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Mock Exam- Seminar > Mock Exam- Part 2 > Flashcards

Mock Exam- Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

As electrons strike the anode target, more than ______% of their kinetic energy is converted to________.

A

99% is converted to heat

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2
Q

Which type of target interaction is responsible for MOST of the x-rays in the diagnostic x-ray beam?

A

Bremstrahlung

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3
Q

In this interaction with matter, an electron drops down to fill the inner shell vacancy, and gives up it’s excess energy as a secondary photon?

A

Photoelectric Interaction

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4
Q

A quality image is produced using 25 mAs at 90 kVp with a 6:1 grid ratio. Calculate the change in exposure technique to maintain radiation exposure to the IR when changing to a 12:1 grid ratio.

A. 40 mAs at 90 kVp
B. 40 mAs at 80 kVp
C. 20 mAs at 90 kVp
D. 20 mAs at 80 kVp

A

A. 40 mAs at 90 kVp``

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5
Q

This grid error will cause the lateral edges of the image to be highly underexposed?

A

Upside down Focused Grid

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6
Q

The air gap technique uses an increased ___________ instead of a grid.

A

OID

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7
Q

A radiographic image is produced using a 102 cm SID, a 18 cm OID and a .3 mm focal spot size. What is the magnification factor?

A

1.21 = MF

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8
Q

What is responsible for the latent image formation in CR?

A

Photostimulable Phosphor

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9
Q

Which of the following is the best light used to view digital images at the workstation?

A

Low Levels of Ambient Lighting

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10
Q

How is the spatial resolution improved in digital radiography?

A

Increased matrix size

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11
Q

What type of digital system used amorphous selenium coated detectors to convert exit radiation directly to an electrical charge?

A

Direct Digital Imaging Systems

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12
Q

Which of the following matrix sizes would produce the best image quality?

64 x 64
256 x 256
1024 x 1024
2048 x 2048

A

2048 x 2048

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13
Q

What would you need to do to the mAs when x-raying a patient with pneumonia?

A

Increase the mAs

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14
Q

What generator has a voltage ripple of less than 1%?

A

High Frequency

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15
Q

What describes the release of electrons from a heated filament?

A

Thermionic Emission

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16
Q

Which part of the x-ray tube is the actual x-ray source?

A

Focal Spot

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of tube failure?

A

Tungsten Vaporization

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18
Q

According to the American Heart Association, What is the compression to ventilation ratio for one rescuer CPR on an adult patient?

A

30:2

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19
Q

An adult patient with a respiratory rate of 30 is considered?

A

To have Tachypnea

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20
Q

A technologist is performing a mobile femur exam on a patient. The patient is in traction for a femur fracture. Should the technologist remove the traction to perform the exam?

A

NO

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21
Q

Patients with suspected spinal injuries are moved using the __________ method.

A

Log Roll Method

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be part of the 5 steps of the grieving process?

Bargaining
Denial
Anger
Anxiety

A

Anxiety

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23
Q

Malpractice prevention includes:

Competence
Confidentiality
Compliance
All of the Above

A

Competence
Confidentiality
Compliance

All of the Above

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24
Q

You hear a fellow radiographer talking poorly about a radiologist to a patient. What is this an example of?

A

Slander

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25
Q

Place the exams in order from first to last as to when they should be completed:

UGI
IVU
BE
Lumbar Spine

A

Lumbar Spine
IVU
BE
UGI

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26
Q

Informed consent from the patient may be:

Written
Oral
Implied
All of the Above

A

Written
Oral
Implied

All of the Above

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27
Q

A 45 year old patient with a heart rate of 50 is _____________.

A

Bacycardic

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28
Q

Where is the pulse assessed when CPR is being preformed on an infant?

A

Brachial Artery

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29
Q

Barium sulfate should NOT be used for an exam on a patient with?

A

Suspected perforation of the intestines

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30
Q

The patient that has a syncope episode should be placed in the ______________ position.

A

Trendelenburg

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31
Q

A radiographer that speaks harshly to a patient and threatens him/her is guilty of:

A

Assault

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32
Q

Which of the following needles has the smallest bore?

25 gauge
21 guage
14 gauge
10 gauge

A

25 gauge

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33
Q

A(n) ____________ is a document prepared by a person prior to them getting sick which indicates their wishes about their medical care.

