Mock Examen II

Question 1

1. When entering the eye, the light will first hit:
   (a) the retina
   (b) photoreceptors
   (c) the cornea
   (d) the lens

Answer 1

(c) the cornea

Question 2

Which of the following cells do not elicit graded potentials?
(a) bipolar cells
(b) ganglion cells
(c) amacrine cells
(d) photoreceptors

Answer 2

(b) ganglion cells

Question 3

Because of axial chromatic aberration, there are:
(a) less s-cones than m-cones and l-cones in the fovea
(b) more s-cones than m-cones and l-cones in the fovea
(c) less l-cones than m-cones and s-cones in the fovea
(d) more l-cones than m-cones and s-cones in the fovea

Answer 3

(a) less s-cones than m-cones and l-cones in the fovea

Question 4

Which of the following is true of LGN?
(a) There are more magnocellular than parvocellular layers.
(b) There are more parvocellular than magnocellular layers.
(c) Each LGN nucleus contains only information from ipsilateral eye.
(d) Each LGN nucleus contains only information from contralateral eye.

Answer 4

(b) There are more parvocellular than magnocellular layers.

Question 5

Which of the following statements regarding V1 is not true?
(a) Presentation of the fovea is magnified in V1 compared to retinal representation.
(b) Some cells in V1 code for spatial frequency.
(c) Simple cells in V1 respond to objects moving in a preferred direction.
(d) V1 is organized retinotopically.

Answer 5

(c) Simple cells in V1 respond to objects moving in a preferred direction.

Question 6

Which statement on covert and overt attention is correct:
(a) During covert attention gaze and attention are coupled.
(b) During covert attention one can involunatrily but not voluntarily decouple gaze and attention.
(c) During covert attention one can involunatrily and voluntarily decouple gaze and attention.
(d) During overt attention one can decouple gaze and attention.

Answer 6

(c) During covert attention one can involunatrily and voluntarily decouple gaze and attention.

Question 7

Neural substrates of attention…
(a) Include a frontoparietal network that guides bottom-up attention to exogenous cues.
(b) Include a frontoparietal network that guides top-down attention to exogenous cues.
(c) Include a frontoparietal network that guides top-down attention to endogenous cues.
(d) Include a frontoparietal network that guides bottom-up attention to endogenous cues.

Answer 7

(c) Include a frontoparietal network that guides top-down attention to endogenous cues.

Question 8

What differentiates sensory and short-term memory?
(a) Short-term memory content cannot be actively rehearsed but sensory memory content can be.
(b) Sensory memory content decays slower (within s) than short-term memory (within ms).
(c) Sensory memory has an ultrahigh capacity for encoding, whereas short-term memory has a low capacity.
(d) Sensory memory has an low capacity for encoding, whereas short-term memory has an ultrahigh capacity.

Answer 8

(c) Sensory memory has an ultrahigh capacity for encoding, whereas short-term memory has a low capacity.

Question 9

Recalling a studied dance move is an example of
(a) semantic memory
(b) procedural memory
(c) classical conditioning
(d) habituation

Answer 9

(b) procedural memory

Question 10

Which of the following is not a commonly accepted stage of memory?
(a) Encoding
(b) Consolidation
(c) Retrieval
(d) Buffering

Answer 10

(d) Buffering

Question 11

Which of the following statements is not true about patient H.M.?
(a) H.M. had an impaired IQ after resection of his medial temporal lobe.
(b) H.M. was treated for epilepsy.
(c) H.M. had no ability to form new long-term memory.
(d) H.M. showed mild retrograde amnesia.

Answer 11

(a) H.M. had an impaired IQ after resection of his medial temporal lobe.

Question 12

A patient with anterograde anesia has difficulties…
(a) to remember all events before the injury including memories of the distant past.
(b) to remember all memories right before the injury but has preserved memories of the distant past.
(c) to remember new information.
(d) to learn new skills.

Answer 12

(c) to remember new information.

Question 13

Which of the following statements on the medial temporal lobe memory system is true?
(a) The medial temporal lobe system includes as primary areas hypothalamus and amygdala.
(b) Integrates information on object identity and context.
(c) Is not involved in the encoding process.
(d) Stores long-term memory traces.

Answer 13

(b) Integrates information on object identity and context.

Question 14

Memory retrieval of long-term consolidated memories
(a) occurs via a retrieval cue activating memory traces in hippocampal systems.
(b) occurs via a retrieval cue activating memory traces in neocortex.
(c) occurs within hippocampal and parahippocampal systems.
(d) occurs in the amygdala.

Answer 14

(b) occurs via a retrieval cue activating memory traces in neocortex.

Question 15

Which of the following statements on muscle innervation is true?
(a) Upper motor neurons can innervate multiple muscle fibres.
(b) Motor neuronal innervation runs entirely ipsilateral from brain to muscle.
(c) A motor unit is composed of several motor neurons and a single muscle fibre.
(d) A motor unit is composed of one lower motor neuron and several muscle fibres.

Answer 15

(d) A motor unit is composed of one lower motor neuron and several muscle fibres.

Question 16

Pyramidal tracts control
(a) voluntary movement
(b) involuntary movement
(c) monosynaptic reflexes
(d) polysynaptic reflexes

Answer 16

(a) voluntary movement

Question 17

Which of the following statements on the primary motor cortex (M1) is not true?
(a) The representation of the hand in M1 is disproportionally large.
(b) M1 neurons code for movement direction using population vectors.
(c) M1 neurons code for muscles groups with a homunculus.
(d) M1 neurons primarily process information for sensory-motor integration.

