d) Piroxicam
e) Salbutamol

A

The answer is C as its an antimuscarinic
a) Amlodipine - CCB
b) Olmesartan medoxomil - ARB
c) Oxybutynin - ANTIMUSCARINIC
d) Piroxicam -NSAID
e) Salbutamol - B2 AGONIST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What reverses Digoxin toxicity

A

Digoxin-specific antibody fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A junior doctor wants to administer diazepam to one of his patients who is suffering from convulsive status epilepticus. However, there are not any intravenous injections available on the ward so she asks you for an alternative.
Based on your knowledge of drug absorption and the available formulations, which one of the following would you recommend to the junior doctor?
a) Diazepam buccal tablet
b) Diazepam patches
c) Diazepam intramuscular injection
d) Diazepam oral solution
e) Diazepam enema

A

The answer is E, enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cabergoline what is it? Other drugs in same class? and key side effects

A

is a stimulant of dopamine receptors (agonists) in the brain and inhibits the pituitary’s release of prolactin.

Other drugs in this call are
Amantadine hydrochloride; Apomorphine hydrochloride; Bromocriptine; Pramipexole; Quinagolide; Ropinirole; Rotigotine

Main side effects include
- IMPULSE CONTROL DISORDERS e.g gambling, hypersexuality, binge eating
- Monitored for dyspnoea, persistent cough, chest pain, cardiac failure, and abdominal pain or tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What diuretic can cause gout

A

Furosemide

38
Q

Key side effects of Phenytoin

A

Rash - discontinue
Bradycardia/hypotension (IV) - reduce administration rate
Plateletes decrease

39
Q

Key points of Liothyronine

A

Liothyronine is more rapidly metabolised than levothyroxine
So is suitable when a rapid response is needed
Brands without a UK licence may not be bioequivalent and dose adjustment may be necessary.

40
Q

What BMI range shows you’re underweight

A

<18.5

41
Q

What BMI range shows you’re normal

A

18.5 - 24.9

42
Q

What BMI range shows you’re overweight

A

25 - 29.9

43
Q

What BMI range shows your obese

A

> 30

44
Q

Dose for nystatin

A

100 000 units
4 times a day usually for 7 days,
and continued for 48 hours after lesions have resolved.

45
Q

Rabies dose regime

A

The patient should receive one dose of rabies vaccine today,
one dose in 3 days’ time,
one dose in 7 days’ time,
one dose in 14 days’ time
and one dose in 30 days’ time

46
Q

Terbinafine (used in athlete foot) main side effect

A

Liver toxicity e.g. Jaundice
Serious skin reaction e.g. rash like Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis

47
Q

Blood meningitis would be indicated by what blood parameter

A

C-reactive protein

48
Q

What is the recommended dose of vitamin D

A

Recommend vitamin D 10 mcg tablets as this the advice given by Public Health England for all individuals in the UK during the winter months.

49
Q

What advice would you give to someone with coeliac disease regarding vitamins

A

Go to the GP to review their vitamin levels via a blood test, as coeliac disease may mean that he needs additional supplementation

50
Q

Key point about methotrexate and conception

A

Use effective contraceptives during and 6 months after stopping
Methotrex = sex = six

51
Q

Jeremy has been prescribed an antibiotic in hospital for surgical prophylaxis. However, his surgery has now been delayed as he has reacted to the antibiotic. He has a red rash and appears flushed around his torso, face, and arms. This reaction occurred within 10 minutes of being administered the
antibiotic via IV infusion.
Which one of the following antibiotics is most associated with this side effect?
a) Vancomycin
b) Neomycin
c) Gentamicin
d) Clindamycin
e) Rifampicin

A

The answer is A

52
Q

Tim has been taking Priadel® 400mg tablets at a dose of one tablet daily, for the last 2 months. He has recently started experiencing side effects of a skin rash, nausea and muscle weakness. He has come to the hospital for a blood
test.
Which of the following blood serum levels of lithium is Tim most likely
to have?
a) 0.4 to 0.8 mmol/L
b) 0.5 to 1.0 mmol/L
c) 0.8 to 1.0 mmol/L
d) 0.8 to 1.2 mmol/L
e) 1.2 to 1.6 mmol/L

A

The answer is E
if he is experiencing toxicity it is likely to be over the target range 0.4-0.8/0.8-1.2

53
Q

Key SSRI interactions

A

NSAIDs e.g. aspirin, naproxen
Digoxin

54
Q

Why would someone taking sotalol not be able to take domperidone

A

Domperidone is contra-indicated in conditions where cardiac conduction is, or could be, impaired and sotalol treats AF (rhythm)

55
Q

Anti Nausea medicine to use in pregnancy (6)

A

Promethazine
Ondansetron
Prochlorperazine
Chlorpromazine
Cyclizine
Metoclopramide

56
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum

A

regular antiemetic therapy, intravenous fluid and electrolyte replacement, and sometimes nutritional support

severe give antiemetic via parental or rectum
consider Thiamie suplemant

57
Q

management of nausea and vomiting in patients receiving cytotoxics

A

ondansetron
granisetron,
and palonosetron,

58
Q

management of nausea in chemotherapy

A

Dexamethasone
or Prochlorperazine

can add on Nabilone

59
Q

preventing chemo-induce nausea

A

aprepitant and fosaprepitant

60
Q

Nausea in palliative care

A

Levomepromazine
and Haloperidol

61
Q

Prevention and treatment of opiod induced nausea

A

Cyclizine

62
Q

Ménière’s disease

A

accute attack: cinnarizine, cyclizine, promethazine teoclate, prochlorperazine

severe acute attack: Buccal prochlorperazine or deep IM cyclizine or prochlorperazine

reccurent attacks: Betahistine

63
Q

Motion sickness

A

prevent with
- Hyoscine Hydrobromide (Hy in the sky)
- less sedating cinnarizine or cyclizine
- more sedating promethazine

64
Q

Methyldopa counselling

A

can cause drowsiness

65
Q

Which CCB treat Raynauds syndrome

A

Nifedipine 5mg tds adjust acoording to response

66
Q

This medication was prescribed to John to sedate him during a dental procedure.