A

Advanced Directive

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34
Q

___________ s caused by infection that spreads to the bloodstream.

A

Septic Shock

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35
Q

Failure to perform radiologic technology with reasonable skill and safety would be a violation of the:

A

Code of Ethics

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36
Q

These x-rays are produced as specific energies and are considered to belong to the DISCRETE x-ray spectrum?

A

Characteristic X-rays

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37
Q

The primary side of the high voltage transformer is supplied with 220V and has 100 turns. The secondary side has 25,000 turns. What is the voltage on the seconday side?

A

55 kVp (How do you do this)

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38
Q

A 3 phase, 6 pulse generator with full wave rectification will produce _________ pulses per second.

A

360 pulses per second (check how to do this)

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39
Q

If the anode angle decreases from 20 degrees to 12 degrees, the size of the actual focal spot measured for a .5 mm filament will?

A

Remain the Same (What does this mean)

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40
Q

Which grid selection will allow the greatest positioning latitude?

16: 1; 103 lines/inch, focused grid
12: 1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid
8: 1; 103 lines/inch, focused grid
8: 1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid

A

8:1; 80 lines/inch, focused grid (how do you do this)

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41
Q

Selection of an image intensifier using the 17 cm magnification mode instead of 25 cm mode would result in?

Decreased FOV
mA Decreased Proportionally
Increased Image Resolution
Decreased Contrast

A

Decreased FOV

Increased Image Resolution

42
Q

_________ is the primary controlling factor for receptor exposure (Density).

43
Q

A 10 bit digital radiograph system can produce an image with __________ shades of gray.

A

1024 (How do you do this)

44
Q

Attenuation increases if:

Atomic Number Increases
Beam Energy Decreases
Thickness Increases

A

Atomic Number Increases
Beam Energy Decreases
Thickness Increases

45
Q

What is the voltage ripple of a 3 phase, 6 pulse generator?

A

13 percent

46
Q

The best image resolution comes from:

Short OID
Long OID
Short SID
Long SID
Small FSS
Long FSS (should this be large focal spot size?)
A

Short OID
Long SID
Small FSS

47
Q

Which of the following will produce the greatest receptor exposure (Density)?

90 kVp, 40 mAs, 100 cm SID, 8:1 Grid
70 kVp, 25 mAs, 100 cm SID, 12:1 Grid
100 kVp, 50 mAs, 100 cm SID, 6:1 Grid
70 kVp, 20 mAs, 100 cm SID, 8:1 Grid

A

100 kVp, 50 mAs, 100 cm SID, 6:1 Grid (highest mAs, because mAs is the primary controller of density)

48
Q

An AP Axial Projection (Towne Method) of the skull with the OML perpendicular to the CR angled 30 degrees caudad passing through the EAM demonstrates the:

A

Occipital Bone

49
Q

Contrast media is injected into the ____________ space during a myelogram.

A

Subarachnoid

50
Q

______________ is a pathological condition that involves frequent hip dislocations that have been present from birth is?

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

51
Q

When performing a chest x-ray on a patient that is suspected to have free air in the pleural cavity, what radiographs should be taken to demonstrate this?

A

PA Inspiration an PA Expiration

52
Q

The body habitus that has a high diaphraghm with a short/broad heart that is more toward the midline is?

A

Hyperstenic

53
Q

A ____________ fracture involves the posterior distal tibia and both the medial and lateral malleoli.

A

Trimalleolar

54
Q

The “neck” of the scottie dog is formed by the?

A

Pars Interarticularis

55
Q

The radial head is demonstrated free of superimposition in the ___________ position.

A

AP Oblique Lateral Rotation

56
Q

The cubiod is s demonstrated the best on the _____________.

A

AP Oblique Medial Rotation

57
Q

In the electromagnetic spectrum, higher energy photons have?

Longer wavelengths and lower frequencies
Shorter wavelengths and lower frequencies
Shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies
Longer wavelengths and higher frequencies

A

Shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies

58
Q

Which of the following will reduce patient dose?

Use of intermittent fluoro
An increased mA
Use of latent image hold
Operation in Mag mode

A

Use of intermittent fluoro

Use of latent image hold

59
Q

Which of the following radiations have basically the same effect?

X-ray
Beta
Alpha
Gamma

A

X-ray
Beta
Gamma

60
Q

Which of the following are considered high LET radiation?

Alpha
Beta
Gamma

61
Q

LD 50/30 means what in relation to whole body radiation dose?

