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Mock Exam- Seminar > Mock Exam- Part 1 > Flashcards

Mock Exam- Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the CR angle for the AP Oblique Projection- Judet Method?

A

0 Degrees

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2
Q

Where is the CR entrance point for the AP Internal Oblique Projection- Judet Method?

A

2 inches Inferior to the ASIS

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3
Q

What projections best demonstrates the coronoid process of the ulna?

A

AP Oblique Elbow, Medial Rotation

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4
Q

Which ribs are false ribs?

A

8-12

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5
Q

What forms the Anterior 1/5 of the acetabulum?

A

Pubis

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6
Q

What position best demonstrates the splenic flexure FREE of superimposition?

A

RPO

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7
Q

How many ribs SHOULD be visible above the diaphragm on a PA Chest?

A

10 (not 9)

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8
Q

Waters method (sinuses), the OML is placed at what angle to the IR?

A

37 degrees

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9
Q

Where does the CR enter for an AP Axial projection of the zygomatic arches?

A

1 inch above the Nasion

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10
Q

What position should be used to visualize the kidneys to demonstrate nephroptosis?

A

Erect Abdomen

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11
Q

What is another name for the 2nd cervical vertebra?

A

Axis

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12
Q

Which IVs and pedicles are demonstrated on an AP axial oblique projection of the C-Spine?

A

Farthest Side from the IR

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13
Q

The frontal bone articulates with which of the following?

Right and Left Parietals
Sphenoid
Temporal
Ethmoid

A

Right and Left Partetals
Sphenoid
Ethmoid

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14
Q

Where does the CR enter for an AP Pelvis?

A

2 inches above pubis symphysis

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT to be performed on a trauma patient?

Danelius- Miller
Clements-Nakayama Method
Modified Cleaves Method

A

Modified Cleaves

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16
Q

The zygapophyseal joints are shown on what position for the C-Spine?

A

Lateral Position

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17
Q

What is perpendicular for the AP open mouth projection of the odontoid?

A

Tip of the mastoid and the upper incisors

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18
Q

The left IV of the C-spine are demonstrated on what projections?

A

AP Oblique Projection- RPO Position

PA Oblique Projection- LAO Position

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19
Q

How much rotation is needed for an AP oblique projection (RPO and LAO) of the C-Spine for visualization of the IV?

A

45 Degrees

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20
Q

Where is the CR directed for an AP lumbosacral spine?

A

Perpendicular to the level of the iliac crests

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21
Q

An AP oblique projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints. Where are they located in relation to the IR?

A

The Zygapophyseal joints Closest to the IR

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22
Q

What elbow projection demonstrates the coronoid process in profile?

A

Medial Oblique

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23
Q

What does the Stecher Method demonstrate?

A

Navicular (Scaphoid)

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24
Q

What does the lateral projection of the elbow demonstrate?

A

Olecranon Process

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25
Q

The AP projection of the humerus demonstrates?

A

Greater Tubercle

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26
Q

What fat pads are visible on the negative lateral elbow study?

A

Anterior and Posterior Fat Pads

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27
Q

Where are the petrous ridges projected for the parietoacanthial projection (Waters Method of the Sinuses?

A

Below the floor of the Maxillary Sinuses

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28
Q

What positioning line is perpendicular to the IR for the PA Axial projection of the Sinuses (Caldwell Method)?

**Check this- is Caldwell AP?*

A

Glabellomeatal Line

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29
Q

What is the CR angulation for the axiolateral projection Coyle Method for the elbow?

A

45 Degrees

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30
Q

Which of the following lie within the abdominal cavity?

Stomach
Kidneys
Liver
Rectum

A

Stomach
Kidneys
Liver

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31
Q

The CR for the left lateral decubitus position of the abdomen should be?

A

2 inches above the iliac crests

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32
Q

The shoulder girdle consists of which bones?

A

Clavicle and Scapula

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33
Q

Where does the CR enter for the AP projection of the shoulder?