Answer 17

(d) M1 neurons primarily process information for sensory-motor integration.

Question 18

Mesolimbic dopamine does not play a primary role in
(a) motor control
(b) motivational and emotional responses
(c) addiction
(d) processing of reward and desire

Answer 18

(a) motor control

Question 19

According to Schultz et al. (1997) a positive reward prediction error is followed by
(a) a dip in phasic mesolimbic dopamine in the ventral tegmental area.
(b) a spike in phasic mesolimbic dopamine in the ventral tegmental area.
(c) a spike in tonic dopamine in the substantia nigra.
(d) a drop of tonic cortical dopamine.

Answer 19

(b) a spike in phasic mesolimbic dopamine in the ventral tegmental area.

Question 20

Evidence on temporal discounting suggests that…
(a) a sooner smaller reward is discounted more than a later larger reward.
(b) a later larger reward is discounted more than a sooner smaller reward.
(c) all reward sizes discount at the same rate over time.
(d) reward values remain constant over time.

Answer 20

(b) a later larger reward is discounted more than a sooner smaller reward.

Question 21

The prefrontal cortex can be defined
(a) based on the regions of the frontal lobe that elicit movements when stimulated.
(b) based on projection zones of the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus.
(c) based on projection zones of the ventromedial thalamic nucleus.
(d) based on basal ganglia projection zones.

Answer 21

(b) based on projection zones of the mediodorsal thalamic nucleus.

Question 22

Prefrontal cortical lesions result in
(a) anterograde memory loss.
(b) bradykinesia and rigidity.
(c) disinhibition and planning deficits.
(d) visual field deficits.

Answer 22

(c) disinhibition and planning deficits.

Question 23

In signal detection theory, high overlap of the noise and signal distribution
(a) has no influence on discriminability and performance accuracy.
(b) influences discriminability and performance accuracy.
(c) leads to more correct rejections.
(d) leads to less false positives.

Answer 23

(b) influences discriminability and performance accuracy.

Question 24

Potential origins of signal-to-noise variability do not include
(a) stimulus fluctuations.
(b) sensory processing.
(c) central processing such as attention processing.
(d) drift rate.

Answer 24

(d) drift rate.

Question 25

In dot motion perceptual decision-making task,
(a) a signal that is more coherent, corresponds to a slower accumulation of evidence (drift rate).
(b) a signal that is more coherent, corresponds to a faster accumulation of evidence (drift rate).
(c) varying coherence does not affect performance accuracy or reaction times.
(d) varying coherence increases performance accuracy and increases reaction times.

Answer 25

(b) a signal that is more coherent, corresponds to a faster accumulation of evidence (drift rate).

Question 26

Blindsight and hemineglect are discussed in consciousness research
(a) as the opposites of consciousness.
(b) as examples for unconscious processing of stimuli that patients are not aware of.
(c) as phenomena that consciousness cannot explain.
(d) as examples of normal consciousness as measured with wakefulness.

Answer 26

(b) as examples for unconscious processing of stimuli that patients are not aware of.

Question 27

Reliable methods to measure arousal responses before or during emotional experiences include
(a) measurement of saliva production.
(b) measurement of saccades.
(c) measurement of skin conductance.
(d) measurement of pupil dilatation.

Answer 27

(c) measurement of skin conductance.

Question 28

The James-Lange theory suggests that
(a) emotional experiences trigger peripheral nervous system responses inducing arousal.
(b) peripheral nervous system responses to arousing stimuli trigger emotional experience.
(c) peripheral nervous system responses and emotional experiences occur simultaneously.
(d) Emotional experiences are unrelated to peripheral nervous system responses.

Answer 28

(b) peripheral nervous system responses to arousing stimuli trigger emotional experience.

Question 29

Which of these is not an invasive method of using the stimulation technique to study the brain?
a. Optogenetics.
b. Patch clamps.
c. Deep brain stimulation.
d. None of them.

Answer 29

d. None of them

(old answer: b. Patch clamps.)

Question 30

Gall’s concept of phrenology was based on two key assumptions. Which of these are they?
Assumption 1: Different regions of the brain perform different cognitive functions.

Assumption 2: Individual differences in the size of the skull correlates with individual differences in cognition and personality.

Assumption 3: Different regions of the brain are not associated with different behaviours.

a. Assumptions 1 and 3.
b. Assumptions 2 and 3.
c. Assumptions 1 and 2.
d. All three of them.

Answer 30

c. Assumptions 1 and 2.

Question 31

Which of these is true about hyper complex cells?
a. They are found in V1.
b. They are primarily excitatory complex cells.
c. They are a combination of both excitatory and inhibitory complex cells.
d. They are only orientation sensitive.

Answer 31

cells?
a. They are found in V1.

Question 32

In Posner’s cueing paradigm, the distribution of attention can be manipulated by which of the following?
a. Validity of an endogenous cue.
b. Validity of an exogenous cue.
c. Using an exogenous cue to automatically draw attention to a spatial location.
d. Both a and c.

Answer 32

Both a and c.

Question 33

A 4-year-old child who scored 150 on an IQ test would have a mental age of 6 (the age-appropriate average score is 100; therefore, MA = (150/100) × 4 = 6). This is an example of which of the following?
a. Ratio IQs.
b. Deviation IQs.
c. General Intelligence.
d. None of the above.

Answer 33

a. Ratio IQs.