A

The dose is lethal to 50% of the population in 30 days

62
Q

Which of the following somatic effects follow a linear, threshold-dose response relationship?

Cataractogenesis
Carcinogenesis
Acute Radiation Syndromes
Genetic Effects

A

Acute Radiation Syndromes

63
Q

Hardening the beam results from?

A

Increasing filtration

64
Q

The ACR’s position on abdominal radiographs of female patients that have been requested after full consideration of the patient’s clinical status to include the possibility of pregnancy?

A

Should NOT be postponed or selectively scheduled

65
Q

The greatest occupational exposure is a result of what interaction?

66
Q

Lead aprons used for fluoroscopy should contain?

A

.25 mm Pb equivalency

67
Q

Dyspnea is classified as a ____________ reaction to contrast media.

68
Q

____________ is a defect of the pars interarticularis.

A

Spondylolysis

69
Q

The majority of x-ray photons in the beam come from what type of interactions?

A

Bremsstrahlung Interactions

70
Q

Fixed fluoroscopic units are required to have a __________ minimum SSD.

71
Q

The exposure cord for mobile radiography can not be less than?

72
Q

The proper placement of the radiation dosimeter for occupational monitoring is:

A

At the collar level on the anterior aspect of the body

73
Q

The x-ray tube housing is constructed with a lead lining so that leakage radiation does not exceed?

A

100 mGy^^a/hr at 1 meter

74
Q

Placement of the gonadal shield for the female patient should be placed:

A

2.4 cm medial to the ASIS

75
Q

X-rays should scatter a minimum of _________ times before reaching the control booth barrier.

76
Q

The general population dose limit for non-occupational people for continuous or frequent exposure is:

77
Q

Controlled work areas in the radiography suite equivalent dose limit per week is:

78
Q

The TLD wear period is?

79
Q

The sensing material in the OSL is?

A

Aluminum Oxide

80
Q

The current genetically significant dose for the United States population is?

A

.2 mSv (Damn what is this?)

81
Q

The first step to gonadal protection from ionizing radiation is?

A

Adequate Collimation

82
Q

The sum total of air kerma over the exposed area of tha patient’s body surface is ________________.

A

Dose Area Product

83
Q

Federal regulations state that the ESE rates for general purpose intensified fluoroscopy can NOT exceed?

A

100 mGy^^a/min

84
Q

A cumulative timing device for fluoroscopy will activate when the beam on time has reached?

85
Q

A minimum total filtration for fixed fluoroscopic units that operate above 70 kVp is?

A

2.5 mm Aluminum Equivalent

86
Q

How many half value layers are needed to reduce the radiation intensity from 300 mGy^^a to 75 mGy^^a?

87
Q

Which of the following personnel dosimeters will provide an exposure report reading of “M” for occupational exposures below 1 mrem?

88
Q

Which of the following area survey meters is used to measure output exposures in a fluoroscopic room?

A

Ionization Chamber/Cutie Pie

89
Q

The cardinal principles of radiation protection include:

Collimation
Shielding
Time
Distance

A

Time

Distance Shielding

90
Q

Somatic effects occur in?

A

The person that was exposed to ionization radiation

91
Q

The _________ states that cells are most sensitive to radiation when they are not specialized or rapidly dividing.

A

Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau

92
Q

____________ are changes that occur to the DNA that are passed to offspring.

93
Q

This unit is used to measure exposure rate in fluoroscopy.

94
Q

The greatest source of natural background radiation comes from?

95
Q

Dose Limits are established from NCRP report #?

96
Q

The most effective means of protection from the radiographer from ionizing radiation is?

A

Increasing Distance from the radiation source

97
Q

A nasoenteric tube is placed?

A

Through the nose to the small intestines

98
Q

A patient with a decreased immunity would be placed in what type of isolation?

A

Protective

99
Q

A patient can withdraw consent for a procedure to be performed?

After the consent is signed
Before the procedure
During the Procedure
All of the above

A

After the consent is signed
Before the procedure
During the Procedure

All of the above

100
Q

A W^^R has been established for each of the following ionizing radiations:

X-radiations (W^^R=1)
Fast Neutrons (W^^R=20)
and Alpha Particles (W^^R=20)

What is the total EqD for a person who has received the following exposures?

X-radiation (.13 Gy)
Fast Neutrons (030 Gy)
Alpha Particles (.6 Gy)

Mock Exam- Seminar (2 decks)

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