A

1 inch inferior to the coracoid process

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34
Q

What positions demonstrate the sternum projected through the heart shadow?

A

PA Oblique, and RAO

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35
Q

The right side ribs are elongated on what positions?

A

AP Oblique RPO

PA Oblique LAO

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36
Q

What positions best demonstrate Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Ap and Lateral Knee Projections

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37
Q

Where is the esophagus in relation to the trachea?

A

Posterior

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38
Q

What is the sail sign that is visible on an infant chest radiograph?

A

The Thymus

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39
Q

Where is the top of the IR positioned for a PA Chest radiograph?

A

1 1/2 to 2 inches above the Shoulders

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40
Q

To demonstrate fluid in the pleural cavity, the patient must be placed so that the _________________ is down.

A

Affected side if down

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41
Q

What is the degree of angulation of the body for the PA oblique projection of the esophagus?

A

35 to 40 degrees

42
Q

The patient should be NPO for how long before a stomach study?

A

8 hours

43
Q

When performing an UGI series, the pyloric canal, duodenal bulb, and the c-loop are best demonstrated on which position?

A

PA Oblique and RAO

44
Q

To evaluate the small intestines, barium may be given by:

Mouth
Rectally
Enteroclysis
All of the Above

A

Mouth
Rectally
Enterocylsis

All of Them

45
Q

Which of the following projections demonstrates the rectosigmoid area when performing a barium enema?

AP Axial
PA Axial
Lateral

A

AP Axial
PA Axial
Lateral

All of them

46
Q

What is demonstrated best when performing a double contrast Barium Enema in the right lateral decubitus position?

A

Medial side of the ascending colon

Lateral side of the descending colon

47
Q

Surgical cholangiography images are usually performed with the patient in what positions?

A

AP and AP Oblique (RPO)

48
Q

How many degrees is the patient rotated for an AP oblique projection of the urinary system?

A

30 degrees

49
Q

How much (degrees) is the body rotated for an AP oblique projection when performing a cystourethrogram?

A

35 to 40 degrees for both male and female

50
Q

What degree of body rotation should be used for an AP oblique projection of the stomach?

A

30 to 60 degrees

51
Q

What projection would put the left kidney perpendicular to the IR?

A

AP Oblique LPO (Downside is perpendicular) (Upside is parallel- right)

52
Q

What articulates with the cuboid out of the following?

Calcaneus
Talus
Medial Cuniform
Lateral Cuniform

A

Calcaneous

Lateral Cuniform

53
Q

A fracture of the base of the first metacarpal is a?

A

Bennett’s Fracture

54
Q

What projection should be utilized to best demonstrate the structural changes present in the longitudinal arch due to pathology?

A

Lateral Weight Bearing

55
Q

What type of CR is required with a Merchant Method of the knee?

A

A Tangential CR

56
Q

If the original intensity of the beam is 15 mGy^^a, at a 102 cm SID, What would the new intensity be if the SID is changed to 183 cm?

A

4.66

57
Q

The SI unit for absorbed dose is?

A

G

58
Q

What is the monthly dose limit to the embryo fetus for a pregnant technologist?

A

.5 mSv

59
Q

45 mGy^^a resulting from 80 kVp at 15 mAs will produce an exposure rate of?

A

3 m/Gy^^a (how is this done?)

60
Q

The doors to the radiographic room should contain what thickness of lead?

A

0.8 mm (1/32 inch)

61
Q

Which of the following methods will reduce occupational exposure?

Increasing Collimation
Decreasing Collimation
Increasing the mAs by 15%
Decreasing the mAs by 15%

A

Decreasing Collimation (Why?)

62
Q

Fluoroscopic protective drapes should contain how much mm Pb equivalency?

A

.25 mm Pb equivalency

63
Q

how do most interactions with DNA macromolecules occur?

A

Indirectly

64
Q

Which of the following types of tissues are the most sensitive to ionizing radiation?

Muscle Tissue
Adult Nerve Tissue
Brain Tissue
Epithelial Tissue

A

Epithelial Tissue

65
Q

What acute radiation syndrome is also known as “Bone marrow syndrome” and the survival time shortens as the radiation dose increases?

A

Hemopoietic Syndrome

66
Q

What is an example of high-LET radiation?

A

Alpha Particles

67
Q

What is the whole body annual occupational effective dose limit?

A

50 mSv

68
Q

What is the primary source of radiation exposure to diagnostic radiation personnel?

A

Comptom Scattering

69
Q

What SI unit is used to measure the effective dose (EfD)?

A

Sieverts

70
Q

Which of the following types of contrast should NOT be used on a patient with a suspected peforated bowel?

Gastroview
Isovue-200
Barium
Isovue-300

A

Barium

71
Q

The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur translates to what phrase?

A

The thing speaks for itself

72
Q

What is required when a patient is subjected to any type of invasive procedure?

A

Informed Consent

73
Q

What is defined as an object, such as a door handle, that harbors pathogenic microorganisms and may serve as an agent of transmission of an infection?

A

Fomite

74
Q

What age group (child) is often concerned only with what is going to be done to them at the moment?

A

Toddlers (1-3 years)

75
Q

What is the most common means of spreading infection?

A

Human Hands

76
Q

What systolic blood pressure indicates shock?

A

Systolic pressure UNDER 60 mmHg

77
Q

What is the normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient?

A

12-20 breaths/min

78
Q

What is the simpler name derived from the more complex chemical name of a drug?

A

Generic Name

79
Q

What should you do when a patient who is complaining of pain in the area of the left 4th and 5th metatarsals; however, the requisition asks for a left ankle exam?

A

Check with the referring physician

80
Q

What is the total brightness gain of an image intensifier if the minification gain is 25 and the flux gain is 40?

A

1000

81
Q

A grid error that causes a loss of density over the entire image and grid lines more pronounced on one side of the image?

A

Off-Center Error

82
Q

A parallel circuit has 3 ohms, 2 ohms, and 5 ohms and a potential difference of 220 V. What is the current?

A

227 amps

83
Q

Based on the Nyquist Theorem, in digital imaging at least ______________ the numbers of pixels needed to form the image must be sampled.

A

2 times

84
Q

Multiple conversions occur in CR/PSP imaging; electrons to light, light to digital info, digital to analog signal, etc. This can result in a loss of ________ within the image.

A

Detail

85
Q

Using a Fuji imaging system, you are radiographing a PA chest. The “S” number for this system should be at a range of 200-400 for an acceptable image. Your response results in an “S” number of 800. What is the best solution for repeating your image?

A

Double your mAs

86
Q

What layer of the CR imaging plate sends light in a forward direction when released in the cassette reader?

A

Reflective

87
Q

The data within the collimated area of an image produces a graphical representation of densities known as:

A

Histogram

88
Q

The amount of patient tissue included in an image is known as:

A

Field of View

89
Q

True or False

Digital images have a wider dynamic range compared to film screen.

A

True

90
Q

True or False

Bit depth determines the contrast resolution of an image.

A

True

91
Q

True or False

Spatial resolution does not depend on pixel size.

A

False

92
Q

What are materials that absorb x-rays, resulting in an electrical charge?

A

Photoconductors

93
Q

How many bits make up a byte?

A

8

94
Q

A small area networked with a series of cables or wireless access points that allow computers to share information and devices on the same network is known as a:

A

LAN-Local area network

95
Q

A PACS (Picture Archiving and Communication System) is considered this type of network?

A

Server Based Network

96
Q

True or False

The larger the pixel, the greater the detail.

A

False

97
Q

When the emission of light from a stimulated material is delayed (afterglow), this is called:

A

Phosphorescence

98
Q

CR phosphor plates are most sensitive to?

A

Scatter Radiation

99
Q

A lack of sufficient incoming data for the processing or an insufficient number of photons reaching the IR is known as:

A

Quantum Mottle

100
Q

A binary number is also known as a?

A

Bit

Mock Exam- Seminar (2 decks)

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