A

Temazepam

Conscious sedation for dental procedures
by mouth
15-30mg 20-60mins before procedure

67
Q

manual therapy to relieve pain is…

A

targeting the area e.g. deep tissue massage

68
Q

Side effects for Chloramphenicol in chlidren

A

Circulatory collapse
grey baby syndrome e.g. pallid cyanosis

69
Q

TB ethambutol drug can cause…

A

Visual disturbance - discontinue and there should be recovery of eye sight

70
Q

montelukast side effect

A

Hyperkinesia - excessive movement and impaired concentration
Speech impairment
OCD

71
Q

16 year old taking ferrous fumarate oral solution. s experiencing loose stools and soreness what is the best thing to do

A

Change formulation and take with or after food

72
Q

An epileptic patient who is vegan taking Phenytoin should consider taking what supplement

A

Vitamin D
has an inadequate intake of calcium

73
Q

elderly patient taking Isosorbide mononitrate immediate release keeps forgetting to take his medication what is an option that could help this situation

A

switching him to Modified Release

74
Q

Nitrate Side effects

A

A Helicopter Falling Down Lost His Tail

Arrhythmias
Headache
Flushing
Drowsiness
Lightheaded/dizzy
Hypotension
Tolerance

75
Q

Clozapine Important Safety Information (5)

A

1) Risk of intestinal obstruction, faecal impaction, and paralytic ileus
2) Monitor blood conc
3) Risk of agranulocytosis and Neutropenia
4) Myocarditis and cardiomyopathy common in first 2 months
5) monitor prolactin (look out for breast enlargement /galactorrhoea)

76
Q

Methylphenidate side effects

A

o M/r needs t be prescribed by brand
o Weight loss
o Growth retardation (in children)
o Tourettes
o Psychiatric
o Hypertension

77
Q

Cant swallow MR Methylphenidate. what can they do?

A

Advise patient to empty content onto a spoon of apple sauce or yoghurt and swallow content whole

78
Q

Vancomycin IV most common side effect

A

Phlebitis - inflammation of a vein

other:
Thrombocytopenia
Drug fever/shivering
Tinnitus (discontinue) / Hearing loss
Vomiting
Agranulocytosis / Neutropenia (1 week after)
Nephrotoxicity/renal failure
Bradycardia
rapid infusion = cardiac arrest/cardiogenic shock

79
Q

Which OTC medication is MOST LIKLEY to have an MHRA warning associated with abuse due to increased risk of cardiovascular events
a. Senna
b. Loperamide
c. Paracetamol
d. Dioralyte
e. Glycereine

A

the answer is B, loperaminde
safety information: reports of serious cardiac adverse reactions with high doses of loperamide associated with abuse or misuse give naloxone

80
Q

methotrexate missed dose

A

if you remember AFTER two days - miss the dose and continue as normal

if you remember WITHIN two days - take the missed dose and continue as normal

NEVER double dose

81
Q

treatment for HYPERthyroidism in pregnancy
treatment of HYPOthyroidism in pregnancy

A

Hyperthyroidism - Carbimazole (in 2nd trimester)
Carbimazole is associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations when used during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester and at high doses (daily dose of 15 mg or more).

Hypothyroidism - Levothyroxine (might need to increase dose)

82
Q

Nicorandil ADR

A

Asthenia - weak/lack energy
Mouth ulcer (discontinue)
Dizziness/Headache
Nausea and vomiting
Haemorrhage
Vasodilation

83
Q

Treatment for animal or human bite

A

Oral:
1st - Co-amoxiclac
pen allergy/alternative: Doxycycline and metronidazole

84
Q

List of pregnant women the may require a higher dose of folic acid

A

previously had an infant with a neural tube defect
taking carbamazepine/antiepileptic
has type 1 diabetes
has sickle cell anaemia

5mg daily
before conception up to 12 weeks = 400mcg

85
Q

tamsulosin OTC requirements

A

45 - 75
cant take drugs that cause hypotension
cant take viagra
tbc…

86
Q

What reverses beta-blocker overdose

A

Activated charcoal within 1 hr of ingestion
Atropine IV for symptomatic bradycardia
Glucagon IV for severe hypotension

87
Q

A vegan patient comes in for some blood tests what vitamin is she likely to have a deficient in?

A

Vitamin B12 because it commonly found in meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, yeast extract which a vegan wouldn’t eat

88
Q

What is used to treat Acute Severe Ulcerative Colitis

A

IV Corticosteriods
alternative IV Ciclosporin or Ifliximab

89
Q

Constipation in children treatment

A

1st = Macrogol 3350
still hard? Lactulose otr docusate
faecal impaction = add stimulant to macrogol

90
Q

Most appropriate NSAID to use in a patient with a history of GI bleed and ulceration

A

Celecoxib

November resit (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions